Case Law[2025] ZAGPPHC 1137South Africa
Centpret Properties (Pty) Limited v Maake (2024/025753) [2025] ZAGPPHC 1137 (21 October 2025)
High Court of South Africa (Gauteng Division, Pretoria)
21 October 2025
Headnotes
Summary:
Judgment
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# South Africa: North Gauteng High Court, Pretoria
South Africa: North Gauteng High Court, Pretoria
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## Centpret Properties (Pty) Limited v Maake (2024/025753) [2025] ZAGPPHC 1137 (21 October 2025)
Centpret Properties (Pty) Limited v Maake (2024/025753) [2025] ZAGPPHC 1137 (21 October 2025)
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sino date 21 October 2025
FLYNOTES:
EVICTION – Commercial premises –
Lease
agreement
–
Cancellation
– Breach – Failed to pay despite receiving notice to
remedy breach – Notices were clear and
unequivocal –
More than twenty business days had elapsed before termination –
Notices sent to designated email
address and deemed received –
Occupier did not dispute receipt or provide any explanation –
Lease validly terminated
– No right to remain in occupation
– Obstructive conduct throughout litigation – Costs
warranted –
Eviction granted
SAFLII
Note:
Certain
personal/private details of parties or witnesses have been
redacted from this document in compliance with the law
and
SAFLII
Policy
IN
THE HIGH COURT OF SOUTH AFRICA
GAUTENG
DIVISION, PRETORIA
Case
number: 2024/025753
In
the matter between:
CENTPRET
PROPERTIES (PTY) LIMITED
Applicant
and
MASILO
CHARLES MAAKE
Respondent
Neutral
citation:
Coram
:
E Botha AJ
Heard
:
11 September 2025
Decided
:
21 October 2025
Summary
:
ORDER
1.
The respondent’s request that the case be struck from the roll
is refused
with attorney-and-client costs.
2.
The respondent’s application for recusal is dismissed with
costs.
3.
The respondent’s application for striking out is dismissed with
attorney-and-client
costs.
4.
The respondent’s application for postponement is dismissed.
5.
The applicant’s application for eviction is granted as follows:
5.1.
The respondent and all those occupying through or under the
respondent are hereby evicted from
the property situated at Erf
3[...] Pretoria, also known as Office 0[...], Office 0[...], Office
0[...], and Strongroom S0[...],
Protea Towers, 2[...] P[...] K[...]
Street, Pretoria, 0002 (‘the property’).
5.2.
In the event of the respondent and all those occupying through or
under the respondent failing
or refusing to vacate the property by 5
November 2025, the Sheriff of the High Court and, if necessary, his
deputy is authorised
and required to carry out the eviction, with the
assistance of the South African Police Services, if necessary.
6.
The respondent is liable for the attorney-and-client costs of the
application.
7.
The applicant is liable for its own costs in respect of 8 September
2025.
JUDGMENT
E
BOTHA AJ:
Introduction
[1]
The applicant, Centpret Properties (Pty) Limited, seeks an order
evicting the respondent
from commercial premises. The applicant is
the owner of the premises which include a number of offices and a
strongroom in a building
in Pretoria (“
the
premises
”
).
[1]
The respondent, Mr Masilo Charles Maake, is an attorney who occupies
the premises in terms of a written lease that was concluded
on 1
September 2021 (“
the
lease
”
).
[2]
By March of 2024 the respondent had fallen into arrears. The
applicant sued the respondent
in the Magistrate’s Court for the
amount of R87,956.94. It also brought this application. The
applicant’s case is that
the respondent’s failure to pay
constitutes a material breach of the terms of the lease and that,
despite it giving him due
notice to rectify the breach, he failed to
do so. This, the applicant says, led to a termination of the lease,
entitling it to
an order for eviction.
[3]
The respondent raised a number of defences without contesting the
allegation that
he is in arrears. In his answering affidavit, he
raised four points
in limine
, including lack of authority on
the part of the applicant’s deponent to the founding affidavit;
lis pendens
; lack of jurisdiction; and improper cancellation.
The respondent also raised some other objections to the case
proceeding at the
hearing. For this reason, the litigation history
has to be set out in some detail.
The
litigation history
[4]
The application was issued on 7 March 2024 and served on the
respondent personally
by the Sheriff on 2 May 2024. Service of the
application took place at the premises, being the respondent’s
chosen
domicilium citandi et executandi
. The respondent did
not initially oppose the application. The applicant applied to the
registrar for a hearing on the unopposed
motion roll.
[5]
A little more than a month after service of the application, on 3
June 2024, the respondent’s
firm, Masilo Maake Attorneys, gave
notice of intention to oppose. The respondent did not file an
answering affidavit by the due
date.
[2]
On 1 July 2024 the applicant set the case down for hearing on the
unopposed motion roll of 28 August 2024. The case could not proceed
because the respondent belatedly filed his answering affidavit on the
day before the hearing. The answering affidavit was not accompanied
by an application for condonation.
[6]
On 1 October 2024 the applicant’s practice note, heads of
argument, list of
authorities, and chronology were filed. On 4
December 2024, the applicant applied for a hearing on the opposed
motion roll. The
applicant uploaded a compliance statement in terms
of the Practice Directives to
CourtOnline
, but it was not
uploaded to
Caselines
. On 7 January 2025, the respondent was
given notice by the applicant that the case had been set down on the
opposed motion roll
for 12 May 2025.
[7]
On 8 May 2025 Her Ladyship Ms Justice Molopa-Sethosa J
[3]
directed that the case would be heard on 13 May 2025. The respondent,
however, had not filed a practice note, heads of argument,
a list of
authorities, or a chronology. He had also not participated in the
compiling of a joint minute. Molopa-Sethosa J postponed
the case
sine
die
,
ordered the respondent to comply within ten days, and ordered him to
pay attorney-and-client costs.
[8]
On 27 May 2025 the respondent filed heads of argument and a list of
authorities. None
of the other documents required by the order were
filed. He did not file a practice note and he did not participate in
compiling
a joint practice note. On 26 June 2025 the applicant served
the notice of set down on the respondent, setting the case down for
hearing on the opposed motion roll of 8 September 2025.
[9]
On 21 August 2025 the applicant filed a second practice note dated 29
May 2025. In
the practice note, it was
inter alia
recorded
that the respondent had been ordered to provide input in respect of
the joint practice note and that he had failed to
do so. It was also
recorded that the joint practice note was forwarded to the respondent
on 29 May 2025, and that no input was
provided.
[10]
On 4 September 2025 the respondent served a notice of application to
strike out on the applicant.
The notice was sent by e-mail at 21h49
in the evening, after the respondent had signed the notice on 2
September and the affidavit
on 3 September.
[11]
On 5 September 2025 the court issued directions in respect of the
hearing of all opposed matters,
including directing that this case
was to be heard at 10h00 on 11 September 2025. Later the same day,
the court’s Registrar
received an e-mail from the applicant’s
attorneys. The applicant’s attorneys indicated that there was a
problem with
the applicant’s advocate appearing on 11
September, and it was requested that the case be heard on another day
of the week.
[4]
The respondent
was included in the applicant’s e-mail. The court informed the
Registrar by e-mail to ‘[p]lease inform
the parties’
representatives that they must appear at 10h00 on Monday morning for
arrangements to be made for the hearing
of the matter’. The
court’s registrar wrote an e-mail to both parties and, without
realising it at the time, only sent
it to the applicant’s
attorneys.
[12]
Only the applicant’s legal representatives appeared on 8
September. Under circumstances
where the court had already directed
that the case would be heard on 11 September, and where the
respondent could not be heard
in respect of any alternative
arrangements for a hearing later in the week, the date of the hearing
could not change. The court
ordered that the case would be heard on
11 September as initially directed; that notice of the order had to
be dispatched to the
respondent; and that the costs be reserved.
[13]
On 11 September, the respondent appeared on his own behalf and Mr
Kruger appeared on behalf of
the applicant with the applicant’s
attorney.
The
request that the case be struck from the roll
[14]
At the commencement of the hearing, the respondent took the point
that the applicant had not
filed a compliance statement in terms of
the Paragraph 14 of the Practice Directives and moved for the court
to strike the case
from the roll.
Prima facie
, and in the
circumstances, this was not the type of deficiency that should
prevent a case that is otherwise ripe for hearing from
proceeding.
[15]
The authorities cited
[5]
or
alluded to
[6]
by the respondent
were not authority for his proposition. Being unable to address the
court on some of the authority to which he
was alluding,
[7]
the case was stood down for a second time to provide the respondent
an opportunity to find it.
[8]
He
was unable to do so. The respondent was also unable to explain how
and why he would have been prejudiced by any failure by the
applicant
to file a compliance statement. He had even more difficulty
explaining his position with regard to prejudice in view
of the fact
that he had not complied with the Practice Directives, the Uniform
Rules of Court, or the order of Molopa-Sethosa J.
[16]
In
Arendsnes
[9]
it was held that courts are not bound inflexibly by rules of
procedure and that they have a discretion, which must be exercised
judicially on a consideration of the facts of each case. In
Registrar
of Insurance
[10]
it was held that the court had to consider whether any of the parties
would be prejudiced and that it should not allow ‘the
rules of
procedure to tyrannise [it] where an important matter has to be
thrashed out fully.’ The facts before the court
are that the
respondent’s non-compliance caused delays in the hearing of the
case. There is no evidence that any non-compliance
by the applicant
caused any delay in the case being heard, or that the respondent had
been prejudiced in any way.
[17]
The purpose of the Practice Directives is to ensure the effective and
expeditious resolution
of cases. Those that the respondent relied on
are there so the office of the Registrar does not have to trawl
through entire court
files before enrolling a case. As is the case
with all rules of procedure, compliance with the Practice Directives
must be taken
seriously, and nothing in this judgment should be taken
to derogate from it. It will and should happen in some cases that a
court
has to refuse to hear a case due to non-compliance. In
Nathram
,
[11]
Davis J reminded that an abuse occurs ‘when an attempt is made
to use for ulterior purposes machinery designed for the better
administration of justice’.
[18]
In moving for an order striking the case from the roll, the
respondent tried to employ mechanisms
provided for in the Practice
Directives for a purpose for which they were not designed or
intended. If this were allowed, the effect
would not be benign. It
would inevitably lead to further delays, unnecessary costs, and a
waste of valuable court resources. This
would prejudice the applicant
and, more than that, it would be detrimental to the effective
administration of justice, which is
the very objective that the
Practice Directives seeks to achieve.
[19]
Nathram
and the authorities on
which Davis J relied calls upon this court to exercise its inherent
power and to comply with its duty to
prevent an abuse of its
processes. The events set out thus far, including the argument in
respect of this point and instances where
the case was stood down for
the respondent’s benefit, took the hearing beyond 14h00 in the
afternoon. Most of the day had
been spent on a meritless point that
merely sought to prevent the case from being heard. One of the ways
in which a court can show
its displeasure with a party’s
conduct in litigation is by awarding attorney-and-client costs.
[12]
In all the circumstances, the court must dismiss the point with
attorney-and-client costs.
The
application for recusal
[20]
It was during the respondent’s argument in reply on the
previous point, after the court
had asked him about compliance with
the order of Molopa-Sethosa J, that the respondent first mentioned
recusal. He expressed the
view that he should not have been expected
by the court to answer questions in respect of the order of
Molopa-Sethosa J, and that
the court appeared predisposed not to
strike the case from the roll. The court offered the respondent time
to consider whether
he wanted to proceed with the argument on his
point, or whether he wanted to move for the court’s recusal.
The respondent
accepted the invitation, and the case was stood down
for the third time for the respondent’s benefit. Upon
resumption, the
respondent indicated that he would continue his
argument on the previous point and that, depending on what the court
did, he would
then decide what he would do about the application for
recusal. After finishing his argument, the respondent was requested
to address
the court on the remainder of the points he had before a
decision would be made. He refused.
[21]
The respondent handed up from the bar a notice of recusal
application. The application was signed
by the respondent on 10
September 2025 - the day before the case was heard. There were two
grounds advanced for the recusal. The
first was the Registrar’s
e-mail to the parties and the circumstances that led the order that
was made on 8 September. The
second was the court’s alleged
predisposition regarding the previous point. This included the fact
that the court used the
term ‘unclean hands’ in the
context of the respondent refusing to address the court on a question
whether he had complied
with Molopa-Sethosa J’s order. The
respondent addressed the court on the grounds, referring to
SARFU
II
,
[13]
SACCAWU
,
[14]
and
Khan
[15]
.
Thereafter, Mr Kruger addressed the court, arguing against the
recusal and submitting that the facts showed a mind that remained
open to persuasion. The respondent replied. Having considered the
application, the grounds therefor, the various authorities and
the
arguments raised by the parties, the court gave an
ex
tempore
judgment
on the issue of recusal, dismissing it with costs. What follows is
the essence of the reasons.
[22]
The authorities, including that on which the respondent relies
emphasises the application of
the test for recusal on the correct
facts, and that one has to bear in mind all the circumstances. The
test is only satisfied if
a reasonable, objective, and informed
person would, on the correct facts, reasonably apprehend that the
judge has not or will not
bring an impartial mind to bear.
[16]
[23]
In respect of the appearance on 8 September, the correct facts were
that the court had directed
both parties to attend court, but that
the Registrar only sent the e-mail to one party. This was clearly a
bona
fide
mistake
on the part of the Registrar, that neither the Registrar nor the
court was aware of until it was raised in the application
for
recusal. In
SARFU
II
,
[17]
a case on which the respondent strongly relied, the Constitutional
Court held that the usual procedure is to first seek a meeting
with
the judge in the presence of his opponent to give the judge an
opportunity to respond. Had the respondent done what was expected
of
him, the error would have become immediately apparent, and any
feelings he harboured as a result of the accidental exclusion
from
the e-mail would likely have been alleviated.
[24]
The order granted on 8 September was not made to benefit the
applicant, but to uphold
audi alteram partem
. Inferences such
as those drawn by the respondent, that by reserving the costs the
court had a negative disposition of the respondent,
are not
reasonable inferences. On the facts, a reasonable, objective and
informed person would not reasonably apprehend that the
court would
not bring an impartial mind to bear.
[25]
If the respondent had strongly and genuinely felt anxious about the
court’s impartiality,
he would have informed the court of this
at the commencement of the hearing on 11 September. He had the facts
at his disposal,
and he had prepared and signed the notice of motion
in the application for recusal the previous day. In any event, in
Bernert
,
[18]
the Constitutional Court held that mere apprehensiveness on the part
of a litigant that a judge will be biased - even a strongly
and
honestly felt anxiety - is not enough.
[26]
The same applies to the respondent’s application for recusal
based on the court’s
questions or statements during the
argument on the first point. In
Take
& Save Trading
[19]
Harms JA said ‘[a] Judge “is not a mere umpire to answer
the question ‘How's that?’” Lord Denning
once said.
Fairness of court proceedings requires of the trier to be actively
involved in the management of the trial, to control
the proceedings,
to ensure that public and private resources are not wasted, to point
out when evidence is irrelevant, and to refuse
to listen to
irrelevant evidence. A supine approach towards litigation by judicial
officers is not justifiable either in terms
of the fair trial
requirement or in the context of resources.’ Here, the relevant
facts include that the court differed with
the respondent on a number
of his submissions, in some cases strongly; the court questioned the
respondent on the relevance, or
accuracy of authorities he relied on,
and questioned why he was unable to fully address the court on
authorities on which he relied;
the court questioned the respondent
to address it on his compliance with the order of Molopa-Sethosa J;
the court did not accept
an attorney avoiding valid questions; and
the court even used the term unclean hands to describe the action of
asking for a striking
from the roll in circumstances where there had
been non- compliance with an order of court. This should not be
considered in a
vacuum, but in the circumstances of the lack of merit
of the point the respondent took, as well as the respondent’s
general
conduct in the litigation. The facts also include that the
court gave the respondent more than one opportunity to prepare
himself
for arguments he could not raise effectively due to not being
prepared, either by standing down or allowing time for him to search
for authorities and information that had not been filed. This is not
conduct that a reasonable person would associate with a mind
that was
not open to persuasion. None of this can be described as
injudicious.
[20]
None of the
relevant facts would cause a reasonable, objective and informed
person to reasonably apprehend that the court would
not bring an
impartial mind to bear.
[27]
Before concluding on this point, it is necessary to address another
aspect of the application
for recusal. The respondent came to court
armed with an application for recusal, yet he did not move it. After
mentioning it the
first time, he decided to wait and see what the
court did, before moving it. In
Bernert
,
the Constitutional Court held that conduct such as that of the
respondent, waiting to see what the outcome is before pursuing
his
complaint of bias, is inconsistent with a reasonable apprehension of
bias.
[21]
[28]
By the time the application of recusal had been dismissed, it was
already after 15h00. All of
this, the surrounding circumstances, the
manner in which the application for recusal was pursued, and the
timing thereof, also
demonstrates that the respondent sought to
employ the application for recusal for a purpose that it was not
designed or intended:
a delay in the hearing of the matter. It had
the same purpose as asking for the case to be struck. Even when the
stratagem failed,
it still led to delays, unnecessary costs and a
waste of valuable court resources.
The
application for postponement
[29]
In
SACCAWU
[22]
it was held that where an application for recusal is dismissed, the
court may require the party seeking the recusal to deal with
the
merits. The respondent was asked to proceed with his next point. The
respondent then informed the court that he had to leave
for an
appointment with a doctor. It was only when the court asked whether
he was applying for a postponement before he decided
to move for one.
[30]
The postponement of a matter set down for hearing on a particular
date cannot be claimed as a
right. An applicant for a postponement
seeks an indulgence from the court. A postponement will not be
granted unless a court is
satisfied that it is in the interests of
justice to do so. In this respect the applicant must ordinarily show
that there is good
cause for the postponement. Whether a postponement
will be granted lies within the discretion of the court. In
exercising that
discretion, a court takes into account a number of
factors, including (but not limited to) whether the application has
been timeously
made, whether the explanation given by the applicant
for postponement is full and satisfactory, whether there is prejudice
to any
of the parties, whether the application is opposed, and the
broader public interest.
[23]
[31]
The respondent did not give a full and satisfactory explanation for
the postponement. he respondent
merely stated that he had a medical
appointment and claimed a postponement as if it were a right. Even
after indicating that he
sought a postponement, no details were
provided.
[32]
Although it is conceivable that, for reasons of privacy, a party may
not wish to disclose the
particulars of his doctor or of his medical
condition or symptoms, he will not necessarily be absolved from doing
so. In any event,
the respondent did not rely on his privacy as a
reason not to give a full and satisfactory explanation. In the
absence of reasons
of privacy being raised, there was no reason why
the respondent could not disclose the name of the doctor, or at least
the type
of doctor, or at least whether it was a general practitioner
or a specialist. There was no explanation as to why he needed to see
a doctor, when the need to see one arose, or when the appointment was
made. No diary entry was shown. No information was offered
as to the
urgency of the consultation, the severity of the condition, or any
difficulty seeing the same doctor later on the same
day, or the next
day, or why a later consultation would not suffice. There was no
explanation as to why the appointment was made
for a day on which he
knew the matter was going to be heard. As an attorney, he must have
known that all the points that he intended
to take, together with his
argument on the merits of the application would take the whole day,
excluding allowance being made for
the applicant’s argument.
There was no argument in respect of any prejudice the respondent
would suffer if the postponement
was not granted, or how any
prejudice to the applicant may be avoided. There was no tender for
wasted costs.
[33]
In all the circumstances, a postponement would not be in the interest
of justice. The application
for postponement was accordingly refused.
The
application to strike out
[34]
At the commencement of the hearing, before raising his first point,
the respondent referred to
an application to strike out. He was,
however, unable to address the court on it. It was then that the
court gave the respondent
his first opportunity of standing down to
prepare himself to argue. It was only after 15h00 that he eventually
moved the application
he first referred to just after 10h00 in the
morning.
[35]
In terms of Rule 6(15) the court may on application strike out from
an affidavit any matter which
is scandalous, vexatious or
irrelevant.
[24]
Whatever the
grounds may be, the court may not grant the application unless it is
satisfied that the applicant will be prejudiced
if the application is
not granted.
[25]
Despite
mentioning other grounds, the respondent only attempted to make out a
case in respect of what he says is new matter.
[26]
[36]
The respondent is correct in submitting that the applicant must make
out its case in the founding
affidavit. The court must first
determine if a
prima
facie
case
is made out and, if not, to decide whether it is open to be
condoned.
[27]
For the reasons
that follow later, it is found that the applicant did make out a
prima
facie
case
for the eviction.
[28]
The
material in the replying affidavit that the respondent asks the court
to strike out was not made to introduce necessary allegations
that
had been omitted from the founding affidavit. They were further
corroborating facts necessitated by the approach taken by
the
respondent in the answering affidavit. Under such circumstances it
would be wrong for the court to strike them out.
[29]
[37]
The prejudice raised by the respondent was the alleged lack of an
‘opportunity to answer’
the allegations in the replying
affidavit. The respondent’s affidavit in the striking out
application and his reliance on
Rule 6(5)(d)(iii) therein shows that
the respondent never had the intention of answering the allegations
in the founding affidavit
in the first place. The respondent did not
attempt to make out a case explaining why he was unable to answer
effectively at the
time. He filed an answering affidavit but elected
not to provide a full answer to the founding affidavit.
[30]
If he had any intention of answering to the allegations in the
replying affidavit or supplement his answer, as he now claims, he
had
more than a year to do so. He used none of the opportunities he had
to place his version before the court.
[38]
In the words of Kirk-Cohen J in
Bowman
,
[31]
the application to strike-out ‘has been raised only as a
tactical weapon and not because of any prejudice suffered.’
In
the circumstances it is found that the respondent has failed to
establish any ground to strike out any allegation from the replying
affidavit and that, in any event, there is an absence of prejudice.
This application was another meritless point that merely sought
to
prevent the case from being heard in full. In all the circumstances,
the court must dismiss the application for striking out
with
attorney-and-client costs.
The
refusal to address the court
[39]
After the court had ruled against the respondent on the applications
for recusal and postponement,
and after hearing him on the motions to
strike the case from the roll and to strike allegations from the
replying affidavit, he
refused to address the court on the remainder
of the case.
[40]
Despite the court ruling that the matter had to proceed and that
arguments had to be finalised,
the respondent unjustifiably refused
to address the court, saying that it was too late in the day and that
he held the view that
the court had no power to sit beyond normal
court hours. It must be borne in mind that it being late in the day
without the parties
having had an opportunity to address the court on
the merits was due to the respondent’s approach to the
litigation and throughout
the day of the hearing.
[41]
Despite the court’s repeated invitations and emphasis on the
respondent’s right to
be heard, he chose not to argue his case.
Rather, he chose to take considerable time to question the court’s
motives, the
court’s powers, and to make threats against the
court, such as to lay complaints with the Judge President and the
Judicial
Services Commission. Having spent some time on this, he
proceeded to walk out of court.
[42]
With the respondent having chosen not to participate in the
proceedings any longer, the court
had to decide whether to adjourn
the matter or proceed to hear Mr Kruger on behalf of the applicant in
the respondent’s absence.
This was not a decision that could
be, or was, taken lightly. Section 34 of the Constitution guarantees
the respondent the right
to have the dispute between him and the
applicant resolved in accordance with the law in a fair hearing. The
applicant has the
same right. Section 173 of the Constitution
provides that the High Court has the inherent power to protect and
regulate its own
process, taking into account the interests of
justice.
[32]
In the words of
Davis J,
[33]
it is a
constitutionally authorised power of a High Court to regulate its own
processes, and it is an incidence of its inherent
power to prevent
the abuse of its processes.
[43]
The regulation of process and the prevention of an abuse thereof go
hand in hand. A court cannot
allow itself to be tyrannised by rules
and procedures when a case has to be thrashed out.
[34]
Rules and procedures, as well as the right to be heard and to have a
dispute decided, cannot be allowed to operate solely in favour
of one
party to the detriment of the other, particularly if the former is
obstructive. Determining what is in the interests of
justice requires
weighing both parties’ constitutional rights to be heard and to
have their dispute decided by the court.
It also requires weighing
the court’s constitutional obligation to regulate its process
in a manner that allows for adjudication
while preventing abuse. In a
case such as this, one side of the scale holds the respondent’s
right to be heard and to have
the dispute decided, and the other side
holds the applicant’s corresponding right. where abuse by one
party threatens the
other’s right to be heard and to have the
dispute decided, the court must place the weight of that abuse on the
latter’s
side of the scale. In all the circumstances of this
case, the scales of justice tilt in favour of the applicant’s
right to
be heard and have the case decided. To the extent that the
respondent’s rights are affected by the decision, the affect is
reasonable and justifiable in the circumstances. The respondent had
more than ample opportunity to address the court on all the
issues he
considered important, and where he failed to make use of those
opportunities, he has only himself to blame. In the specific
circumstances of this case, the court would be remiss in its
constitutional duties if it were to hold itself bound by what is
considered normal court hours. Allowing the case to be part-heard and
postponed in such circumstances would be tantamount to permitting
the
continued perpetration of an abuse.
[35]
[44]
The court decided that the hearing had to proceed and that it would
hear the applicant in the
absence of the respondent. Despite the
respondent’s decision to leave without further addressing the
court, the court deals
with the merits by reference to each of the
points raised in the answering affidavit.
Authority
to institute proceedings
[45]
Reduced to its essence, the respondent’s first point is that
the applicant must have authorised
Ms Smith, the deponent to the
founding affidavit, to institute the application. Ms Smith is no more
than a witness with knowledge
of the relevant facts. Her affidavit
makes that clear and the respondent did not challenge the basis of
her knowledge. It is not
Ms Smith, but the attorney acting on behalf
of the applicant that requires authorisation to institute and
prosecute the action.
[36]
The
correct manner of challenging the attorney’s authority is to
file a notice in terms of Uniform Rule 7.
[37]
[46]
The respondent did not place the applicant’s attorney’s
authorisation in dispute
in the answering affidavit. He did not file
the required notice. It was also disingenuous of him to follow that
approach and then,
when the applicant met his challenge in the
replying affidavit, to apply for the allegations to be struck out. In
doing so, he
caused a needless burgeoning of the papers which is what
the introduction of Rule 7 sought to avoid.
[38]
The point is without merit and does not provide the respondent with a
defence.
Lis
pendens
[47]
The respondent’s point of
lis
pendens
is
based on the pending action in the Magistrate’s Court. The
authority on which the respondent relies is correct,
[39]
but his conclusion is not, as it is not based on the facts. Though he
accepts the
onus
of proof, he placed no
evidence before the court on which the decision could be made. For
reasons that will become clearer, he did
not take the court into his
confidence by including the pleadings in the Magistrate’s Court
action. By doing so, he forced
the applicant to do so in its replying
affidavit. In view of this, it was also insincere of him to apply for
the relevant allegations
and the attached pleadings to be struck out
from the replying affidavit.
[48]
Even on his own version, the action is for payment and this
application is for eviction. The
relief sought is not the same. The
Williams
[40]
case on which the respondent relies, is not authority for the
proposition that a party claiming payment of arrear rental in one
action cannot seek eviction in another application. The point is
without merit and does not provide the respondent with a defence.
Jurisdiction
[49]
There is no doubt that on the evidence in the founding affidavit, the
court has jurisdiction
in the usual sense. The respondent, however,
argues that the applicant first had to follow an informal process
before launching
the application. Clause 13.2 does not, as the
respondent says under oath, provide that the dispute
shall
be
resolved informally. Nor does it provide for anything that would oust
the court’s jurisdiction. It provides for a party
to make an
election as to whether it will approach the court for relief or
whether it would have a dispute referred to one of the
processes
provided for in the lease.
[50]
A second string to the respondent’s jurisdiction bow is his
criticism of the election to
approach the High Court rather than the
Magistrate’s Court for eviction. Following the Constitutional
Court’s decision
in
SA
Human Rights Commission
,
[41]
such an argument cannot be seriously entertained. The court has
jurisdiction and the applicant was free to elect to approach the
court for the relief it seeks. The respondent’s jurisdiction
point accordingly fails.
Termination
of the lease
[51]
Despite the allegations of fact in the founding affidavit being
common cause, the respondent
argues that the applicant did not
lawfully terminate the lease. For a terminating party to succeed it
must prove the terms of the
lease,
[42]
and it must show that it complied strictly with the peremptory
provisions of a lease in respect of termination.
[43]
The lease provides that where the tenant concludes the lease in his
capacity as a natural person, the landlord is entitled to terminate
the lease if the tenant commits a material breach and fails to
rectify it within twenty business days of receiving written notice
to
that effect.
[44]
[52]
The lease provides that a failure to pay amounts due to the applicant
constitutes a material
breach. It is common cause that the respondent
refused to pay the amount in arrears to the applicant. The applicant
alleges to
have given the respondent notice of his default by e-mail
on 3 November 2023, and it gave notice of termination by e-mail on 6
December 2023. The notices and evidence of them being forwarded to
the respondent by e-mail are attached to the founding affidavit.
On
the face of it, the requirement to give twenty business days written
notice was satisfied. However, two possible obstacles remain
for the
applicant.
[53]
The first possible obstacle is the question whether the termination
was valid under the circumstances
where the respondent was given more
than twenty business days before the termination, but the notices
refer to seven days. It is
peremptory that written notice must be
given. It is also peremptory that the lease cannot be terminated
until after the effluxion
of twenty business days. The clause is not
prescriptive as to what the content of the written notice must be,
other than it must
be ‘to such effect’. The law requires
that the notice must ‘clear and unequivocal’.
[45]
The reference to seven days did not render the notices unclear or
equivocal. The notices leave no doubt as to the fact that the
respondent had committed a material breach in failing to pay the
amount; that the breach could be remedied by paying the amount;
that
a failure to remedy the breach would lead to termination of the
lease; and, when he failed to make payment after twenty business
days, that the lease was terminated. The notices were therefor valid.
[54]
The second possible obstacle is whether the notices came to the
attention of the respondent.
According to the founding affidavit the
notices were forwarded to the respondent by e-mail. Both notices were
sent to the respondent’s
e-mail address indicated in the
delivery receipts. The clause in the lease dealing with notice is not
a model of clarity. It is
clear that written notice is required, but
it is not clear how it must be delivered. Although it refers to
delivery by hand and
delivery by prepaid registered post, the context
and the words employed there appear to be more concerned with the
date on which
notices would be deemed to be delivered in respect of
each of those ways of delivery. However, it also provides that ‘a
written
notice or communication actually received by the addressee
shall be adequate written notice, notwithstanding that such notice
was
not delivered in accordance with this clause.’ From this,
it is clear that delivery by means other than by hand or registered
post is envisaged. Interpreting it to mean that delivery must take
place by hand or prepaid registered post would be insensible,
lead to
unbusinesslike results, and will undermine its purpose.
[46]
What is material for purpose of giving written notice in terms of the
lease is that the notice comes to the attention of the tenant
and
that purpose is fulfilled if it can be shown that notice by e-mail
was ‘actually received’. Such a construction
is
consistent with the result of a unitary exercise of interpretation
required by
Endumeni
,
[47]
taking into consideration the language used, understood in the
context in which it is used, and having regard to the purpose of
the
provision.
[55]
The e-mail address that the notices were sent to is the one that is
set out in the lease, together
with the respondent’s other
personal particulars. Statements were required to be delivered to the
same e-mail address. The
electronic proof of delivery attached to the
founding affidavit both refer to the e-mail address and confirm
‘[d]elivery
to these recipients or groups is complete, but no
delivery notification was sent by the destination server’. This
is evidence
that the notices were delivered which, at the very least,
required an answer from the respondent. If the respondent had, for
some
reason, not received one or both notices despite them being sent
to him - and despite evidence of their delivery - those would be
facts within his particular knowledge. The respondent did not dispute
having received the notices, nor did he provide any version
in
respect thereof. Under circumstances the court must take a robust
view, and hold that the notices came to the respondent’s
attention.
[48]
[56]
The same allegations concerning the notice of default and termination
were made in the Magistrate’s
Court action. The same documents
were included. To this, the respondent pleaded ‘[s]ave to admit
that the [applicant] forwarded
the notice of default and termination
of the lease agreement, the [respondent] was for the longest time in
the premises of the
[applicant] committed to the rental payments. The
[respondent] vehemently expresses [his] intention to settle the
rental arrears
and remain in leased premises’. The respondent
admitted that the notices were forwarded. He did not plead that the
termination
was invalid. As is the case in this application, he did
not deny receiving the notices. It must be held that he did.
[57]
Mr Kruger argued that even if the termination on the basis of
material breach were found invalid, there
was another basis on which
the lease must be regarded as terminated. After 31 August 2023 the
lease was automatically renewed on
a month-to-month basis, subject to
either party giving thirty written days’ notice of its
intention to terminate. The argument
is that, even if it were to be
accepted in the respondent’s favour that the termination was
not valid, all that was required
was that the respondent was given
thirty days written notice of the termination. The notice to
terminate the lease must still be
clear and unequivocal,
[49]
but it does not require the two step - process provided for in the
cancelation clause. The question is how such an argument could
succeed if it is premised on the termination being invalid - for
instance, on the basis that due notice had not been given in
accordance with the cancellation clause. Paragraph 8 of the founding
affidavit reads that ‘[d]espite demand, the Respondent
has
refused to pay the arrear amount and the Applicant hereby terminates
the Lease Agreement’. The notice of motion, founding
affidavit
and annexures were served on the respondent at his
domicilium
citandi et executandi
,
the premises, on 2 May 2024. The respondent entered an appearance to
oppose the application and filed an answering affidavit.
It has to be
accepted that he received notice of the termination in this manner.
The application in its entirety is an unconditional,
clear, and
unequivocal notice of termination of the lease. The respondent could
not have been in any doubt as to the fact that
he was being told to
vacate. He had much more than the required thirty days to do so.
Despite this, he decided to hold over. In
any event, the respondent
did not dispute the contents of paragraph 8 of the founding
affidavit. Mr Kruger’s reasoning is
sound.
[58]
For all these reasons, the court finds that the lease has been
terminated and that the respondent
has no right to remain in
occupation.
Reasonable
period
[59]
The applicant moves for an order that, if it becomes necessary, the
Sheriff be authorised and
required to carry out the eviction with the
assistance of the South African Police Services. No period was
stipulated in the notice
of motion, but the applicant’s draft
order provides that the eviction must take place ‘forthwith’.
[60]
Mr Kruger argued that such an order is justified in the circumstances
where the respondent has
held over for the period that he has. The
argument has some merit. However, in the circumstances of the case,
the relative uncertainty
of the use of the word ‘forthwith’,
and where the court is requested to authorise the Sheriff to carry
out the eviction
if necessary, the court is not willing to grant such
an order.
[61]
A period of approximately two weeks will be sufficient time for the
respondent to vacate. For
the sake of certainty, setting a date will
provide clarity as to when the Sheriff may intervene, if necessary.
Conclusion
[62]
In
Wightman
[50]
it was remarked that ‘the respondents adopted ... an attitude
... of placing an obstacle in the path of the appellant at
every step
of the way irrespective of whether there were valid reasons for doing
so. Whatever the tactical value of that approach,
the effect was to
water the force of the general denial down to a state of insipidity
into which reality,
bona
fides
and
the genuineness of the denial all disappear’. Unfortunately,
the same has to be said of the respondent’s approach
to this
case.
[63]
For all the reasons set out above, every point the respondent raised,
every application he brought,
and each of his defences to the
application must fail. The applicant has made out a case for an
eviction.
Costs
[64]
The costs should follow the result. The applicant asks that the
respondent pays the attorney-and-client
costs of the application. The
lease provides that, in the event that a party must enforce any of
its rights in terms thereof, the
defaulting party shall pay the other
party’s attorney-and-client costs.
[65]
In
Public
Protector v South African Reserve Bank
,5
[51]
the majority of the Constitutional Court said with reference to
Orr
v Schoeman
[52]
that ‘[m]ore than 100 years ago, Innes CJ stated the principle
that costs on an attorney and client scale are awarded when
a court
wishes to mark its disapproval of the conduct of a litigant. Since
then, this principle has been endorsed and applied in
a long line of
cases and remains applicable.’
[66]
The lease agreement, the conduct of the respondent in the litigation,
and all the circumstances
set out in this judgment requires that the
court exercises its discretion in favour of ordering the respondent
to pay the attorney-and-client
costs of the application.
[67]
The applicant’s costs in respect of the appearance on 8
September 2025 were not caused
by the respondent. It must pay its own
costs for that day.
Order
The
following order is made:
1.
The respondent’s request that the case be struck from the roll
is refused
with attorney-and-client costs.
2.
The respondent’s application for recusal is dismissed with
costs.
3.
The respondent’s application for striking out is dismissed with
attorney-and-client
costs.
4.
The respondent’s application for postponement is dismissed.
5.
The applicant’s application for eviction is granted as follows:
5.1.
The respondent and all those occupying through or under the
respondent are hereby evicted from the
property situated at Erf
3[...] Pretoria, also known as Office 0[...], Office 0[...], Office
0[...], and Strongroom S[...], Protea
Towers, 2[...] P[...] K[...]
Street, Pretoria, 0002 (‘the property’).
5.2.
In the event of the respondent and all those occupying through or
under the respondent failing or refusing
to vacate the property by 5
November 2025, the Sheriff of the High Court and, if necessary, his
deputy is authorised and required
to carry out the eviction, with the
assistance of the South African Police Services, if necessary.
6.
The respondent is liable for the attorney-and-client costs of the
application.
7.
The applicant is liable for its own costs in respect of 8 September
2025.
E
BOTHA
ACTING
JUDGE OF THE HIGH COURT
For
the applicant: A Kruger
on instruction of Raath
Law Inc
For
the respondent: M C Maake (Attorney) (In person)
Masilo Maake Attorneys
[1]
In the papers, the premises are sometimes referred to as “
the
property
”
and
sometimes as “
the
premises
”
.
Nothing turns on this and for the sake of uniformity it is will be
referred to in this judgment as “
the
premises
”
.
[2]
It appears from the first notice of set down that the notice of
intention to opposed was filed on 4 June 2024.
[3]
As she was at the time. At the time of the hearing she was the
Acting Deputy Judge President of this court.
[4]
Not Mr. Kruger who represented Centpret at the hearing on 11
September 2025.
[5]
Izwelethu
Cemforce CC v Dr Ruth Segomotsi Mompati District Municipality
(M509/2022)
[2023]
ZANWHC 192
(4 September 2023).
[6]
National
Director of Public Prosecutions
[2018]
ZASCA 86
;
2018 (2) SACR 176
(SCA) and
National
Director of Public Prosecutions (Ex Parte Application)
[2021] ZASCA 142; 2022
(1) SACR 1 (SCA).
[7]
Ibid.
[8]
The previous time being at the commencement of the matter, when he
had no notes of where documents were on Caselines and no way
of
accessing Caselines. After fifteen minutes he had a laptop with
access to Caselines.
[9]
Arendsnes
Sweefspoor CC v Botha
2013
(5) SA 399
(SCA) at para 18..
[10]
Registrar
of Insurance v Johannesburg Insurance
Co
Ltd (1)
1962 (4) SA 546
(W) at 546H.
[11]
Nathram
v Road Accident Fund
(46876/2020)
[2024] ZAGPPHC 440 (26 April 2024) para 12-15.
[12]
Public
Protector v South African Reserve Bank
2019
(6) SA 253
(CC) para 223.
[13]
President
of the Republic of South Africa and Others v South African Rugby
Football Union and Others
[1999]
ZACC 9
(“SARFU II”).
[14]
SACCAWU
v Irvin & Johnson Ltd (Seafoods Division Fish Processing)
2000 (3) SA 705 (CC).
[15]
M.M.V v
Khan and Others
(M
183/2021)
[2021] ZANWHC 84
(3 December 2021).
[16]
Bernert
v Absa Bank Ltd
(CCT
37/10)
[2010] ZACC 28
at para 33 and 34.
[17]
Supra
at para 50.
[18]
Supra
.
[19]
Take &
Save Trading CC v Standard Bank of South Africa Limited
2004 (4) SA 1
(SCA) at
4F-G.
[20]
Take &
Save Trading supra
at
para 17 and 18.
[21]
Supra
at para 35 and 71.
[22]
Supra
.
[23]
Lekolwane
and Another v Minister of Justice and Constitutional Development
[2006] ZACC 19
;
2007 (3) BCLR 280
(CC)
para 17.
[24]
Titty’s
Bar and Bottle Store (Pty) Ltd v ABC Garage (Pty) Ltd
1974 (4) SA 362
(T) at
368G.
[25]
Helen
Suzman Foundation v President of the Republic of South Africa
2015 (2) SA 1
(CC) at
paragraph 27.
[26]
Titty’s
Bar supra
at
368H.
[27]
Airports
Company of South Africa (SOC) Ltd v Tswekgotso Trading Enterprise CC
[2022] ZAGPJHC 410 at
para 9.
[28]
Chetty
v Naidoo
1974
(3) SA 13
(A) at 20C – H.
[29]
eBotswana
(Pty) Ltd v Sentech (Pty) Ltd
2013
(6) SA 327
(GSJ) at 336G–H.
[30]
Bader v
Weston
1967
(1) SA 134
(C) at 136H–137A and
Gore
v Amalgamated Mining Holdings
1985
(1) SA 294
(C) at 295H-I.
[31]
At 336E-H.
[32]
South
African Broadcasting Corporation v National Director of Public
Prosecutions
[2006] ZACC 15
;
2007
(1) SA 523
(CC) at paras [35] and [36].
[33]
Nathram
supra
.
[34]
Registrar
of Insurance v Johannesburg Insurance Co Ltd
(1)
1962 (4) SA 546
(W) at 546H.
[35]
Venmop
275 (Pty) Ltd v Cleverlad Projects (Pty) Ltd
2016
(1) SA 78
(GJ) at 85D-F.
[36]
Ganes v
Telecom Namibia Ltd
2004
(3) SA 615
(SCA) at 624G–H and
Eskom
v Soweto City Council
1992
(2) SA 703
(W) at 705D-H.
[37]
Ibid.
[38]
Ibid
.
[39]
Hassan
and Another v Berrange
2013
(6) SA 329 (SCA).
[40]
Williams
v Shub
1976
(4) SA 567 (C).
[41]
SA
Human Rights Commission v Standard Bank of SA Ltd
2023 (3) SA 36 (CC).
[42]
Chetty
v Naidoo
1974
(3) SA 13
(A) at 20C – H.
[43]
Hano
Trading CC v JR 209 Inv (Pty) Ltd
2013
(1) SA 161
(SCA) para 31.
[44]
In the case of a tenant that is not a natural person that commits a
material breach no notice is necessary. It is not clear why
the
lease would differentiate in this manner, but it is probably
modelled after Section 14(2)(c) of the
Consumer
Protection Act
,
68 of 2008. The section would not necessarily have been applicable
to the lease on the facts of the case. Whatever the intention
behind
it may have been, the parties made this a term of the agreement
between them.
[45]
Putco
Ltd v TV & Radio Guarantee Co (Pty) Ltd & Other Related
Cases
1985
(4) SA 809 (A)
[46]
Natal
Joint Municipal Pension Fund v Endumeni Municipality
2012 (4) SA 593
(SCA)
Endumeni
supra
at
para 18.
[47]
para 18.
[48]
Wightman
t/a JW Construction (Pty) Ltd v Headfour (Pty) Ltd and another
[2008] ZASCA 6
;
2008 (3) SA 371
(SCA)
para 13.
[49]
Putco
supra
.
[50]
Supra
at para 22.
[51]
2019 (6) SA 253
(CC) para 223.
[52]
Orr v
Solomon
1907
TS 281.
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