Case Law[2024] ZAGPPHC 549South Africa
Siyandasabelo Trading (Pty) Ltd v River Meadow Manor Properties (Pty) Ltd (16639/2022) [2024] ZAGPPHC 549 (13 June 2024)
High Court of South Africa (Gauteng Division, Pretoria)
13 June 2024
Judgment
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# South Africa: North Gauteng High Court, Pretoria
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## Siyandasabelo Trading (Pty) Ltd v River Meadow Manor Properties (Pty) Ltd (16639/2022) [2024] ZAGPPHC 549 (13 June 2024)
Siyandasabelo Trading (Pty) Ltd v River Meadow Manor Properties (Pty) Ltd (16639/2022) [2024] ZAGPPHC 549 (13 June 2024)
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sino date 13 June 2024
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IN
THE HIGH COURT OF SOUTH AFRICA
GAUTENG
DIVISION, PRETORIA
CASE
NO: 16639/2022
(1)
REPORTABLE: NO
(2)
OF INTEREST TO OTHER JUDGES: NO
(3)
REVISED:
DATE:
13 June 2024
SIGNATURE
In
the matter between:
SIYANDASABELO
TRADING (PTY) LTD
First
Applicant
and
RIVER
MEADOW MANOR PROPERTIES (PTY) LTD
First
Respondent
In
re:
RIVER
MEADOW MANOR PROPERTIES (Pty) Ltd
Plaintiff
and
SIYANDASABELO
TRADING (PTY) LTD
Defendant
## JUDGMENT
JUDGMENT
COWEN
J
1.
The applicant, Siyandasabelo Trading (Pty)
Ltd (Siyandasabelo) has applied to rescind an order granted by
default before Ally AJ
on 14 September 2022. The order was
granted at the instance of the respondent, River Meadow Manor
Properties (Pty) Ltd (RRM)
pursuant to an action for payment under a
repayment agreement. The rescission is sought in terms of Rule
31. Relief is sought
in terms of Rule 31(1)(2)(b) of the Uniform
Rules of Court.
2.
Rule 31(1)(2) provides:
(2)
(a)
Whenever
in an action the claim or, if there is more than one claim, any of
the claims is not for a debt or liquidated demand
and a defendant is
in default of delivery of notice of intention to defend or of a plea,
the plaintiff may set the action down
as provided in subrule (4) for
default judgment and the court may, after hearing evidence, grant
judgment against the defendant
or make such order as it deems fit.
(b)
A
defendant may within 20 days after acquiring knowledge of such
judgment apply to court upon notice to the plaintiff to set aside
such judgment and the court may, upon good cause shown, set aside the
default judgment on such terms as it deems fit.
3.
The
requirements to establish good cause under the sub-rule are:
[1]
3.1.
A reasonable and satisfactory explanation
for default. If the default appears to be willful or due to
gross negligence the
Court should not come to an applicant’s
assistance;
3.2.
The application must be
bona
fide
and not made with intention merely
to delay;
3.3.
An applicant must show a
bona
fide
defence to the claim, which
prima
facie
carries some prospects of
success. It suffices to make out a
prima
defence
in the sense of setting out
averments which, if established at trial, would entitle him to the
relief. It is not necessary
to deal fully with the merits and
produce evidence that the probabilities are actually in its favour.
4.
It
was the respondent that set down the rescission application.
However, on the day of the hearing, and notwithstanding due
service
of the notice of set down, there was no appearance for the
applicant. Although the applicant was directed to deliver
heads
of argument,
[2]
it did not do
so. I have accordingly approached the matter having regard to
the issues the applicant raised in the founding
and replying
affidavits.
5.
The order sought to be rescinded directed
the applicant to repay the respondent an amount of R1 104 798.90
and interest
based on an alleged breach of a repayment agreement.
6.
In the founding affidavit, Siyandabela’s
director and sole shareholder, Siyanda Sabelo Dlamini, explains that
the summons
was served on both its chosen
domicilium
address and its registered address,
both by affixing. However, it did not come to his attention and
was accordingly not defended.
The matter came to his
attention only when the Sheriff served a writ of execution on 19
October 2022, at a different address
being No [...] T[...] R[...]
Estate, 5[...] J[...] S[...] Avenue, Irene, Centurion (the T[...]
R[...] address). Mr Dlamini
was not familiar with the matter
and handed it to the applicant’s attorney. This occurred
in circumstances where the
applicant and respondent are involved in a
series of inter-related litigious disputes, all of which had been
running during 2022.
Not long thereafter, the applicant
terminated the mandate of its erstwhile attorneys and appointed its
new attorneys, Richter Attorneys.
The Sheriff again attended at
the T[...] R[...] address on 17 November 2022 with an issued writ of
execution. Mr Dlamini immediately
contacted his new attorneys with an
instruction to establish what it related to. It was only on
that day that Richter Attorneys
obtained access to CaseLines and the
applicant became aware of the nature of the action and that default
judgment was granted on
14 September 2022.
7.
Mr Dlamini explains that while the
addresses upon which service was effected are the
domicilium
and registered addresses.
However, he avers that the respondent was aware that service thereon
would not be effective.
Mr Dlamini previously resided at the
domicilium
address,
but had, in 2020, moved. His actual place of residence and
business was, he says, known to the respondent.
He accepts that
it was his duty to change the
domicilium
address and says he was under the
bona
fide
impression that in circumstances
where the respondent knew where he was and was in regular contact
with him, service would be effected
at the place he resided and not
at a place where they knew he did not reside any longer. This,
he says, is apparent from
the fact that the writ of execution was
served at his known address. As for the registered address, Mr
Dlamini explains that
he owns the property, rents it and has a
gardener living there. The summons was affixed to an entrance
that is not used by
either the tenant or the gardener and is not the
main entrance. The respondent does not seriously or
unambiguously
dispute its knowledge of the residence of place of
business of the applicant and it is difficult to understand why, on
the facts
of this case, the respondent and its attorneys did not, in
the face of this knowledge, ensure effective service.
8.
The rescission application was delivered on
9 December 2022, in circumstances where the writ of execution came to
its knowledge
on 19 October 2022. If that date is used as the
applicable date, the rescission application was delivered outside the
20-day
period prescribed by Rule 31(2)(b), which would have expired
on 15 November 2022. The application would have been 18 days
out. The applicant sought condonation in the founding affidavit
as far as necessary. In my view 19 October 2022 should
be
regarded as the applicable date given the import of a writ of
execution and the information that is available from that document
itself. Viewed in this way, however, the explanation for
delay effectively relates to the termination of the former
attorney’s
mandate and a change in attorneys, and the applicant’s belief
that the matter was being attended to.
Mr Dlamini
explains that what had transpired is that the files – which
related to various matters – had been
handed over in a state of
disarray and the new attorneys did not immediately realise that the
matter required its attention.
Indeed, it appears that no
documents relating to the matter were handed to the new attorneys.
The respondent seeks
to take issue with the applicant’s good
faith in this regard, but I am unpersuaded that there are grounds to
do so on the
evidence before me. Moreover, it is clear
that once the new attorneys became apprised of the matter, and
obtained access
to the CaseLines files, they acted swiftly to remedy
the situation. In my view condonation should be granted.
Indeed,
while RRM did not expressly abandon its objection to
the delay, this issue was not pressed in argument.
9.
Moreover, in the circumstances of this
case, the explanation for default that has been proffered is
reasonable and satisfactory,
and I am satisfied that the default was
not willful or grossly negligent.
10.
The issue is then whether there is a
bona
fide
defence to the claim which
prima
facie
carries some prospects of
success.
11.
It is common cause that the applicant and
the respondent concluded a repayment agreement on 12 February 2022,
which was concluded
subsequent to a sale of business agreement
concluded between the same parties in 2019 and in terms of which the
applicant purchased
a business known as River Meadow Manor as a going
concern. A further agreement concluded as a sale of property
agreement
concluded between the applicant, as purchaser and RMM
Capital (Pty) Ltd which is related to the respondent. The
property
that was subject of that agreement is the property on which
the business is operated. The repayment agreement regulated the
payment of the balance of the purchase price of the business, which
was R12 500 000.00. The applicant is now in
litigation with the respondent in an action for damages arising from
alleged breaches and misrepresentations relating to the
transactions.
SEE
SSD6.
12.
In terms of the sale of business agreement,
the respondent was obliged to deliver to the applicant, on the
effective date, the business,
including the business assets.
The applicant alleges that the business assets include three
vehicles, being a Toyota Prius,
a BMW X3 and a BMW 118. These
were not delivered and in its action, the applicant claims their
delivery. The applicant
pleads in the rescission application
that payment for outstanding amounts under the repayment agreement do
not become due until
the vehicles have been delivered. The
applicant has already paid over R11 million for the sale of
business. In
short, the applicant thus contends that it
is entitled to withhold payment of the outstanding amount under the
repayment agreement
pending delivery of the three vehicles.
13.
I am unable to conclude on the information
before me that the applicant has established a
bona
fide
defence with
prima
facie
prospects of success. In
arriving at this conclusion I am very mindful of the test that must
be met as referred to above.
First, the applicant avers that
the vehicles formed part of the sale of business agreement, referring
to both its content and related
inventory. Neither are
attached. The respondent attaches both and there is no mention of the
vehicles in what is a highly
detailed inventory. Secondly,
the repayment agreement, which is common cause, expressly requires
repayment of the outstanding
amount (recorded as amounts due) with
interest by a fixed date being 31 March 2020. Moreover, it
includes a no variation
clause whereby any variation, alternation,
addition, consensual cancellation or waiver must be reduced in
writing and signed by
the parties. In these
circumstances, I am unable to see how a defence has been mounted with
any prospects of success.
Moreover, it appears that the real
purpose of the application is delay.
14.
In arriving at this conclusion, I am
mindful of the parallel action instituted by the applicant against
the respondent which includes
a prayer for delivery of the vehicles
pursuant to the agreement and I thus accept that in those proceedings
it may transpire that
the applicant can succeed. There is
however nothing before the Court in the rescission application that
allows a finding
in its favour.
15.
The
application must accordingly be dismissed. The respondent only
persisted with seeking party and party costs. After
the hearing
the respondent’s counsel delivered a short note dealing with
the scale of costs in terms of the newly amended
Rule 67A(3)(c).
This Court has held that the amended Rule applies to cases
pending at the time the amendments came into effect
on 12 April 2024,
but only in respect of work done after that date.
[3]
In my view, while Scale A would ordinarily be appropriate in a
matter of this sort viewed alone, Scale B is appropriate in
this case
because of the complexities that arise by virtue of the plethora of
interrelated litigation simultaneously at play.
16.
I make the following order:
17.
The application is dismissed with costs on
a party and party scale with counsel feels to be paid for work done
after 12 April 2024
on Scale B.
S
COWEN
JUDGE
OF THE HIGH COURT
GAUTENG
DIVISION, PRETORIA
Appearances
Counsel
for applicants:
Adv
C R F De Villiers
Attorney
for applicants:
Deneys
Zeederberg Attorneys Inc
Respondents:
No
appearance
Date
heard:
14
May 2024
Date
of Judgment:
13
June 2024
[1]
Federated
Timbers Ltd v Bosman NO and others 1990(3) SA 149 (W) at 155F-156
F.
The meaning to be given to good cause is informed by the common law
remedy for rescission which is dealt with in
Chetty
v Law Society, Transvaal
1985(2)
SA 756 (A) at 765B-D;
Government
of the Republic of Zimbabwe v Fick
[2013]
ZACC 22
; 2013(5) SA 325 (CC); 2013(10) BCLR 1103 (CC) at para 85
confirmed in
Zuma
v Secretary of the Judicial Commission of Inquiry into Allegations
of State Capture, Corruption and Fraud in the Public Sector
Including Organs of State and others
[2021] ZACC 28
; 2021(11) BCLR 1263 (CC).
[2]
By
order of Van der Schyff J of 5 October 2023
[3]
Mashava
v Enaex Africa (Pty) Ltd [2024] ZAGPJHC 387.
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