Case Law[2024] ZAGPPHC 577South Africa
Office of Public Protector and Another v Mkhwebane (2024/023495) [2024] ZAGPPHC 577 (21 June 2024)
High Court of South Africa (Gauteng Division, Pretoria)
15 April 2024
Headnotes
of the applicant’s case (para 5-10); A brief outline of factual developments (para 11-25); Defects in the record, non-compliance and/or malicious compliance amounting to contempt of court (par 27-340); Application to strike (para 35-37); Other prima facie unlawful conduct in the form of perjury and deliberately misleading the public (para 38-49); Urgency (para 50-51); The position of the fifth respondent (para 52-58); Punitive and personal costs (para 59-61); Supplementary issues in respect of the merits of the application (para 62-72); The attempts to rewrite the conditions of service, legislation and the constitution (para 73-77); Conclusion (para 78-80).
Judgment
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# South Africa: North Gauteng High Court, Pretoria
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## Office of Public Protector and Another v Mkhwebane (2024/023495) [2024] ZAGPPHC 577 (21 June 2024)
Office of Public Protector and Another v Mkhwebane (2024/023495) [2024] ZAGPPHC 577 (21 June 2024)
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sino date 21 June 2024
IN
THE HIGH COURT OF SOUTH AFRICA
GAUTENG
DIVISION, PRETORIA
Case Number:
2024-023495
(1)
REPORTABLE: NO
(2)
OF INTEREST TO OTHER JUDGES: NO
(3)
REVISED: NO
DATE: 21 June
2024
SIGNATURE:
In
the matter between:
THE
OFFICE OF THE PUBLIC PROTECTOR
First
Applicant
KHOLEKA
GCALEKA
Second
Applicant
and
BUSISIWE
MKHWEBANE
Respondent
In
re:
BUSISIWE
MKHWEBANE
Applicant
and
THE
OFFICE OF THE PUBLIC PROTECTOR
First
Respondent
KHOLEKA
GCALEKA
Second Respondent
THE
PRESIDENT OF THE REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
Third Respondent
THE
MINISTER OF FINANCE
Fourth Respondent
THE
SPEAKER OF THE NATIONAL ASSEMBLY
Fifth
Respondent
JUDGMENT
JANSE
VAN NIEUWENHUIZEN J
INTRODUCTION
[1]
This is an application in terms of rule 30 and 30A for the setting
aside of an irregular step. The crisp issue
to be decided pertains to
the provisions of rule 53(4) of the Uniform rules of court.
BACKGROUND
[2] The
respondent, Busisiwe Mkhwebane, launched an urgent application in
terms of which she claims,
inter alia
, that the decision of
the first applicant, being the Office of the Public Protector
(“OPP”), be reviewed and set aside.
[3] The
matter was set down for hearing in the urgent court for the week of
the 12
th
of April 2024. On 18 April 2024, Collis J removed
the matter from the urgent roll and referred the matter to the Deputy
Judge President
for the allocation of a date for the hearing of the
matter.
[4]
Collis J, furthermore, directed the OPP and second respondent,
Kholeka Gcaleka, to deliver the record and/or
reasons in terms of
53(1)(b) on or before 19 April 2024.
[5] It
appears from CaseLines that a record was filed on 19 April 2024 and a
supplementary record on 22 April
2024.
[6]
Upon receipt of the record, the respondent, in terms of the
provisions of rule 53(4), filed an amended notice
of motion dated 26
April 2024 and a supplementary affidavit dated 29 April 2024. In
terms of the amended notice of motion, the
review was set down in the
urgent court for hearing on 21 May 2024 or “
so soon
thereafter as the matter may be heard as directed by the Honourable
Deputy Judge President..”
[7]
Thereafter, the first and second applicants delivered a notice of
complaint in terms of rule 30 and 30A dated
10 May 2024. The notice
contained various grounds of complaint and afforded the respondent a
period of 10 days to remove the causes
of complaint.
[8] The
respondent filed a response to the notice and took the stance that
the causes of complaint were frivolous.
[9] The
aforesaid response led to the application in terms of rule 30 and
30A, that is presently before court.
COMPLAINTS
[10] In order to
place the complaints in perspective it is apposite to refer to the
contents of the amended notice of motion
and supplementary affidavit
filed by the respondent.
[11] The amended
notice of motion introduced a new cause of action, contempt of court,
and procedural relief unrelated to
the grounds for review, to wit:
“
2.
It is declared that Ms Nompilo Kholeka Gcaleka is guilty of the crime
of contempt of court
for failure to comply with the order made by
this Court in the present application on 18 April 2024 per Collis J;
3.
Ms Nompilo Kholeka Gcaleka is sentenced to undergo 15 Months
imprisonment, or such
lesser sentence as the court may determine
after hearing mitigating circumstances;
4.
Striking out the answering affidavit and condonation application both
delivered on
15 April 2024, in terms of rule 6(15) with punitive
costs in the event of opposition.”
[12] The
supplementary affidavit contains 80 paragraphs and is divided into
different sections. The sections relates to:
A brief summary of
the applicant’s case
(para 5-10);
A brief outline of
factual developments
(para 11-25);
Defects in the record,
non-compliance and/or malicious compliance amounting to contempt of
court
(par 27-340);
Application to strike
(para 35-37);
Other prima facie unlawful conduct in the form of perjury and
deliberately misleading the public
(para 38-49);
Urgency
(para
50-51);
The position of the fifth respondent
(para 52-58);
Punitive and personal costs
(para 59-61);
Supplementary
issues in respect of the merits of the application
(para
62-72)
;
The attempts to rewrite the conditions of service,
legislation and the constitution
(para 73-77);
Conclusion
(para 78-80).
[13] From the
aforesaid, it is evident that the bulk of allegations in the
supplementary affidavit deals with matters extraneous
to the grounds
of review or the record filed in terms of rule 53(1)(b).
[14] The applicants
raised three primary grounds of complaint, namely:
14.1
the contents of the supplementary affidavit does not comply with
provisions of rule 53(4) and is as such irregular;
14.2
the unilateral set down of the matter is in disregard of the Collis J
order; and
14.3
the introduction of the prayers relating to contempt of court and the
striking of affidavits does not fall within the
provisions of rule
53(4) and is irregular.
[15] I pause to
mention, that the second ground of complaint has largely fallen by
the wayside. The matter did not proceed
on 21 May 2024, but was set
down for hearing on 19 June 2024, in terms of a directive issued by
the Deputy Judge President.
LEGISLATIVE FRAMEWORK
[16] Rule 53 makes
provision for an application to review decisions or proceedings of
any inferior court and of any tribunal,
board or officer performing
judicial, quasi-judicial or administrative functions.
[17] Rule 53(1)(b)
directs the despatch to the registrar, within 15 days after receipt
of the notice of motion, of the record
of such proceedings sought to
be corrected or set aside, together with such reasons.
[18] Rule 53(2)
prescribes that the notice of motion should set out the decision or
proceedings sought to be reviewed, and
that the supporting affidavit
should state the grounds and the facts and circumstances upon which
an applicant relies to have the
decision or proceedings corrected or
set aside.
[19] In terms of
rule 53(3) the registrar shall make a copy of the record available to
the applicant.
[20] It is against
the aforesaid legislative background, that the provisions of rule
53(4) enter the scene. Rule 53(4) reads
as follows:
”
The
applicant may within 10 days after the registrar has made the
record
available to him or her, by delivery of a notice and accompanying
affidavit, amend, add to or vary the terms of his or her notice
of
motion and supplement the supporting affidavit.”
(own
emphasis)
[21] The notice
that may be amended, added to or varied is the notice referred to in
rule 53(2), which notice should set out
the decision or proceedings
sought to be reviewed. Similarly, the supplementary affidavit must
supplement the grounds and the facts
and circumstances upon which an
applicant relies to have the decision or proceedings corrected or set
aside.
[22]
Notwithstanding the scheme of rule 53 and its clear provisions, Mr
Mpofu SC, counsel for the respondent, maintains that
the word “
amend”
includes an amendment in terms of rule 28. The aforesaid
construction is necessary, because the respondent conceded that the
contempt
of court relief introduces a new cause of action. Rule 28
allows for the introduction of a new cause of action and therefore,
according
to the respondent, the amended notice of motion is in
accordance with the rules of court and not an irregular step.
[23] In my view,
the interpretation advanced by the respondent of rule 53(4) is
untenable. The ambit of the amendments envisaged
in terms of rule
53(4) has been discussed in various decisions and I deem it
sufficient to refer to only one such authority. In
Murray and
Others NNO v Ntombela and Others
[2024] 2 All SA 342
(SCA)
others
held as follows:
“
[35]
It bears emphasis that in every review proceedings contemplated in
rule 53, the applicant is entitled as of right
– derived from
rule 53(3) itself – to a record of the decision sought to be
reviewed. This, as the enduring long line
of cases demonstrates, is
designed to afford the applicant the opportunity to discern from a
perusal of the record whether there
are
additional review grounds
that
can be deployed to prove or disprove either party's case. And, if it
turns out that there is any benefit to be derived from
the record or
the record
reveals additional
grounds of review that can be relied upon to amplify the grounds of
review, the applicant would, as a result,
be entitled as of right, to
amend his or her notice of motion and supplement the founding
affidavit.
And, as the
Constitutional Court aptly put it,'. . . the rule enables an
applicant to raise relevant grounds of
review
,
and the court adjudicating the matter to properly perform its review
function.”
(footnote omitted)
[24] The
respondent’s contention that rule 53(4) cloths an applicant
with the right to introduce new causes of action
and material wholly
unrelated to the grounds of review, is misplaced.
[25] In the result,
I agree with Mr Ngcukaitobi SC, counsel for the applicants, that the
amended notice of motion and supplementary
affidavit does not fall
within the ambit of rule 53(4) and the filing of same is an irregular
step.
[26] The next step
in the enquiry, is whether the applicants have been prejudiced by the
irregular step. The applicants aver
that the respondent’s
failure to file a notice in terms of rule 28 has deprived them of
timeous notice of the proposed amendment,
and the opportunity to
object to the proposed amendment. The applicants are, furthermore,
deprived of an opportunity to object
to the filing of a further
affidavit. In the end result, the applicants would be prejudiced by
having to deal with additional causes
of action improperly and
unilaterally introduced mid-way through the litigation.
[27] In
Shell SA
Marketing (Edms) Bpk v JG Wasserman h/a Wasserman Transport
2009
(5) SA 212
O, the court dealt with a counter-claim that was filed
contra the provisions of rule 24(1) and held that such conduct not
only
infringes on the rights of a plaintiff but also undermined the
authority of the court and the purpose for which rule 24(1) was
enacted.
[28] I respectfully
agree. Rule 53 has been crafted to provide for the orderly and
expeditious adjudication of review applications.
The introduction of
new causes of action and the filing of affidavits containing
allegations that do not pertain to the grounds
of review defeats the
clear purpose of rule 53.
[29] Bearing the
aforesaid in mind together with the prejudice the applicants will
suffer if the amended notice of motion
and supplementary affidavit is
allowed to stand, I have no hesitation to, in the exercise of my
discretion, set the offending pleadings
aside.
COSTS
[30] The applicants
pray for costs to be awarded on an attorney and own client scale. I
agree with the applicants that any
party to litigation should desist
from including defamatory and emotive allegations in his or her
affidavit. Such allegations do
not contribute to the adjudicating of
the legal questions in dispute and diminishes the dignity afforded to
courts, litigants and
court proceedings.
[31] The
allegations in
casu
are, however, to my mind at best misguided
and do not call for a punitive cost order.
ORDER
1.
The respondent’s
amended notice of motion dated 26 April 2024 and supplementary
affidavit dated 29 April 2024 are declared
irregular and
non-compliant with the Uniform Rules of Court and are set aside.
2.
The respondent is
ordered to pay the costs of the application, including the costs of
two counsel.
3.
The respondent is
afforded a period of 10 days from date of this order to, if so
advised, file an amended notice of motion and supplementary
affidavit
that complies with the provisions of rule 53(4).
JANSE VAN
NIEUWENHUIZEN, J
JUDGE OF THE HIGHT
COURT
GAUTENG DIVISION,
PRETORIA
DATES HEARD:
19 June 2024
DATE DELIVERED
APPEARANCES
For
the Applicants:
Advocate
T Ngcukaitobi SC
Advocate
F Hobden
Advocate
N Qwabe
Instructed
by:
Werksmans
Attorneys
For
the Respondent:
Advocate
D Mpufu SC
Advocate
H Matlhape
Advocate
F Ngqele
Advocate
S Mutemwa
Instructed
by:
MB
Tshabangu Inc
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