Case Law[2023] ZAGPPHC 2048South Africa
Izwelethu Cemforce CC and Another v Broad-Based Black Economic Empowerment and Another (20697/21) [2023] ZAGPPHC 2048 (14 December 2023)
Headnotes
a 20% membership interest and Mr Diedericks a 74% membership interest
Judgment
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# South Africa: North Gauteng High Court, Pretoria
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## Izwelethu Cemforce CC and Another v Broad-Based Black Economic Empowerment and Another (20697/21) [2023] ZAGPPHC 2048 (14 December 2023)
Izwelethu Cemforce CC and Another v Broad-Based Black Economic Empowerment and Another (20697/21) [2023] ZAGPPHC 2048 (14 December 2023)
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sino date 14 December 2023
I
N THE HIGH COURT OF
SOUTH AFRICA
GAUTENG DIVISION, PRETORIA
CASE NO: 20697/21
1.
REPORTABLE: NO
2.
OF INTEREST TO OTHER JUDGES: NO
3.
REVISED: YES
DATE: 14th DECEMBER 2023
SIGNATURE OF JUDGE:
In the matter between:
IZWELETHU
CEMFORCE
CC
1
st
Applicant
CEMFORCE
CC
2
nd
Applicant
and
THE
BROAD-BASED BLACK ECONOMIC EMPOWERMENT
1
st
Respondent
(“
the
Commissioner”
)
BROAD-BASED
BLACK ECONOMIC EMPOWERMENT
2
nd
Respondent
COMMISSION
(“
the
Commission”
)
JUDGMENT
De
Wet AJ:
A
INTRODUCTION
1.
This is an interlocutory application in a
pending review.
2.
The following background, as appears from
the review application
(“
the main application”
)
and the interlocutory application, is relevant:
2.1.
The second applicant developed a low-cost pit latrine. The
first applicant was established during September 2002 to attend to
the
marketing, sale, installation and creation of business
opportunities within local communities in respect of projects.
2.2.
In 2009 the first applicant became the sole provider of the
product in order to increase their market share.
2.3.
In September 2015 after further restructuring, Ms Willis held
a 20% membership interest and Mr Diedericks a 74% membership interest
in the first applicant whilst Mr Diedericks held a 100% membership
interest in the second applicant.
2.4.
On 16 September 2017, the applicants received a letter from
the Commission advising that the Commission had received “
a
tip-off
” that both applicants were purportedly
misrepresenting their B-BBEE credentials “
and the two
entities are interchangeably used as if they are the same entity in
bidding for work, and thereby confusing and misleading
as to the
appropriate B-BBEE credentials of each of the entity
”.
2.5.
Notwithstanding correspondence, the applicants were unable to
obtain a copy of the complaint, and on 23 November 2017 the
Commission
notified the applicants that it has finalised its
assessment and concluded that there is merits to warrant an
investigation in
terms of section 13F(1)(d) and 13J(1) of the B-BBEE
Act, read with regulation 15 of the B-BBEE regulations.
2.6.
On 12 March 2021, the Commission issued a notice in which they
confirmed that it has finalised its investigations in terms of
section
13J of the Act, read with regulation 15 and reached the
finding that the applicants under the control and management of Mr
Diedericks
and Mrs Willis engaged in the arrangement or of conduct
which directly or indirectly undermines and frustrates the
achievements
of the objectives of the B-BBEE Act, and concluded that
the arrangement involving the applicants and Mr Diedericks amounts to
a
fronting practice as the first applicant’s BEE status was
used to secure tenders, work and contracts for the benefit of the
second applicant, a 100% white-owned entity.
2.7.
On 23 April 2021, the applicants launched a review application
to review and set aside the adverse findings of the Commission.
2.8.
On 15 June 2021, a record was filed of the Commission’s
investigation, but it did not contain the identity of the person who
purportedly lodged the “
tip-off
” complaint and/or
copies of the supporting documentation, whereafter the applicants
served a rule 35(13) notice that the
respondents should produce “…
copies of the ‘The tip-off’ and supporting
documents
”.
2.9.
The respondents objected and/or refused to disclose the
documentation on the grounds that the documents “
are
privileged and/or made for the purposes of the investigation, in casu
and/or contemplated
”;
alternatively the documents so
requested are documents and/or statements of witnesses taken for the
purpose of completing the investigative
report; and further
alternatively the documents so requested are a mixed privilege
protecting the rights of both the state and
a whistle-blower.”
2.10.
The applicants seek an order that the
respondents be directed to provide access to the
“
tip-off
and supporting documents
” referred to by the B-BBEE
Commissioner at paragraph 7.1.1 on page 10 of the “
investigation
report”
approved by her on
11 March
2021, as requested by the applicants pursuant to their notice in
terms of Rule 35(13) dated 19 July 2021.
3.
The application raises the question of whether the
documentation sought should form part of the rule 53 record. I may
mention in
passing that the applicant’s relief is based on the
respondents’ failure to file a complete record in terms of rule
53 and that the rules relating to discovery do not find application.
B
THE STATUTORY MATRIX
(i)
The Act:
4.
In order to evaluate the parties’ contentions, it is apt
to at the outset give a brief overview of the Broad-Based Black
Economic
Empowerment Act, 33 of 2003 (“
the Act
”)
and the regulations promulgated thereunder.
5.
The objectives of the Act are described in section 2 thereof:
“
2
Objectives of Act
The
objectives of this Act are to facilitate broad-based black economic
empowerment by –
(a)
promoting economic transformation in order to enable meaningful
participation of black people
in the economy;
(b)
achieving a substantial change in the racial composition of ownership
and management structures
and in the skilled occupations of existing
and new enterprises;
(c)
increasing the extent to which communities, workers, cooperatives and
other collective enterprises
own and manage existing and new
enterprises and increasing their access to economic activities,
infrastructure and skills training;
(d)
increasing the extent to which black women own and manage existing
and new enterprises, and increasing
their access to economic
activities, infrastructure and skills training;
(e)
promoting investment programmes that lead to broad-based and
meaningful participation in the economy
by black people in order to
achieve sustainable development and general prosperity;
(f)
empowering rural and local communities by enabling access to economic
activities, land,
infrastructure, ownership and skills;
(g)
promoting access to finance for black start-ups, small, medium and
micro enterprises, co-operatives
and black entrepreneurs, including
those in the informal business sector; and
(h)
increasing effective economic participation and black owned and
managed enterprises, including
small, medium and micro enterprises
and co-operatives and enhancing their access to financial and
non-financial support.
”
6.
Section 3 provides that the Act should be interpreted in light
of its objectives and purposes and to comply with the Constitution.
7.
Section 4 of the Act establishes a Black-Economic Empowerment
Advisory Council which must advise the government on black-economic
empowerment; review progress in achieving black-economic empowerment;
advise on draft codes of good practice; strategy; advise
on draft
transformation charters and facilitate partnership between organs of
state and the private sector that will advance the
objective of the
Act (s 5 and s 6 – 8).
8.
Section 9 of the Act provides that the minister may by notice
in the Gazette, issue codes of good practice on black economic
empowerment
that may,
inter alia
, include the interpretation
and definition of broad-based black economic empowerment and of
different categories of black-empowerment
entities; qualification
criteria for preferential purposes for procurement; indicators to
measure broad-based black economic empowerment,
the weighing to be
attached to the BBBEE indicators, and the guidelines for stakeholders
in the relevant sectors to draw up transformation
charters and codes
of good practice for their sectors [s 9(1)]. A code of good practice
may specify targets and a period in which
targets must be achieved [s
9(3)]. The Act furthermore provides for a strategy for
broad-based black economic empowerment
(s 11); and for
transformation charters (s 12).
9.
Section 13B establishes the Broad-Based Black Economic
Empowerment Commission (“
the Commission”
) (the
second respondent), an entity within the administration of the
Department of Trade and Industry. The Commission is headed
by a
Commissioner (the first respondent), appointed by the Minister.
The Commission must be impartial and perform its functions
without
fear, favour or prejudice and must exercise the functions assigned to
it in the most cost-effective and efficient manner
and in accordance
with the values and principles in section 195 of the Constitution.
It is clear from a reading of section
13F that the Commission is in
fact the watchdog of the Act. The Commission,
inter
alia
, oversees, supervises and promotes adherence to the Act;
strengthens and fosters corroboration between the private and the
public
sector to promote and safeguard the objectives of broad-based
black economic empowerment. Section 13F(1)(c) and (d) and 13F(2)
provide that the functions of the Commission are,
inter
alia
:
“
(c)
to
receive complaints relating to broad-based black economic empowerment
in accordance with the provisions of this Act;
(d)
to investigate, either of its own
initiative or in response to complaints received, any matter
concerning broad-based black economic empowerment;
…
(2)
A
complaint contemplated in
subsection (1)(c) and (d) must be
–
(a)
in the prescribed form; and
(b)
substantiated
by evidence
justifying an investigation by the Commission.
”
(own
emphasis)
10.
Section 13J deals with the investigation by
the Commission and reads:
“
13J.
Investigations by Commission
(1)
Subject to the provisions of this Act, the Commission has the power,
on its own initiative
or on receipt of a complaint in the prescribed
form, to investigate any matter arising from the application of the
Act, including
any B-BBEE initiative or category of B-BBEE
initiatives.
(2)
The format and the procedure to be followed in conducting any
investigation must be determined
by the Commission with due regard to
the circumstances of each case, and may include the holding of a
formal hearing.
(3)
Without limiting the powers of the
Commission, the Commission may make a finding as to whether
any
B-BBEE initiative involves a fronting practice.
(4)
The Commission may institute
proceedings in a court to restrain any breach of this Act, including
any fronting practice, or to obtain appropriate remedial relief.
(5)
If the Commission is of the view that
any matter it has investigated may involve the commission
of a
criminal offence in terms of this Act or any other law, it must refer
the matter to the National Prosecuting Authority or
an appropriate
division of the South African Police Service.
(6)
The Commission may, if it has
investigated a matter and justifiable reasons exist, refer to –
(a)
the South African Revenue Services any
concerns regarding behaviour or conduct that may be prohibited
or
regulated in terms of legislation within the jurisdiction of that
Service; or
(b)
any regulatory authority any concerns
regarding behaviour or conduct that may be prohibited or
regulated in
terms of legislation within the jurisdiction of that regulatory
authority.
(7)
(a) The Commission may publish any
finding or recommendation
it has made in respect of any investigation
which it had conducted in such manner as it may deem fit.
(b)
A decision of the Commission to
publish any finding or recommendation it has made may not be
put into
effect –
(i)
before proceedings for the
judicial review of the decision have been completed or were
not
instituted within the period allowed therefor;
(ii)
if the Commission has referred
the matter to the National Prosecuting Authority or the
South African
Police Service in terms of subsection (5), and no prosecution has
been instituted against the person concerned;
(iii)
if the person concerned has been
prosecuted and acquitted following the investigation of the
Commission; or
(iv)
where the person concerned has been convicted by a court of law,
following an investigation
of the Commission, before such person has
in respect of the conviction exhausted all recognised legal
proceedings pertaining to
appeal or review.”
11.
Section 13L deals with confidential information and reads:
“
13L.
Confidential information
(1)
When submitting information to the
Commission, a person may claim that all or part of that information
is confidential.
(2)
Any claim contemplated in subsection
(1) must be supported by a written statement explaining
why the
information is confidential.
(3)
The Commission must –
(a)
consider a claim made in
terms of subsection (1); and
(b)
as soon as practicable
make a decision on the confidentiality of the information
and access
to that information and provide written reasons for that decision.
(4)
A person who has made a claim contemplated in subsection (1) in
respect of which the Commission
has made a decision in terms of
subsection (3), may apply to court for a review of that decision
within –
(a)
60 court days of becoming aware of the
decision; or
(b)
such longer period as a court may
allow on good cause shown.
(5)
When making any finding in respect of
an investigation, the Commission may take confidential
information
into account.
(6)
If any finding would reveal any
confidential information, the Commission must provide a copy
of the
proposed finding to the party claiming confidentiality at least 30
court days before publishing those reasons.
(7)
Within 14 court days after receiving a copy of the proposed findings,
in terms of subsection
(6), a party may apply to court for an
appropriate order to protect the confidentiality of the relevant
information.”
12.
Section 14 provides that the minister may
inter
alia
make regulations with regard to the lodging of
complaints with the Commission [s 14(a)], and the conducting of
investigations by
the Commission [s 14 (c)].
(ii)
The regulations
13.
The following definitions in section 2(4) of the regulations
are important:
“
(k)
“
complaint
”
means either –
(i)
a matter initiated by the Commissioner in terms of section 13J(1) of
the Act; or
(ii)
a matter that has been submitted to the Commission in terms of
section 13F(1)(c)
of the Act;
(l)
“
Complainant
” means either –
(i)
a person who filed a complaint with the Commission in terms of
section 13F(1)(c)
of the Act; or
(ii)
the Commission in respect of a matter that it has initiated in terms
section 13J(1) of
the Act; or
(m)
“
confidential information
” means information that
belongs to a person and is not generally available to or known by
others;”
14.
Restricted or confidential information is
inter
alia
described in Regulation 13(1)(a) – (c):
“
13.
Restricted or
Confidential information
(1)
For the purpose of this Part 3 of these Regulations, and in terms of
section 13L of the
Act, the following five classes of information are
restricted:
(a)
Information –
(i)
that has been determined to be confidential information in terms of
section 13L(1) of the
Act, or
(ii)
that, in terms of section 13L(7) of the Act, must be treated as
confidential information.
(b)
identity of a complainant, in the following circumstances:
(i)
a person who provides information may request that the Commission
treat their identity as
restricted information, but that person may
be a complainant in the relevant matter only if they subsequently
waive the request
in writing;
(ii)
if a person has requested in terms of sub-regulation 1(b)(i) that the
Commission treat their
identity as restricted information –
(aa)
the Commission must accept that request; and
(bb)
that information is restricted unless the person subsequently waives
the request in writing.
(c)
information that has been received by the Commission in a particular
matter, other than that
referred to in paragraphs (a) and (b), as
follows:
(i)
the description of conduct attached to a complaint, and any other
information received by the
Commission during its investigation of
the complaint, is restricted information until the Commission issues
its findings and recommendations
if any, in respect of that
complaint, but information provided in a completed FORM B-BBEE6 is
not restricted information; and
(ii)
Any information received by the Commission
during its consideration of a major broad-based black economic
empowerment transaction registered with the Commission prior to the
transaction being made public by any of the parties to the
transaction, is restricted information only to the extent that it is
restricted in terms of paragraph (a).”
15.
Regulation 14 provides for access of information and reads:
“
14.
Access
to information
(1)
Any person, upon payment of the prescribed fee, may inspect or copy
any Commission
record –
(a)
if it is not restricted information; or
(b)
if it is restricted information, to the extent permitted, and subject
to any conditions
imposed, by
(i)
this Regulation; or
(ii)
an order of a competent court of law.
(2)
In a particular complaint the Commission may release otherwise
restricted information,
other than confidential information, relating
to a possible agreement of terms of an appropriate order.
(3)
In addition to the provisions of sub-regulation (1) and (2), the
Commission
may release restricted information to, or permit access to
it by only the following persons:
(a)
the person who provided that information to the Commission;
(b)
the person to whom the confidential information belongs; and
(c)
any other person, with the written consent of the person to whom the
information
belongs.”
16.
In order to evaluate the applicants’ claims, it is apt
to consider the relevant case law in respect of the documents that
should be incorporated in the rule 53 record and privileged
documents.
C
LEGAL PRINCIPLES: THE RULE 53 RECORD OF DECISION
17.
In
Helen
Suzman Foundation v Judicial Service Commission
2018 (4) SA 1
(CC), the Constitutional Court dealt with the
furnishing of a record in terms of Rule 53(1)(b) of the Uniform Rule
of Court.
The question was whether the deliberations of the
Judicial Services Commission (“
JSC”
)
should be disclosed in the record or whether such deliberations are
confidential.
18.
In paragraphs 13 – 17 the majority of
the Court dealt with the general purpose of reviews in terms of rule
53 and the role
and function of the rule 53 record. It reads:
“
The
content of a rule 53 record
[13]
The
purpose of rule 53 is to “facilitate and regulate applications
for review”. The requirement in rule 53(1)(b)
that the
decision-maker file the record of decision is primarily intended to
operate in favour of an applicant in review proceedings.
It
helps ensure that review proceedings are not launched in the dark.
The record enables the applicant and the court fully
and properly to
assess the lawfulness of the decision making process. It
allows an applicant to interrogate the decision
and, if necessary, to
amend its notice of motion and supplement its grounds for review.
[14]
Our
courts have recognised that rule 53 plays a vital role in enabling a
court to perform its constitutionally entrenched review
function:
“
Without
the record a court cannot perform its constitutionally entrenched
review function, with the result that a litigant’s
right in
terms of section 34 of the Constitution to have a justiciable dispute
decided in a fair public hearing before a court
with all the issues
being ventilated, would be infringed.”
[15]
The
filing of the full record furthers an applicant’s right of
access to court by ensuring both that the court has the relevant
information before it and that there is equality of arms between the
person challenging a decision and the decision-maker.
Equality
of arms requires that parties to the review proceedings must each
have a reasonable opportunity of presenting their case
under
conditions that do not place them at a substantial
disadvantage vis-à-vis their opponents. This
requires
that ‘all the parties have identical copies of the
relevant documents on which to draft their affidavits and that they
and
the court have identical papers before them when the matter comes
to Court’.
[16]
In Turnbull-Jackson this
Court held:
‘
Undeniably,
a rule 53 record is an invaluable tool in the review process. It
may help: shed light on what happened and why;
give the lie to
unfounded ex post facto (after the fact) justification of the
decision under review; in the substantiation
of as yet not fully
substantiated grounds of review; in giving support to the
decision-maker’s stance; and in the
performance of the
reviewing court’s function.’
[17]
What
forms part of the rule 53 record? The current position in our
law is that – with the exception of privileged
information – the record contains all information
relevant to the impugned decision or proceedings
.
Information is relevant if it throws light on the decision-making
process and the factors that were likely at play in the
mind of the
decision-maker. Zeffertt and Paizes make a comment on the
exclusion of evidence on the grounds of privilege.
That comment
must surely be of relevance even to the exclusion of privileged
information from a rule 53 record. After all,
the content of a
rule 53 record is but evidentiary in nature.
The
authors say that in the case of privileged information, the exclusion
is based on the recognition that the general policy that
justice is
best served when all relevant evidence is ventilated may, in some
cases, be outweighed by a particular policy that requires
the
suppression of that evidence. The fact that documents contain
information of a confidential nature “does not per
se in our
law confer on them any privilege against disclosure
”.”
(own emphasis)
19.
The following principles can furthermore be
gleaned from the judgment:
19.1.
Insofar as the record constitutes a loose
description of documents, evidence and arguments and other
information, the record consists
of “
every
scrap of paper throwing light, however indirectly, on what the
proceedings were, both procedurally and evidentially
”.
(par 18)
19.2.
Deliberations are relevant to the decision,
they precede and are the most immediate and direct record of the
process leading up
to the decision (par 23);
19.3.
The documentation does not have to be
relevant to the grounds of review as pleaded. The applicant can
supplement the papers
upon being furnished with the record and “
may
add to or subtract from the grounds of review
”:
“
So under Rule 35 discovery
process, asking information not relevant to the pleaded case would be
a fishing expedition. Rule
53 reviews are different. The
rule envisages grounds of review changing later. So relevance is
assessed as it relates to
the decision sought to be reviewed not the
case pleaded in the founding affidavit.”
(par 26)
19.4.
Correspondence as class of information may
be relevant in the above broad sense and the question can then arise
whether ‘
there is some legally
recognisable basis for excluding them from the record”.
The
reason for the exclusion must however be considered:
it
does not then follow that, because there is privilege in respect of
this type of correspondence, for example, attorney-client
communications, that all correspondence is exempt from inclusion in a
Rule 53 record
. In each instance,
any claim to exemption must be founded on some legally recognisable
basis “
So
,
within the class
‘
correspondence some
correspondence would be included in the rule 53 record, and some
excluded’”.
(par 30).
19.5.
The Promotion of Access to Information Act,
Act 2 of 200 (“
PAIA”
)
and Rule 53 serve a different purpose as described in paragraphs 44
and 46:
“
[44]
…
Rule 53 helps a review applicant in the exercise of her or his right
of access to court under section 34 of the Constitution.
On the
other hand, in one instance PAIA affords any person the right of
access to any information held by the state. The
person seeking
the information need not give any explanation whatsoever as to why
she or he requires the information. The
person could be the
classic busybody who wants access to information held by the state
for the sake of it. …
[46]
The difference in the nature of, and purpose served by, the right of
access to information in terms of PAIA,
on the one hand, and the
right to a record under rule 53, on the other, “
underscore
the reality that it is inapt simply to transpose PAJA proscriptions
on access to information to the rule 53 scenario.
There is a
principled basis for drawing a distinction
”.
20.
Section 38(1) of the JSC Act provides that
no person may disclose confidential information or confidential
documents obtained by
that person in the performance of his/her
functions in terms of the Act, except,
inter
alia
, when required to do so by order
of a court of law. In this regard, the court held that:
20.1.
Only confidential information or documents
are hit by the prohibition.
20.2.
Confidentiality relates to the nature of
the information: “
Information
cannot be confidential because the person who would like it to be
regarded as such says it is.”
(par 63).
20.3.
In the absence of demonstrating that the
information is of confidential nature, the prohibition is not
triggered, s 38 cannot be
interpreted as a blanket non-disclosure
provision (par 63).
20.4.
Where a claim to blanket non-disclosure is
asserted, the court must balance the claim against the principle that
the JSC is engaged
in a particularly important exercise of public
power which must be done lawfully and rationally:
“
Generally,
the only way to test the legality of the exercise of this power,
completely and thoroughly is to afford an applicant
for review,
access to all material relevant to the exercise of power
.
If a public functionary can withhold information relevant to the
decision, there is always a risk that possible illegalities
remain
uncovered and are thus insulated from scrutiny and review. That
is at variance with the rule of law and our paramount
values of
accountability, responsiveness and openness. This affects not only
the individual litigant, but also the public interest
in the exercise
of public power in accordance with the Constitution.
It
must, therefore, be in truly deserving and exceptional cases that
absolute non-disclosure should be sanctioned
.”
(par 67)
20.5.
“
Where absolute non-disclosure is
not justified, the information at issue may - in the court's exercise
of discretion – be
disclosed, not disclosed or disclosed
subject to a confidentiality regime.
The
court will weigh up the interests that favour disclosure against the
asserted confidentiality interests. The outcome of
that
exercise of discretion will depend on the circumstances of each
case.
” (par 70). The
question arose whether a confidentiality regime should be considered
under circumstances of a no fact-specific
basis for non-disclosure.
(par 71)
20.6.
The court held that stringent conditions
can be imposed to ensure that confidential information may only be
divulged to a category
of persons who should rightly have it. A
similar strict confidentiality regime as imposed in
Bridon
International GMBH v International Trade Administration Commission
and Others
2013 (3) SA 197
(SCA) can be
considered under the correct circumstances:
“
The
Bridon example does not only deny access to the public, it also
denies it to the parties themselves. The few individuals who
do have
access to sign a confidentiality undertaking not to divulge the
information even to their clients. To the extent that the
third
judgment says that the information could be divulged even in parties’
submissions, it is a matter of relative ease
for the regime to
address that as well. …”
(para 74).
20.7.
The court however held that since
“…
no fact-specific claim of confidentiality was raised, I do not
think it is necessary to pronounce on a possible confidentiality
regime.
” (para 76)
20.8.
The argument that an applicant will not
suffer harm if it already has a substantial record and will thus not
be forced to launch
its review in the dark is incorrect. “
The
unfairness suffered by a review applicant denied access to the
deliberations lies in the fact that she or he may have been prevented
from making the best possible case. The fact that a number of
other relevant documents or reasons distilled from the deliberations
have been provided, does not detract from the unfairness of
withholding other relevant information. The information that
has been withheld may provide evidence of reviewable irregularities
that are not revealed by the other documentation.
That
is why the rule requires that all relevant documentation must be
provided unless there is some recognisable basis for withholding
it.
”
(para 77) (own emphasis)
21.
In
Competition
Commission of South Africa v Standard Bank of South Africa Limited
2020 (4) BCLR, 429
(CC) (20 February
2020), the Constitutional Court held that: “
If
a review application is launched in a forum that enjoys jurisdiction,
then a party is entitled to the record even if their grounds
of
review are meritless. … The record is essential to a
party’s ability to make out a case for review. It is
for this
reason that a prima facie case on the merits need not be made out
prior to the filing of record.”
See also:
The
Public Protector v South African Reserve Bank
2019 (6) SA 253
(CC) at para 185.
22.
In
President
of the Republic of South Africa and others v M&G Media Limited
2011 (2) SA 1
(SCA), the publisher of a weekly newspaper required
disclosure of a report of two judges after a visit to Zimbabwe,
shortly before
the 2002 elections. After having complied with
the prescribed formalities in PAJA, the President declined
disclosure.
Justice Saphire granted an order compelling the
disclosure of the report. On
appeal, the
SCA held:
22.1.
That our constitutional dispensation is
based on a legal culture of accountability and transparency, we moved
away from “…
from a culture
of authority … to a culture of justification … ‘a
culture in which every exercise of power is
expected to be
justified’”
(para 9 and
10).
22.2.
Consistent with the culture of
justification, the Act requires disclosure on request unless an
information officer can on adequate
reasons justify a refusal (par
11).
22.3.
The public body bears the burden of proving
that secrecy is justified (par 14).
22.4.
“
If an application for information
is not to be thwarted by that inequality of arms, I think that a
court must scrutinise the affidavits
put up by the public body with
particular care and, in the exercise of its wide discretion that I
referred to earlier, it should
not hesitate to allow
cross-examination of witnesses who have deposed to affidavits if
their veracity is called into doubt.
”
(par
15).
22.5.
Affidavits that assert conclusions without
an evidential basis in support thereof, do not meet muster: “
The
Act requires a court to be satisfied that secrecy is justified that
calls for a proper evidential basis to justify the secrecy”
.
(par 19)
22.6.
A court is not bound to accept the
ipse
dixit
of a witness that his or her
evidence is admissible:
“…
Merely
to allege that the information is within the ‘personal
knowledge’ of a deponent is of little value without some
indication, at least from the context, of how that knowledge was
acquired, so as to establish that the information is admissible,
and
if it is hearsay, to enable its right to be evaluated.
”
(par 38).
I am of the view that the
above principles apply in this matter.
D
AN EVALUATION OF THE PARTIES’ CONTENTIONS
23.
The respondents seemingly contend that the
“
tip-off
”
information and the identity of the person who furnished the
information constitute confidential information and as such,
need not
be incorporated in the record.
24.
It is difficult to determine exactly what
the respondents’ case is. In the discussion below, I analyse
the evidence presented.
THE FOUNDING AFFIDAVIT
25.
The applicants allege that they are
entitled to a full record, especially in view of the fact that it is
common cause that the respondents’
adverse findings emanate
inter alia
from the requested documentation which forms an integral part of the
subject matter of the review. Furthermore, that the purported
existence of privilege in the context of the present review
application, is without substance.
26.
The applicants have, as a point of
departure, the right to “
every
shred of information
” pertaining
to the present findings, which includes the “
tip-off
”
information and the identity of the complainant /person who furnished
the information, unless there exists justification
not to disclose
the information.
THE ANSWERING
AFFIDAVIT
The Constitution
protects whistleblowers:
27.
The respondents rely on the equality and
the freedom of expression provision as embodied in s 9(1)] and s
16(1)(b) of the Constitution,
and conclude:
“
19.
The whistleblower which the applicant now wishes to expose and open
to unimaginable harm by bringing this
application, I am advised is
protected under section 9(1) and 16(1)(b) mentioned above.
20.
The whistleblower has the right to equal protection and benefit of
the law.
21.
It is upon these basis, that this court should take a dim view of
this application and dismiss it with
costs inclusive the costs of two
counsel.”
28.
The respondents’ reliance on sections
9(1) and 16(1)(b) of the Constitution is misplaced. The principle of
subsidiarity entails
that once legislation exists to fulfil
constitutional rights, a litigant must rely on the legislation and
cannot rely on the Constitution
for the enforcement of the right.
In
My Vote Counts
NPC v Speaker of the National Assembly
and others
2016 (1) SA 132
(CC), the
principle was defined in the following terms:
“
53.
Once
legislation to fulfil a constitutional right exists, the
Constitution’s embodiment of that right is no longer the prime
mechanism for its enforcement. The legislation is primary.
The right in the Constitution plays only a subsidiary or
supporting role. Ultimately the effect of the principle is that
it operates to ensure that disputes are determined using the
specific, often more comprehensive, legislation enacted to give
effect to a constitutional right, preventing them from being
determined
by invoking the Constitution and relying on the right
directly, to the exclusion of that legislation.”
See also:
The
South African Human Right Commission obo the South African Jewish
Board of Deputies v Masuku and others
2022 (4) SA 1
(CC) at para
102 – 107.
29.
The respondents contend that the
complainant is a whistleblower and that he is thus entitled to
protection. The respondents however
do not rely on the so-called
“
whistleblowers’ Act”,
the Protected Disclosure Act (26 of 2000) nor on a specific form of
common law privilege, for example, informer privilege. In this
regard, the answering affidavit constitutes both the respondents’
evidence and their plea or basis of their defence (Refer
to
Transnet
Limited v Rubenstein
2006 (1) SA 591
(SCA) at para 28 and to
Kham v Electoral
Commission
2016 (20 SA 338
at para
64). The respondents rely exclusively on the Act and
regulations to justify non-disclosure. A court can only decide
the
issues raised and cannot venture into fields not canvassed by the
parties. (
Fischer and another v
Ramahlele and others
2014 (40 SA 614
(SCA) at para 13 – 14).
Section 13L of the Act
and regulation 13
30.
The respondents imply that the person’s
confidentiality claim was evaluated in terms of section 13L of the
Act. After having
quoted section 13L, the deponent continues in
paragraphs 23 to 25:
“
23.
I am advised
that, Regulation 13 of the BBBEEA, provides that information which
has been determined confidential, in terms of Section
13(L) Is
classified as restricted information. It also provides that the
identity of the person or persons who provide the classified
information, and have requested that their identity be requested be
restricted, must be restricted.
24.
In
a
proper
interpretation
of
Section
13(L) & (5),
it
identifies
what
can
constitute
confidential information
and
provides that it includes information that can identify the
complainant in the matter. Therefore, I am advised that the
Respondent
cannot submit the required documents mentioned in
paragraph 13.6 of the founding affidavit, as it may identify the
identity of
the person who made the tip-off.
25.
Whereas the complaint documents are restricted, the Second Respondent
provided the Applicants with sufficient
particularity to comprehend
the essence and nature of the tipoff to respond to the allegations
made against them to which they
were afforded the opportunity to
respond, in terms of the letter that was sent to the Applicants,
requiring the Applicants to make
representations regarding the
findings of the Respondents, they were required to respond within 30
(Thirty) days of the receipt
of the letter and in writing.”
31.
The Registrar in vague terms describes the
import of section 13L and regulation 13. One would have
expected the Registrar
to adduce factual evidence to prove that the
provisions of section 13L were triggered and how the confidentiality
claim was processed
and evaluated. There not only exists no factual
basis to conclude that the complainant’s/person’s
confidentiality claim
was evaluated in accordance with s 13L of the
Act. The deponent at best hints or implies that the provisions
of s 13L had
been complied with.
32.
The deponent is the Commissioner and heads
the Broad Based Black Economic Empowerment Commission in terms of
section 13B(2) of the
Act. The Commissioner has no firsthand
knowledge of the facts. The averment that the facts are within her
personal knowledge
is substantiated by alleging that she is “
in
control of all documents which relate to the matter
”.
Her lack of knowledge of the adjudication or evaluation of the
confidentiality claim appears from the following “
evidence
”:
“
Therefore, I am advise(d) that
the respondents cannot submit the required documents mentioned in
paragraph 13.6 of the founding
affidavit, as it may identify the
person who made the tip-off.”
This
opinion is obviously not her opinion but that of an unknown advisor
and/or employee. The Commissioner thus relies on
the unsubstantiated
opinion of an unknown third party to motivate non-disclosure of the
documentation.
33.
It is common cause that the respondents
refused to disclose the tip-off information requested. There is
therefore no basis
to aver in paragraph 25 above, that the applicants
were provided with sufficient particularity to comprehend the essence
and nature
of the tip-off. One is in the dark what the nature and
content of the “
sufficient
particularity
” is. The question
is why the documentation should not be disclosed and why the
applicants should accept the respondents’
say-so concerning the
content of the documents. Section 13B(2) provides that a complaint
must be substantiated by evidence. In
the absence of facts to show
that this is a truly deserving and exceptional case and that blanket
non-disclosure is justified,
the applicants are entitled to peruse
and make copies of the documentation. (
Helen
Suzman
judgment, para 67)
34.
The respondents should at least have
addressed the following in the answering affidavit, namely that:
34.1.
On a specific date a person furnished
information with a description of the information;
34.2.
The person claimed that all of the
information or a part of the information furnished and if applicable,
that his identity was confidential,
and that he gave reasons, why
disclosure of the aforesaid information should not be made;
34.3.
Who on behalf of the Commission evaluated
and/or considered the person's confidentiality claim;
34.4.
When and how the confidentiality claim was
evaluated with reference to the considerations that played a role in
the decision reached
and the reasons for the decision;
34.5.
Whether the decision was conveyed to the
person in writing or orally;
34.6.
Insofar as it may be applicable, whether
the person reviewed the initial decision in terms of section 13L(4);
34.7.
Whether the Commission’s findings
were conveyed to the person claiming confidentiality and if not, why
the findings were not
conveyed to the person; and [s 13L(6)
and s 13L(7)]; and
34.8.
Whether the person presently still insists
that the information and his identity remain confidential/restricted
and the reasons
therefore.
35.
In paragraphs 30.1.1 to 30.1.6, section 13L
is
inter alia
,
further elaborated upon:
“
30.1.1
The
information the applicants wish to have access to, is restricted
information which Is confidential in terms of section
13(L)
of the BBBEEA;
30.1.2
The respondents, in terms of the BBBEEA, are enjoined to protect
whistleblowers;
30.1.3
There
are no exceptional circumstances in existence, that require the
respondents to make discovery of confidential, privileged,
and
Information
that was used in its Investigation, which may identify witnesses
and/or whistleblowers;
30.1.4
I am
advised that the burden of proof is on the applicant, to demonstrate
exceptional
circumstances why
these documents should be discovered;
30.1.5
The
applicants, are merely engaging in the finding expedition and
therefore this court, should not grant the relief requested by
the
applicants.
30.1.6
The
documents are not necessary and are in no way relevant to the
applicants’ answer to the findings against them which are
contained in the 12 March 2021 notice.”
36.
In paragraph 30.1.1 the deponent implies
that the unknown person’s information was evaluated and found
to be confidential
in terms of section 13L of the Act, and in
paragraph 30.1.2 the deponent again fails to provide any factual
substantiation
for the conclusion that the information was restricted
in terms of section 13L of the BBEEA.
37.
The allegation that the applicants are
engaging in a fishing expedition is neither here nor there. The
applicants are entitled to
“
fish
”
for every scrap of information or documentation that played a role in
the decision-making process or in this case the decision
that
initiated the enquiries and/or investigation. (see the
Suzman
judgment at paras 14 – 17 above)
38.
The allegation that there is a burden of
proof on the applicants “…
to
demonstrate exceptional circumstances why these documents should be
discovered
” is incorrect.
The position is exactly the opposite. It is for the respondents to
justify non-disclosure on this basis.
(refer to the
Helen
Suzman
case at paragraph 64 and the
M
& G Media
case at par 9 – 11
and 14.)
39.
The applicants must as a point of
departure, be in a position to make out the best possible case.
Information/documentation not
disclosed may prevent an applicant from
raising revie
wable
irregularities and thus the contention in paragraph 30.1.6 similarly
do not hold water.
The anonymous
complainant:
40.
The respondents lastly contend in paragraph
33.1.2:
“
33.1.2
The form that is used to file complaints is Form B-BBEE7 which is
different from Form B-BBEE10 that is
used to notify respondents of
the investigation in terms of which the Second Respondent is the
complainant in terms of Regulation
15(8) of the BBBEEA. Thus Form
B-BBEE10 can be issued pursuant to an anonymous complaint in terms of
which the person cannot be
a complainant in the matter, and/or
pursuant to daily monitoring of activities through various channels,
including the media, which
justify intervention based on suspected
violation of the BBBEEA where there is no specific complaint.
In this case, the tip-off
was received from a person who specifically
requested to remain anonymous, assess and investigated…”
41.
The respondents’ contentions in
respect of Form B-BBEE7 and how it differs from Form B-BBEE10 is
difficult to follow.
The respondents apparently rely on
regulation 15(8) which provides: “
(18)
Where the Commission initiates an investigation on its own, the
Commission shall initiate an investigation by issuing a notice
to
investigate in the prescribed Form B-BBEE10 and follow the process in
sub-regulation 4(d) – (f) above.”
42.
The
respondents contend that in “
this
case, the tip-off was received from a person who specifically
requested to remain anonymous, assessed and investigated
.”
[1]
It is seemingly contended
that due to the fact that the investigation was initiated
anonymously, the Commission is in fact the
complainant. Insofar as it
is the contention, it does not hold water. There is a distinction
between a complainant who requests
to remain anonymous and an
anonymous complaint. In the latter case, the Commission
initiates its own investigation but in
the erstwhile case the
investigation is initiated on the strength of the complaint by an
identified individual who has requested
to remain anonymous. It
is impossible to divulge the identity of an anonymous person who
provided the information but in
the latter instance and it is highly
artificial to claim that the Commission initiated an investigation
and not the complainant
(and that the applicants are therefore aware
of the identity of the complainant).
Regulation 13(1)(b)
43.
The only provision that can potentially
assist the respondents is regulation 13(1)(b) which provides
that the identity of a
complainant must be treated as restricted
information if the person/complainant so requests. It is however the
respondents’
case that regulation 13(1)(b) must be read in
conjunction with section 13L: only a person who claims that his
identity is
confidential and has furnished acceptable written
motivation to the Commission, is entitled to claim that his identity
should be
restricted. However, the respondents failed to present any
evidence that the procedures and evaluation provided for in section
13L of the Act, were indeed followed and/or implemented. That
notwithstanding the fact that the respondents bear the onus to
justify
non-disclosure.
THE REPLYING AFFIDAVIT
44.
In the replying affidavit, the applicants:
44.1.
Correctly notes that the respondents
apparently no longer rely on the privilege but on the provisions of
section 13L of the Act
“
on the
basis that the information is confidential and as such classified as
restricted information;
”, and
that the respondents failed to submit any evidence to demonstrate
compliance with the provisions of section 13L of
the Act; and
44.2.
The respondents previously in response to
the applicants’ PAIA application indicated that the “
tip-off
”
information falls within the ambit of regulation 13(1)(c) of the
regulations and that the information thus remains restricted
until
such time as the Commission issued its findings and due to the fact
that it is common cause that the Commission has issued
findings that
the information is thus no longer restricted.
45.
It is difficult to adjudicate the
regulation 13(1)(c) contention as it is raised in the replying
affidavit. It is however common
cause that the respondents initially
in these proceedings contended that the documents were made for
purposes of investigation
and/or that the statements or documentation
were taken for purposes of completing the investigative report.
It would mean
that once the investigation is completed the applicants
would be entitled to the said documents. This version has been
abandoned,
being inconsistent with the present section 13L argument.
An interpretation of
regulation 13(1)(b)
46.
On a normal reading of regulation 13(1)(b)
a complainant is on request of right entitled to have his identity
treated as restricted
information. Regulation 13(1)(b) does not refer
to or incorporate the provisions of section 13L of the Act. It
is a self-standing
provision and the validity of the regulation is
not under attack.
47.
During argument I raised the principles in
respect of informer privilege with the parties in light of the
respondents’ initial
notice which relies on a “
mixed
privilege protecting both state and the whistleblower
”.
The said privilege is according to the respondents’ answering
affidavit founded on s 13L of the Act and/or
regulation 13(1)(b).
The question remains whether regulation 13(1)(b) does not constitute
a restatement of the common law
principles relating to informer
privilege or if not, whether the complainant’s identity should
be disclosed if the disclosure
test applicable to informers
theoretically applies.
Informer
privilege:
48.
In
Khala v
Minister of Safety and Security
1994
(4) SA 218
WLD, informer privilege was described in the following
terms:
“
To
all intents and purposes, the only privilege the law recognised in
respect of a police docket was ‘informer privilege’.
The
rule was that the identity of informers should not be disclosed as a
matter of public policy. The object of the rule was to
remove
possible deterrents to the detection and punishment of crime. The
theory was that an informer be protected because otherwise
persons
would be discouraged from giving information. The rule was not a
rigid one, however: it could be relaxed, for example,
(i) when
it was material to the ends of justice, (ii) when it was necessary or
right to do so to show the accused’s innocence,
and (iii) when
the reason for secrecy no longer existed, for example, when the
informer was known: R v van Schalkwyk
1938 AD 573
; Ex parte Minister
of Justice: In re R v Pillay and Others
1945 AD 653
; Suliman v Hansa
1971 (2) SA 437
(D); Suliman v Hansa
1971 (4) SA 69
(D).
49.
In
ex parte
Minister of Justice: R v Pillay
1945
AD 653
at 658, the court found that the privilege was based on public
policy and operate:
“…
when
public policy requires the name of the informer or his information to
be kept secret, because some confidential relationship
between the
state and the informer, or because the state desires its sources of
information to be kept secret for the reason that
the informer’s
information relates to matters in respect of which he might not
inform if he were not protected, or for the
reason that the candour
and completeness of his communications might be prejudiced if he were
not protected, or for some other
good reason. To give a comprehensive
definition which will include all such cases would be impossible.
”
50.
In
Swanepoel v
Minister van Veiligheid and Sekuriteit
1999 (2) SACR 284
(T) it was held that an informer has a substantive
right not to have his identity disclosed, particularly when the
informer had
specifically requested anonymity. The court found that
subject to considerations of public policy, the informer may even
enforce
his right of non-disclosure against the State and that the
unlawful and malicious and intentional disclosure of the identity of
an informer to suspects, discloses a cause of action.
51.
In
Shabalala
and Others v Attorney-General of Transvaal and Another
1996
(1) SA 275
, the Constitutional Court ruled that: “
A
blanket docket privilege is inconsistent with the Constit
ution.”
In
this regard, paragraphs 40, 50, 51 and 52 of the judgment are
instructive:
“
[40]
The
approach to the constitutionality of the rule
in Steyn's case, insofar as it pertains to
witnesses
’
statements,
involves an analysis of what that rule seeks to protect. It seems to
me that the following is included in the protection
–
(1)
the
statements of witnesses which need no protection on the grounds that
they deal with State secrets, methods of police investigation,
the
identity of informers, and communications between a legal advisor and
his client;
(2)
the
statements of witnesses in circumstances where there is no reasonable
risk that such disclosure might lead to the intimidation
of such
witnesses or otherwise impede the proper ends of justice;
(3)
the
statements of witnesses made in circumstances where there is a
reasonable risk that their disclosure might constitute a breach
of
the interests sought to be protected in paragraph 1; and
(4)
the
statements of witnesses made in circumstances where their disclosure
would constitute a reasonable risk of the nature referred
to in
paragraph 2.
[50]
If
the conflicting considerations are weighed, there appears to be an
overwhelming balance in favour of an accused person
’
s
right to disclosure in those circumstances where there is no
reasonable risk that such disclosure might lead to the disclosure
of
the identity of informers or State secrets or to intimidation or
obstruction of the proper ends of justice. The ‘blanket
docket privilege’ which effectively protects even such
statements from disclosure therefore appears to be unreasonable,
unjustifiable in an open and democratic society and is certainly not
necessary.
[51]
What
about statements falling within items 3 and 4 of paragraph 40? The
claim of the accused to the statements referred to in these
categories, however justifiable on its own for the purposes of a fair
trial, must be weighed against conflicting interests of real
substance.
The
result of affording access to such statements to the accused in these
circumstances may indeed impede the proper ends of justice
and lead
to the intimidation of witnesses. An open and democratic society
based on freedom and equality is perfectly entitled to
protect itself
against such consequences. These dangers clearly exist during
the trials of members of crime syndicates who
sometimes use organised
tactics of terror to prevent witnesses coming forward to give
evidence
.
[52]
In
such circumstances it might be proper to protect the disclosure of
witnesses
’
statements
and the State might succeed in establishing that such a restriction
is reasonable, justifiable in an open and democratic
society based on
freedom and equality and that it is necessary and does not negate the
essential content of a right to a fair trial.
Even
in such cases, however, it does not follow that the disclosure of the
statements concerned must always be withheld if there
is a risk that
the accused would not enjoy a fair trial
.
The fair trial requirement is fundamental. The court in each case
would have to exercise a proper discretion balancing the accused
’
s
need for a fair trial against the legitimate interests of the State
in enhancing and protecting the ends of justice.”
(own
emphasis)
52.
The court found that sufficient evidence
has to be placed before a court to determine the issues:
“
(d)
Inherently
there might be some element of uncertainty as to whether the
disclosure of the relevant documents might or might not
lead to the
identification of informers or to the intimidation of witnesses or
the impediment of the proper ends of justice. The
judgment of the
prosecuting and investigating authorities in regard to the assessment
of such risks might be a very potent factor
in the adjudication
process. Police officers with long experience and acquired skills and
with access to sources which can sometimes
not be disclosed,
quantified and identified, have an advantage which the Court does not
always have.
What
the prosecution must therefore be obliged to do (by a proper
disclosure of as much of the evidence and material as it is able)
is
to establish that it has reasonable grounds for its belief that the
disclosure of the information sought carries with it a reasonable
risk that it might lead to the identity of informers or the
intimidation of witnesses or the impediment of the proper ends of
justice. It is an objective test
.
It is not sufficient to demonstrate that the belief is held bona
fide. It must be shown that a reasonable person in
the position
of the prosecution would be entitled to hold such a belief.
(own
emphasis)
(e)
If the State is unable to justify its
opposition to the disclosure of the relevant information
on these
grounds, its claim that a refusal of access to the relevant documents
is justified, should fail.”
(p750G
– B) (own emphasis)
53.
In
Els v
Minister of Safety and Security
1998
(2) SACR 93
(NC), the applicant sought disclosure of an informer’s
identity for purposes of instituting a civil action. Justice
Kriek found that the approach followed in the Shabalala judgment “…
is relevant, not only to docket
privilege, but also to informer privilege.
”
(98C)
54.
The court found that the informer gave the
police “…
information
prejudicial to others whose eminently he may have provoked, and that
information was of a kind which may have or has
resulted in criminal
prosecutions
” and that he was
therefore an informer.
55.
The evidence was furthermore that the
information was given “
on trust
that his (the informer) identity would be confidential”
and
not disclosed; the disclosure of confidentiality would terminate the
relation between the police and the informer; the informer
would not
have divulged the information if he was aware that his identity would
be disclosed and that he could be a party or be
involved in civil
litigation; the specific informer has given information that led to
the successful prosecution; the police rely
heavily on information
supplied by the informers and informers play a leading role in the
opening of new cases and new arrests
and as appears from statistics
and informers have played a prominent role in the investigation of
and prosecution of a crime syndicate
reported on in the media, and
that the police endeavours to ensure that the informers are reliable
and generally trustworthy.
56.
The court concluded:
“
I
accept that there will be cases in which it will be in the public
interest or render interests of justice to order the disclosure
of
the identity of an informer, but I consider that such orders should
not be made lightly. The informer system is one of the cornerstones
of the battle against organised crime, and when the identity of one
informer is made known, other informers, or would-be informers,
will
not engage upon an exercise in legal niceties in order to distinguish
their position from that of the informer whose identity
has been
revealed; they will desist from ‘informing’ or reconsider
their position as informers, not only to avoid retaliatory
action,
but also to avoid civil actions being instituted against them”
(101a – c), and
further found there is no
evidence that the informer was ‘mendacious’ and malicious
and “…
the opportunity which the applicant will have
of exercising in protecting his rights, and of being awarded damages
(which he may
or may not be able to recover) if the identity of the
informer is disclosed, cannot in my view be of greater public
importance
than the protection, insofar as it legally permissible, of
the privileged attaching to informers, and this, in my view, is a
case
in which it ought to be protected.”
(101g – h)
E
EVALUATION
57.
The tip-off is not made to the police or
officers of justice but to officials in the employ of the
respondents.
58.
A complainant who divulges information on
the assurance embodied in regulation 13(1)(b) that his identity will
not be disclosed
unless he weights his right to have his identity
classified as restricted, is aware that his identity may be disclosed
if the court
so orders and that the Commission may release restricted
information other than confidential information, relating to a
possible
agreement in terms of an appropriate court order. The
complainant is thus aware that although his information is classified
as
restricted, it may nevertheless be divulged in certain
circumstances.
59.
I am of the view that in the light of the
aforesaid regulation 13(1)(b) is not a restatement of common law.
Informer privilege relates
to information given to the police or the
prosecuting authority and the privilege can normally not be waived if
the information
relates to a crime of a public nature.
60.
The applicant has a right to a full and
proper record to,
inter alia
,
ensure an equality of arms to enable the court and the applicant to
assess the lawfulness and fairness of the administrative process
followed and the other factors referred to above. A complete
record ensures a fair trial/adjudication of the review application
in
the context of section 34 of the Constitution.
61.
Lastly insofar as the respondents’
case may be that the complainant's identity and the contents of the
statements/documents
are protected in terms of section 13L of the
Act, a party’s mere say-so that information is confidential
does not make the
information confidential. In the absence of a
factual basis and/or admissible evidence to support non-disclosure,
this contention
cannot be upheld. The result would have been the same
if the principles concerning informer privilege applied in this
matter.
62.
I have considered whether the
non-disclosure of the identity of the complainant can thwart the
applicants’ right to a fair
trial in the context of the pending
review application. The problem is that one simply does not
know, it may or may not turn
out to be relevant. On the other
hand, there is no evidence that any prejudice will befall the
respondents or the complainant
if disclosure is ordered. I am thus
also of the view that a confidentiality regime is not called for. In
the light hereof, I grant
the order below. Insofar as the order also
discloses the identity of the complainant, such disclosure is hereby
authorised.
63.
In the light of the aforegoing the
following order is made:
63.1.
The respondents are hereby ordered to
provide the applicants access to the
“
tip-off
”
and supporting documents, referred to by the first respondent in
paragraph 7.1.1 on page 10 of the “
investigation report
approved by her on 11 March 2021
”
and
as requested by the applicants pursuant to their notice in terms of
rule 35(13) dated 19 July 2021.
63.2.
The first and second respondents are
ordered to pay the applicants’ costs, the one paying the other
to be absolved.
HJ DE WET
Acting Judge of the High
Court
Gauteng Division,
Pretoria
Attorney
for the applicant
:
Honey
Attorneys
c/o
VZLR Inc.
1
st
Floor, Monument Office Park, Block 3
cnr
71 Steenbok Avenue and Elephant Road
Monument
Park
Pretoria
Tel:
012 – 435 9444
Ref:
TS/JPM/MAT162598
Attorney
for the respondents:
State
Attorney
Pretoria
SALU
Building
316
Thabo Sehume Street (Andries) and
Francis
Baard Streets
Pretoria
Tel
012 – 309 1578
Ref:
1481/2021/Z22
Date
of hearing:
25
January 2023
Date
of judgment:
14
December 2023
[1]
The
words “…
assessed
and investigated
”
do not fit in with the rest of the sentence, and it is uncertain
what the deponent intends to convey.
sino noindex
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