Case Law[2022] ZAGPPHC 233South Africa
Sello v Minister of Police N.O and Another (89077/16) [2022] ZAGPPHC 233 (13 April 2022)
High Court of South Africa (Gauteng Division, Pretoria)
13 April 2022
Headnotes
that; “In terms of the [Prescription] Act, a debt must be immediately enforceable before a claim in respect of it can arise. In the normal course of events, a debt is due when it is claimable by the creditor, and as the corollary thereof, is payable by the debtor. Thus, in [Deloitte Haskins] at 532G-H, the court held that for prescription to commence running, ‘there has to be a debt immediately claimable by the creditor or, stated in another way, there has to be a debt in respect of which the debtor is under an obligation to perform immediately’.
Judgment
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## Sello v Minister of Police N.O and Another (89077/16) [2022] ZAGPPHC 233 (13 April 2022)
Sello v Minister of Police N.O and Another (89077/16) [2022] ZAGPPHC 233 (13 April 2022)
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sino date 13 April 2022
# IN THE HIGH COURT OF
SOUTH AFRICA
IN THE HIGH COURT OF
SOUTH AFRICA
# GAUTENG PROVINCIAL
DIVISION
GAUTENG PROVINCIAL
DIVISION
CASE
NO: 89077/16
REPORTABLE:
YES
OF
INTEREST TO OTHER JUDGES: YES
REVISED.
13
April 2022
In
the matter between:
SELLO
THABANG
Applicant
and
THE
MINISTER OF POLICE
N.O
First Respondent
THE
MINISTER OF JUSTICE
N.O
Second Respondent
# JUDGMENT
JUDGMENT
Sardiwalla
J:
[1]
The applicant seeks condonation for
the late filing in terms of
section 3 (4) (a) of the Institution of Legal Proceedings Against
Certain Organs of State Act, Act
40 of 2002, (hereinafter referred to
as the “Act”) for its failure to comply with sections
3(1) and 3 (2) (a) of the
Act.
Background
[2]
The applicant was arrested on 16 October
2006 for the alleged armed
robbery with aggravating circumstances.
[3]
On 16 October 2009 the applicant and
his co-accused were convicted
and sentenced to 12 years’ imprisonment. After serving about 12
months of his sentence the
applicant applied for leave to appeal
against his conviction and sentence which was however, refused.
During 2011 the applicant
applied for a reduction of his sentence as
well as parole, both of which were unsuccessful.
[4]
Subsequently in 2011 the applicant
applied special leave to appeal
under case number SCA 14/2011 against his conviction and sentence
which was successful. On 29 August
2013 under case number A109/2013
the South Gauteng Division of the High Court acquitted the applicant
and he was released on 2
September 2013.
[5]
The applicant brought an action for
damages against the first and
second respondents on the 10 February 2016.
[6]
The respondents in their plea in the
main action has resisted the
applicant’s claims for remuneration on the ground,
inter
alia
, that it had not received the notice within six months as
stipulated in section 3 of the Act and that on that basis there is no
good cause. It further claimed that the applicant’s claim had
prescribed.
[7]
The parties agreed to a separation
of issues in terms of Rule 33(4)
of the Uniform Rules of Court and the matter was enrolled. The
Honourable Acting Judge seized
with the adjudication was unwilling to
adjudicate the special plea of prescription until the condonation
application for the late
service in terms of section 3(4) of
institution of legal proceedings was determined.
[8]
It is important at this stage to re-iterate
that this is a
condonation application, however by request of the parties and which
was agreed to between the parties the special
pleas were to be argued
and decided upon as these would still remain preliminary points in
the main trial. Whilst there is no rule
that the special pleas must
be decided in the main trial, I must point out that the respondents
have the opportunity to set the
matter down for hearing 10 (ten) days
prior to the main trial for same to be argued. Albeit this Court is
of the view that it would
be more convenient to decide the special
pleas where sufficient evidence has been led.
## First special plea:
Non-compliance with the Act
First special plea:
Non-compliance with the Act
[9]
Section 3 of the Act deals with the
giving of Notice of Intended
Legal Proceedings against an Organ of State and as follows:
“
Notice of intended
legal proceedings to be given to organ of state:
(1)
No legal proceedings for the recovery of a debt may be instituted
against
an organ of state unless-
(a)
the creditor has given the organ of state in question notice
in writing of his or her or its intention to institute the legal
proceedings
in question; or ..
(2)
A notice must-
(a)
within six months from the date on which the debt became due,
be served on the organ of state in accordance with section 4 (1); and
(b)
briefly set out 5
I.
the facts giving rise to the debt; and
II.
such particulars of such debt as are within the knowledge of
the creditor.”
Section 3(4) provides:
(4) (a) If an organ of
state relies on a creditor's failure to serve a notice in terms of
subsection (2) (a), the creditor may apply
to a court having
jurisdiction for condonation of such failure.
(b) The court may grant
an application referred to in paragraph (a) if it is satisfied that-
(i)
the debt has not been extinguished by prescription;
(ii)
good cause exists for the failure by the creditor; and
(iii)
he organ of state was not unreasonably prejudiced by the failure.”
[10]
It is clear from the wording of the section that these requirements
must be shown to exist cumulatively and in conjunction with each
other. It is also trite law that the applicant bears the overall
onus
of proving their existence on a preponderance of probability. See
Pillay v Krishna
1946 AD 946
at 952 – 953;
[11]
Where notice has been given then, the question arises whether
the
applicant satisfied this court of the existence of all three
requirements contained in section 3(4)(b) of Act 40 of 2002.
## Second special plea:
Prescription
Second special plea:
Prescription
[12]
Section 12
of the
Prescription Act 68 of 1969
states that;
“
12 When
prescription begins to run
(1)
Subject to the provisions of subsections (2) and (3), prescription
shall commence to run
as soon as the debt is due.
(2) ….
(3)
A debt shall not be deemed to be due until the creditor has
knowledge of the identity of the debtor and of the facts from which
the debt arises:
Provided that a creditor shall be deemed to have
such knowledge if he could have acquired it by exercising reasonable
care.”
[13]
The
term
“due”
is
not
defined
in
the
Prescription
Act. Its
meaning
was
recently
considered by the SCA in
Miracle
Mile
[1]
where it was held that;
“
In terms of the
[Prescription] Act, a debt must be immediately enforceable before a
claim in respect of it can arise. In the normal
course of events, a
debt is due when it is claimable by the creditor, and as the
corollary thereof, is payable by the debtor. Thus,
in [Deloitte
Haskins] at 532G-H, the court held that for prescription to commence
running,
‘
there has to be a
debt immediately claimable by the creditor or, stated in another way,
there has to be a debt in respect of which
the debtor is under an
obligation to perform immediately’.
(See also The Master v I
L Back & Co Ltd
1983 (1) SA 986
(A) at 1004F-H). In
Truter
v
Deysel
[2006] ZASCA 16
;
2006
(4)
SA
168
(SCA)
([2006]
ZASCA
16)
para
16, Van
Heerden JA said that a debt is due when the creditor acquires a
complete cause of action for the recovery of the debt, i.e.
when the
entire set of facts which a creditor must prove in order to succeed
with his or her claim against the debtor is in place”.
[2]
[14]
A
fundamental principle of prescription, which is much clearer under
the current
Prescription Act, is
that it will begin to run only when
the creditor is in a position to enforce his right in law, not
necessarily when that right
arises.
[3]
[15]
In applying
the principle held in
Miracle
Mile
that
a debt is due when it is immediately claimable by the creditor and
immediately payable by the debtor, the debt became claimable
by the
plaintiff on the date of his release from incarceration on 15 October
2015. However, the complete cause of action was only
established
after consultation with his attorneys on 6 June 2017.
This
principle was also confirmed in
Truter
[4]
where the SCA held that, for the purpose of prescription, a debt is
due when the creditor acquires a complete cause of action to
approach
a court to recover the debt. Although the right to reclaim the
amounts arose the day after his release from incarceration,
in
absence of any knowledge of the identity of the respondents, the
applicant’s rights in law only became enforceable on
6 June
2017.
[16]
Considering the above, prescription would not have commenced
as
alleged by the respondents, the day after he was convicted and
sentenced in October 2009 or during 2011 when he applied for
leave to
appeal, but would commence from the instance the applicant became
aware that the debt was due and enforceable. This occurred
when he
consulted with his attorneys on 10 April 2015 therefore prescription
began to run from 10 April 2015 and will only be extinguished
on 11
April 2018. As a result of the above applicable principles the letter
of demand that was served on the respondents in July
2015 was served
within the six-month period as stipulated in section 3 (2)(a) of the
Act.
Good
cause
[17]
In
considering
the second
requirement
the
locus
classicus
is
Madinda
v
Minister
of
Safety and Security
[5]
.
In this
regard Heher JA remarked as follows at para [10]:
“
[10] The second
requirement is a variant of one well known in cases of procedural
non-compliance. … ‘Good cause’
looks at all those
factors which bear on the fairness of granting the relief as between
the parties and as affecting the proper
administration of justice. In
any given factual complex it may be that only some of many such
possible factors become relevant.
These may include prospects of
success in the proposed action, the reasons for the delay, the
sufficiency of the explanation offered,
the bona fides of the
applicant, and any contribution of other persons or parties to the
delay and the applicant’s responsibility
therefore.”
In para [12] at 317 C the
learned judge continued as follows:
“
[12] …
‘Good cause for the delay’ is not simply a mechanical
matter of cause and effect. The court must decide
whether the
applicant has produced acceptable reasons for nullifying, in whole,
or at least substantially, any culpability on his
or her part which
attaches to the delay in serving the notice timeously. Strong merits
may mitigate fault; no merits may render
mitigation pointless.
There
are two main elements at play in s
4(b)
(sic – it
should read s 3(4)(b))
, viz the subject’s right to have the
merits of his case
tried by a court of law and the right of an
organ of state not to be unduly prejudiced by
delay
beyond
the statutorily prescribed limit for the giving of notice.”
(emphasis added)
[18]
I must also consider the delay in bringing the application
for
condonation as it might be relevant in adjudicating whether the
applicant is entitled to the relief. Heher JA dealt with this
issue
in
Madinda supra
in a matter where the plaintiff
brought the application for condonation nine months after the letter
of demand was rejected by the
Minister of Safety and Security. The
following passages are quoted to emphasise the viewpoint of the
Supreme Court of Appeal:
“
[14] One other
factor in connection with ‘good cause’ in s 3(4)(b)(ii)
is this: it is linked to the failure to act timeously.
Therefore,
subsequent delay by the applicant, for example in bringing his
application for condonation, will ordinarily not fall
within its
terms.
Whether a proper explanation is furnished for delays that
did not contribute to
the failure is part of the exercise of
the discretion to condone in terms of s 3(4), but it is
not,
in this statutory context, an element of ‘good cause’
.
…
[20] It is also true
that, although her attorney received the rejection of the notice in
the middle of October 2005, the appellant
did not commence
proceedings for condonation until July 2006. As I have earlier
pointed out,
unexplained
delay which
relates
to the period after the notice was de facto given will ordinarily
relate not to the
establishment of good cause but to
condonation
. ...
…
[28] … But when he
received that reply it must have been clear that all hope of
concession was past. It was the delay thereafter
until July 2006
which he should have explained but did not.
Applications
for
condonation
should
in
general
be
brought
as
soon after the default as possible.
Thereby possible
further prejudice to the other party
and misconception as to
the intentions and bona fides of the applicant can be lessened.
A
delay in making the application should be fully explained. The
failure to do so may
adversely affect condonation
or it
may merely be a reason to censure the applicant or his or her legal
advisers without lessening the force of the application.
I think that
the latter is the correct attitude to take in the present matter in
relation to the evaluation of whether condonation
should be granted.
Under the present statutory dispensation there is no time limitation
on the institution of action and the appellant
had until September
2007 (when her claim would have prescribed) to issue summons.
The
matter was clearly
very
much
alive
during
the
first
half
of
2006
and
the
State
had
no
reason
to
think
otherwise.
Nor
has
the
respondent
suggested
that
it
was
prejudiced
or
misled
by
the
additional delay.”
(emphasis added)
[19]
In
Minister
of Agricultural and Land Affairs v C J Rance (Pty) Ltd
[6]
the general principles pertaining to the issues
in
casu
were
merely restated.
In that
matter almost two and a half years lapsed before the plaintiff served
a notice of its intention to institute proceedings
on the Minister.
The delay
was not explained.
The court
referred at para [13]
to
the
so-called
conventional
explanation
for
demanding
prior
notification
of
intention to sue organs of state to the effect that,
“
with its extensive
activities and large staff which tends to shift, it needs the
opportunity to investigate claims laid against
it, to consider them
responsibly and to decide before getting embroiled in litigation at
public expense, whether it ought to accept,
reject or endeavour to
settle them.”
[20]
In
C J Rance supra
the organ of state clearly
demonstrated that it would be prejudiced if the late notice of demand
was condoned insofar as it did
not have any opportunity to do an
investigation of its own pertaining to the fire that had allegedly
broken out on State property
and damaged the plaintiff’s
assets. Also, it was the court’s view that no factual
foundation was laid for the court
to establish whether there was some
prospect of success in the action to be instituted.
[21]
In
MEC
for Education, KZN v Shange
[7]
the
court found that good cause had been shown.
The learner
could not be blamed for any delay or failure.
He was
still a minor when his cause of action arose and the court found that
he was reliant on others to prosecute his claim and
that they had
failed him.
The
attorney’s mistake to direct the notice of demand to the
Minister of Education instead of the MEC for Education, KZN was
excused by the court
a
quo
and
although the Supreme Court of Appeal referred to case law dealing
with attorneys’ mistakes that could be attributed to
their
clients, it found that no blame for any delay or failure could be
attributed to the respondent.
See also
Dauth
and others v Minister of Safety and Security and others
[8]
[22]
Bona fides
play an important role in considering good cause.
It is evident in this matter that the applicant after his release in
September
2013 sought legal advice albeit not immediately. However,
it cannot be reasonably expected that a man that had spent nearly
seven
years in imprisonment to have the financial means to seek legal
advice or institute action immediately. It is significant to note
that the letter of demand was served immediately after he consulted
with his attorneys in April 2015. Therefore, due to the stipulated
period in section 3 (2) (a) of the Act having not prescribed at that
stage, the matter was clearly very much alive at all relevant
times
and the respondents had no reason to think otherwise.
[23]
In the answering affidavit the application for condonation
is
apparently opposed on the basis of absence of “good cause”
and non-compliance. However, no factual basis was alleged
that the
respondents suffered any unreasonable prejudice as a result of any
delay. Such averment could surely not be made with
any conviction. In
find no reason why the respondents will be disadvantaged at the trial
of the main action, whether or not it
received late notice and/or
even if the condonation application was brought at the eleventh hour.
[24]
In
condonation applications a court considers the merits together with
the grounds advanced for the failure.
As stated
in
Madinda
supra
,
and quoted above, strong merits may mitigate fault whilst no merits
may render mitigation pointless.
It is also
accepted that the interests of justice play an important role in
condonation applications and that it is expected of
an applicant to
set out fully the explanation of his delay during the entire period
of the delay and such explanation must be reasonable.
Also, a
condonation application
must
be
brought
as
soon
as
the
party
concerned
realises
that
it
is
required.
Bearing all
this in mind, Heher JA in
Madinda
highlighted
the two important elements to be considered in adjudicating
applications in terms of s 3(4)(b), namely the subject’s
right
to have his case tried by a court of law and the right of the organ
of state not to be unduly prejudiced.
In casu
no
facts are alleged as mentioned
supra
and it
is not even vaguely suggested that prejudice has been or will be
suffered by the respondents due to applicants’ alleged
non-compliance.
In this
regard I wish to refer to the following
dictum
by
Heher JA in
Wightman
t/a JW Construction v Headfour (Pty) Ltd and Another
[9]
,
quoting from para [13]:
“
[13]
A real,
genuine and bona fide dispute of fact can exist only where the court
is
satisfied that the party who purports to raise the dispute
has in his affidavit seriously
and
unambiguously
addressed
the
fact
said
to
be
disputed.
There will of
course be instances where a bare denial meets the requirement because
there is no other way open to the disputing
party and nothing more
can therefore be expected of him. But even that
may not
be
sufficient
if
the fact
averred
lies
purely within
the knowledge
of the
averring party and no basis is laid for disputing the
veracity
or accuracy of the averment.
When
the
facts
averred
are
such
that
the
disputing
party
must
necessarily
possess
knowledge of them and be able to provide an
answer (or countervailing evidence) if
they
be
not
true
or
accurate
but,
instead
of
doing
so,
rests
his
case
on
a
bare
or
ambiguous
denial
the
court
will
generally
have
difficulty
in
finding
that
the
test
is
satisfied.
I say ‘generally’ because factual averments seldom stand
apart from a broader matrix of circumstances all of which
needs to be
borne in mind when arriving at a decision.
A litigant may not
necessarily recognise or understand the nuances of a bare
or
general denial
as against a real attempt to grapple with all
relevant factual allegations made by the other party.
But when he
signs the answering affidavit, he commits himself
to its
contents, inadequate as they may be, and will only in exceptional
circumstances
be permitted to disavow them. There is thus a
serious duty imposed upon a legal adviser
who settles an
answering affidavit to ascertain and engage with facts which his
client
disputes and to reflect such disputes fully and
accurately in the answering affidavit.
If that does not happen it
should come as no surprise that the court takes a robust view of the
matter.” (emphasis added.)
[25]
There is no
onus
on an applicant for condonation to prove
his/her case on a balance of probabilities. The court must merely be
satisfied that the
three requirements contained in section 3(4)(b)
have been met. Although applicant and/or his attorneys might be
blamed for the
delay in bringing the application for condonation,
there is no obvious prejudice to the respondents and as I have found
above that
the notice was served within the prescribed time period as
prescription only began to run from 10 April 2015 when the applicant
became aware that his claim was enforceable. As a result, the
application for condonation was not even required. The overall
impression
created by the undisputed facts is such that I am
satisfied that applicant is entitled to have his case tried by a
court of law.
[26]
In the result the special pleas of both non- compliance and
prescription must be dismissed. The applicant, as I have found,
submitted the letter within the prescribed six- month period as
set
out in section 3(2)(a) of the Act and therefore an application for
condonation in terms of section 3(4)(b) was in fact unnecessary.
[27]
As a result, I make the following order: -
(1)
The applicants’ alleged failure to serve the notice
contemplated
in section 3(1)(a) of the Institution of Legal
Proceedings Against Certain Organs of State , Act 40 of 2002, within
the period
laid down in s 3(2)(a) of the Act is hereby condoned.
(2)
The first special plea of non-compliance is dismissed;
(3)
The second special plea of prescription is dismissed;
(4)
The respondents are ordered to pay applicants’ costs of the
application
on an opposed basis.
# SARDIWALLA
CM
SARDIWALLA
CM
JUDGE
OF THE HIG COURT
Appearances
:
Date
of hearing
1 February
2021
Date
of Judgment
13 April 2022
For
the Applicant:
Advocate RJ De Beer
Instructed
by:
Authur Moore Inc.
For
the Respondents:
Advocate S M Malatji
Instructed
by:
The State Attorney Pretoria
[1]
Standard
Bank of South Africa Ltd v Miracle Mile Investments 67 (Pty) Ltd
2017 (1) SA 187
SCA
[2]
Standard
Bank of South Africa Ltd v Miracle Mile Investments supra at para
24.
[3]
See
Lubbe “Die Aanvang van Verjaring waar die Skuldeiser oor die
Opeisbaarheid van die Skuld kan Beskik” (1988) 51
THRHR 135.
[4]
Truter
v Deysel
[2006] ZASCA 16
;
2006 (4) SA 168
(SCA) at para 16.
[5]
[2008]
ZASCA 34; 2008 (4) SA 312 (SCA)
[6]
2010
(4) SA 109 (SCA)
[7]
2012
(5) SA 313 (SCA)
[8]
[2008]
ZANCHC 26
;
2009 (1) SA 189
(NC) at para
[8]
.
[9]
[2008]
ZASCA 6
;
2008 (3) SA 371
(SCA)
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