Case Law[2022] ZAGPPHC 940South Africa
Phasani v City of Tshwane Metropolitan Municipality (54411/2021) [2022] ZAGPPHC 940 (28 November 2022)
Headnotes
SUMMARY: Notice of Motion- Application for Condonation for late filing of the Notice in terms of Section 3 (4) of the Institution of Legal Proceedings Against Certain Organs of State Act 40 of 2002--Requirements for condonation.
Judgment
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# South Africa: North Gauteng High Court, Pretoria
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## Phasani v City of Tshwane Metropolitan Municipality (54411/2021) [2022] ZAGPPHC 940 (28 November 2022)
Phasani v City of Tshwane Metropolitan Municipality (54411/2021) [2022] ZAGPPHC 940 (28 November 2022)
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sino date 28 November 2022
IN
THE HIGH COURT OF SOUTH AFRICA
GAUTENG
DIVISION, PRETORIA
CASE
NUMBER: 54411/2021
REPORTABLE:
YES / NO
OF
INTEREST TO OTHER JUDGES: YES / NO
REVISED
28
Nov 2022
In
the matter between:
TSHILILO
WILLARD PHASANI
APPLICANT
and
CITY
OF TSHWANE METROPOLITAN MUNICIPALITY
RESPONDENT
SUMMARY:
Notice of Motion- Application for
Condonation for late filing of the Notice in terms of Section 3 (4)
of the Institution of Legal
Proceedings Against Certain Organs of
State Act 40 of 2002--Requirements for condonation.
ORDER
Held:
The application for condonation for the late filing of Notice 3 (4)
of the Institution of Legal Proceedings against Certain
Organs of
State Act 40 of 2002 is dismissed with costs.
JUDGMENT
MNCUBE,
AJ:
INTRODUCTION:
[1]
This is an application lodged by the applicant Mr Phasani for the
late filing of the
notice to institute legal proceedings in terms of
section 3(1) of Institution of Legal Proceedings Against Certain
Organs of State
Act 40 of 2002 (‘the Act’). The
applicant seeks an order for condonation for the late filing of the
notice in
terms of section 3(1) of the Act. The respondent, The City
of Tshwane Metropolitan Municipality opposes this application.
FACTUAL
BACKGROUND:
[2]
The applicant issued summons against the respondent on 15 October
2020 for damages
in the sum of R 5 000 000 (five million rand) plus
interest at 15.5% p.a for unlawful arrest and search which incident
is alleged
to have occurred on 9 August 2016. The summons were served
on the respondent on 16 October 2020, in response thereto, filed a
plea
and two special pleas in the main action. In the special pleas
the respondent alleges that the applicant’s claim has
prescribed
in terms of
section 11
(d) of the
Prescription Act 68 of
1969
and that the applicant failed to file a notice in terms of
section 3(1) of the Act within 6 months as prescribed by the Act. On
27 July 2020 the applicant issued a notice in terms of section 3 of
Act 40 of 2002 which was delivered to the respondent on 18
August
2020 at 14h20. On 12 May 2022 the applicant served the notice for the
application for condonation for the late filing of
the notice in
terms of section 3(1) of the Act. The application for condonation is
opposed on the following specific grounds-
(i)
The applicant’s claim has prescribed in terms of
section 11
(d)
of the
Prescription Act 68 of 1969
;
(ii)
The jurisdictional requirements in
section 3(4)
(b) (i) Act 40 of
2002 have not been met;
(iii)
The applicant’s cause of action is misplaced on the basis that
the applicant is confusing compensation
for unfair or unlawful
suspension in terms of the Labour Relations Act with compensation for
damages based on a delictual claim;
(iv)
That no good cause has been shown to warrant the granting of the
order (relief);
(v)
The respondent will suffer substantial prejudice if it has to answer
at trial to an incident that occurred
almost five years ago.
ISSUES
FOR DETERMINATION:
[3]
The court may condone the failure to issue a section 3 (1) notice if
it is satisfied:-
(a)
Firstly, that a debt has not been extinguished by prescription,
(b)
Secondly that a good cause exists for failure by the creditor and
(c)
Thirdly that the organ of state was not unreasonably prejudiced by
the failure.
[4]
The issues for determination are- (a) whether or not the applicant’s
claim for
damages has prescribed in terms of
section 11(d)
of
the
Prescription Act 68 of 1969
and (b) whether or not the applicant
has met all the jurisdictional requirements in terms of
section 3(4)
of Act 40 of 2002.
ONUS
OF PROOF:
[5]
The applicant bears the onus of satisfying the court that he is
entitled to the relief
for condonation by establishing all
three jurisdictional requirements in section 3(4) of the Act
[1]
.
The phrase ‘if the court is satisfied that’ does not
require proof on a balance of probabilities but rather requires
an
overall impression made on a court which brings a fair mind to the
facts set up by the parties. See
Madinda
v Minister of Safety and Security
[2008] ZASCA 34
;
2008 (4) SA 312
(SCA)
para 8.
APPLICABLE
LEGAL PRINCIPLES:
[6]
A creditor who intents instituting legal action against an organ of
state must give
notice in writing of such intention in terms of
section 3(1) of the Act. I deem it necessary to set out in its
entirety the provisions
of section 3 of the Act.
[7]
Section 3 provides that –
“
3(1)
No legal proceedings for the recovery of a debt may be instituted
against an organ of state unless-
(a)
the creditor has given the organ of state in question notice in
writing of his or her or its intention to institute the legal
proceedings in question ; or
(b)
the organ of state in question has consented in writing to the
institution of that legal proceeding[s]-(i) without such notice;
or
(ii) upon receipt of a notice which does not comply with all the
requirements set out in subsection (2).
(2)
A notice must –
(a)
within six months from the date on which the debt became due,
be served on the organ of state in accordance with s 4(1);
and
(b)
briefly set out –
(i)
the facts giving rise to the debt; and
(ii)
such particulars of such debt as are within the knowledge of the
creditor.
(3)
For purposes of ss (2):
(a)
a debt may not be regarded as being due until the creditor has
knowledge of the identity of the organ of state and of
the facts
giving rise to the debt, but a creditor must be regarded as having
acquired such knowledge as soon as he or she or it
could have
acquired it by exercising reasonable care, unless the organ of state
wilfully prevented him or her or it from acquiring
such knowledge;
and
(b)
a debt referred to in section 2(2)(a), must be regarded as having
become due on the fixed date.
(4)
(a) If an
organ of state relies on a creditor's failure to serve a notice
in
terms of ss (2)(a),
the creditor may apply to a court having jurisdiction
for condonation
of such failure.
(b)
The court may grant an application referred to in para (a) if
it is satisfied that -
(i)
the debt has not been extinguished by prescription;
(ii)
good cause exists for the
failure by the creditor; and
(iii)
the organ of state was not unreasonably prejudiced by the failure”.
[8]
The primary purpose of the Act is to require that notice of intention
to institute
legal proceedings be given to an organ of state in order
to investigate the basis of such claim. In
Mohlomi v Minister
of Defence 1997(1) SA 124 (CC
) para 9 it was held ‘The
conventional explanation for demanding prior notification of any
intention to sue such an organ
of government is that, with its
extensive activities and large staff which tends to shift, it needs
the opportunity to investigate
claims laid against it, to consider
them responsibly and to decide, before getting embroiled in
litigation at public expense, whether
it ought to accept, reject or
endeavour to settle them.’
[9]
Where a creditor has failed to give the required notice of intention
to institute
legal action, such creditor may apply to court for
condonation in terms of section 3(4) of the Act which sets out three
jurisdictional
requirements which must be met. This enables the court
to exercise its discretion to condone the failure to give the
required notice.
The purpose of granting condonation is to allow the
action to proceed despite the fact that the creditor has not complied
with
the peremptory provisions of section 3(1) of Act 40 of 2002
[2]
.
[10]
As indicated supra, all three jurisdictional requirements must be met
by the applicant who seeks
condonation. There are applicable legal
principles in regard to each specific requirement in section 3(4) of
the Act which I deem
necessary to briefly set out as follows-
(a)
The debt has not been extinguished by prescription:
The
requirement that the debt has not been extinguished by prescription
means that the court must be satisfied that the applicant’s
course of action exists. The debt must be immediately
enforceable by the creditor and payable by the debtor.
[3]
In a number of decisions, what is emphasized is that prescription
begins to run against the creditor when the creditor has the
minimum
facts that are necessary to institute action.
Section 12(3)
of the
Prescription Act 68 of 1969
requires knowledge of material facts from
which the debt arises and does not require knowledge of the relevant
legal conclusion.
See
Mkhatshwa
v Minister of Defence
2000 (1) SA 1104
(SCA)
para 23.
(b)
Good cause exists for the failure by the creditor:
The
requirement on the existence of good cause means that the applicant
must produce acceptable reasons for the failure to give
the required
notice. Courts have refrained from formulating an exhaustive
definition of what constitutes good cause. An applicant
seeking
such an indulgence must make the court to understand how the delay
came about and place the court in a position to assess
the conduct.
good cause looks at all those factors which comes to bear on fairness
of granting the relief between the parties and
affecting the
administration of justice. Whether good cause has been shown depends
on the facts of each case. The court exercises
discretion which rests
upon two pillars-
(i)
An applicant must satisfactory explain the delay for non-compliance,
in other words a full and reasonable explanation must be
offered
which covers the entire period of delay; and
(ii)
An applicant should on oath satisfy the court that the action is not
ill founded or there is a valid defence, as the case may
be.
(c)
The organ of state was not unreasonably prejudiced by the failure:
The
court must be satisfied that the organ of state was not prejudiced by
the failure of the creditor to give the required
notice. In
L.F.
Boshoff Investments (Pty) Ltd v Cape Town
Municipality 1971(4) SA 532 (CPD
) at 536 it was held ‘
Where
an applicant claims the indulgence of condonation it is for him to
show that respondent would not be adversely affected thereby
to any
substantial degree, and that, even if he were to be so affected,
other considerations apply which would persuade the Court
to grant
the indulgence sought
.’
[11]
The general legal principles for condonation can be summarized as
follows-
[11.1]
The three requirements in section 3(4) of the Act must be
met. This
denotes that a proper explanation for the causes of delay;
[11.2]
The
explanation must cover the entire period of delay;
[11.3]
Condonation is not for the mere taking;
[11.4]
The
court has a wide discretion;
[11.5]
The
interest of justice must permit the granting of condonation;
[11.6]
The
court must consider the applicant’s prospects of success
and
the importance of the issues for determination;
[11.7]
Balancing the prejudice that the respondent may suffer by
the
granting of condonation against the prejudice that the applicant may
suffer if condonation is not granted.
EVALUATION:
[12]
The crus of the applicant’s case is that the claim has not
prescribed as he was unaware
that he had a delictual claim until he
spoke to Doctor Sepato and after the withdrawal of the charges on 25
April 2018 . Adv.
Mkhabele argues on behalf of the applicant
that the claim has not prescribed on the basis that the debt became
due only on 25 April
2018. He contends that the respondent will
suffer no prejudice if the relief is granted that will give leave to
the applicant
to have his day in court. Adv. Mkhabele submits that
the applicant cannot be faulted by the reckless behaviour of his
previous
attorney.
[13]
The respondent‘s contention is that the claim has prescribed
and the applicant has failed
to meet all the statutory requirements
in section 3(4) of the Act. Adv. Hlalethoa argues on behalf of the
respondent that the applicant
is putting blame on his former attorney
for the delay in serving the notice. He contends that is insufficient
ground to constitute
good cause. Adv Hlalethoa places reliance
on
Saloojee and Another, NNO v Minister of Community Development
1965
(2) SA 135
(A
) where Steyn CJ held that there is a limit
which a litigant cannot escape the results of his attorney’s
lack of diligence.
Steyn CJ on page 141 further held ‘If, as
here, the stage is reached where it must become obvious also to a
layman that there
is a protracted delay, he cannot sit passively by,
without so much as directing any reminder or enquiry to his
attorney (
cf. Regal v African Superslate (Pty) Ltd , supra at p 23
i.f.)
and expect to be exonerated of all blame; and if, as here,
the explanation offered to this Court is patently insufficient, he
cannot
be heard to claim that the insufficiency should overlooked
merely because he has left the matter entirely in the hands of his
attorney.’
[14]
I find the averments made by Mr Simon Sithole who deposed to an
answering affidavit on behalf
of the respondent (that the claim
has prescribed in terms of
section 11
(d) of the
Prescription Act 68
of 1969
on the lapse of three years after the incident) to be
more persuasive. This is on the basis that I am of the view that
prescription
started running on or about 9 August 2016 being the time
when the applicant was allegedly searched and arrested.
[15]
The rationale for this view is that the applicant had knowledge of
material facts from which
the debt arose to institute action for the
following reasons-
[15.1]
The applicant knew or reasonably ought to have known that
the debt
became due after alleged incident of the 9 August 2016 which was
wrongful as substantiated by his averments in the founding
affidavit.
He states therein ‘
As I was searched and arrested at my
workplace, in the presence of my colleagues, naked and at gunpoint, I
was emotionally disturbed
and traumatised. On the 13
th
December 2016, I was hospitalised at Vista Clinic due stress and
depression where I stayed for about 30 days, and further consulted
with Dr M.P. Sepato, a Clinical Psychologist who prepared a
Psychological Report attached hereto is the said report marked
annexure
(‘TWP2’).’
[15.2]
The applicant knew the identity of the debtor who had committed
the
alleged unlawful act against him (being a member of the respondent
acting within the scope of employment. He further knew the
wrongfulness of the alleged actions of the debtor. Evaluating all the
facts holistically it is clear that the applicant knew sufficient
facts giving rise to the debt
[4]
.
[15.3]
The applicant’s averment that he only became aware
of the cause
of action after he was advised by Dr Sepato and after the
withdrawal of charges against him in 2018 is not persuasive.
In my
view this reasoning amounts to applicant requiring certainty of
knowledge of the relevant legal conclusion. The fact that
he
consulted with an attorney within the two year period after the
incident is indicative of the fact that the applicant
had knowledge
that what he allegedly experienced on 9 August 2016 was wrong. In
other words, he well knew that he had a claim against
the respondent.
The alleged lax by the applicant’s former attorney in issuing
the summons within the three years and the
required notice in terms
of section 3(1) of the Act though regrettable, did not stop the
running of prescription.
[15.4]
By his own concession in his founding affidavit, the applicant
became
aware of the cause of action after he was advised by Dr Sepato. The
applicant met Dr Sepato on his admission at Vista Clinic
in 2016. The
applicant does not indicate the exact period he received the advice
from Dr Sepato. However, by inferential reasoning
such advice would
have been received during his admission at Vista Clinic. The
applicant’s averment that it was after the
withdrawal of the
disciplinary charges that he became aware of the cause of action is
in my view misplaced for the simple
reason that the
departmental charges were for a different legal process. His
cause of action is based on the alleged delict
with no relevance to
the withdrawal of the disciplinary process that had to do with
conditions of employment. On the facts
it cannot be found that
the applicant lacked knowledge of his claim from the time the alleged
incident which caused him stress.
[16]
In the event that the above finding that the applicant’s claim
has prescribed as he had
sufficient material facts during 2016
from which the debt arose is incorrect, I find that the
applicant has failed to meet
two of the requirements in section 3(4)
of the Act -
[16.1]
Good cause exists for the failure to give the required notice
:
In order to determine whether good cause exists, I have
to consider factors which bear on the fairness of granting
the relief
as between the parties and the proper administration of justice.
These factors may include prospects of success in the
proposed
action, the reasons for the delay, the sufficiency of the explanation
offered, the bona fides of the applicant and any
contribution by
other persons or parties to the delay and the applicant’s
responsibility. On the facts of this matter,
regrettably the
applicant has provided insufficient reasons to constitute good cause
to explain the delay of one year and nine
months. The applicant
concedes in his founding affidavit that non-compliance covers a
period of one year nine months and
eighteen days yet fails to provide
sufficient reasons for such delay for that period. At best he avers
that from 2018 until May
2020 he made attempts to follow up with his
previous attorney with no success. No specific details are provided.
He offers ignorance
of the legal processes as a reason for the
delay. I find it to be improbable that the first time he learnt
about the required
notice is during the consultation with the second
attorney.
[16.2]
Prejudice to the respondent
: On the facts of this matter, it
is clear that the passage of time is prejudicial to the respondent.
The applicant’s averments
that there will be no prejudice to
the respondent on the basis that the records exist is with respect
speculative. The applicant
has to satisfy this court of the lack of
prejudice. There is no evidence placed before this court on the
availability of witnesses
and any relevant evidential material. This
is the very essence for requiring section 3(1) notice to be given to
an organ of state
so as to do the necessary investigations on the
claim.
[17]
Applying
Saloojee
to the facts in this case, the
applicant cannot be absolved from providing sufficient reasons on the
basis that he left the matter
in the hands of his former attorney. It
seems to me that the applicant puts the blame on his former attorney
Mr Mamburu and on
his mental state. It is surprising that the
applicant’s mental state caused no bar to him giving proper
instruction for legal
action. By his own concession the
enquiries he made to his former attorney is indicative that even as a
layman he was well
aware that he had a claim and that there was
delay in executing his claim.
CONCLUSION:
[18]
In conclusion, notwithstanding the fact that I have a discretion to
condone the failure to give
the required notice in terms of section
3(4) of the Act, I find that the applicant’s claim has
prescribed in terms of
section 11(d)
of the
Prescription Act 68 of
1969
. I also conclude that the applicant knew the identity of his
debtor and the material facts giving rise to the claim in 2016
giving rise to the existence of a debt. Consequently it follows that
the three requirements in section 3(4) of the Act have not
been met
therefore the applicant has failed to satisfy this court that he is
entitled to the relief.
COSTS:
[19]
Awarding of costs is at the discretion of the court which must be
exercised judicially. The costs
should follow the course.
Order
[20]
In the circumstances the following order is made:
1.
The
application for condonation for the late filing of notice in terms of
section 3 of Act 40 of 2002 is dismissed with costs.
MNCUBE
AJ
ACTING
JUDGE OF THE HIGH COURT
GAUTENG
DIVISION, PRETORIA
Appearances
:
On
behalf of the Applicant: Adv.
S.V. Mkhabele
Instructed
by : Mashudu
Muhanganei Attorneys Incorporated
1
st
Floor, Office 101 Woltemade Building
Corner
116 Paul Kruger and Madiba Streets
Pretoria
On
behalf of the : Adv.
I. Hlalethoa
Instructed
by : Malebye
Motaung Mthembu Incorporated
Ground
Floor, Block B, North Wing
Grayston
Ridge Office Park
144
Katherine Street
Sandton
Date
of hearing: 30
August 2022
Date
of Judgment: 28
November 2022
[1]
See
Madinda
v Minister of Safety and Security
[2008] ZASCA 34
;
2008 (4) SA 312
(SCA)
para [16] it was stated ‘The structure of Section 3(4) is now
such that the court must be satisfied that all three requirements
have been met. Once it is so satisfied the discretion to condone
operates according to the established principles in such matters.’
[2]
See
Minister
of Safety and Security v De Witt
[2008] ZASCA 103
;
2009 (1) SA 457
(SCA).
[3]
See
Standard
Bank of South Africa v Miracle Mile Investments 67 (Pty) Ltd
2017 (1) SA 187 (SCA).
[4]
See
Truter
v Deysel
[2006] ZASCA 16
;
2006 (4) SA 168
(SCA)
para 16 where it was held a debt is due when the creditor acquires a
complete cause of action for the recovery of the debt.
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