Case Law[2024] ZAWCHC 337South Africa
Nedbank Limited v DC Trustees (Reasons) (4221/2024) [2024] ZAWCHC 337 (28 October 2024)
High Court of South Africa (Western Cape Division)
28 October 2024
Judgment
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# South Africa: Western Cape High Court, Cape Town
South Africa: Western Cape High Court, Cape Town
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## Nedbank Limited v DC Trustees (Reasons) (4221/2024) [2024] ZAWCHC 337 (28 October 2024)
Nedbank Limited v DC Trustees (Reasons) (4221/2024) [2024] ZAWCHC 337 (28 October 2024)
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sino date 28 October 2024
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IN
THE HIGH COURT OF SOUTH AFRICA
WESTERN
CAPE DIVISION, CAPE TOWN
Case
no:
4221/2024
In
the matter between:
NEDBANK
LIMITED
Applicant
And
DC
TRUSTEES
Respondent
REASONS:
DELIVERED THIS 28
TH
DAY OF OCTOBER 2024
MTHIMUNYE,
AJ
[1]
This is an opposed application for the final winding-up of the
respondent, DC Trustees
(Pty) Ltd, on the grounds that the respondent
is commercially insolvent and unable to pay its debts. The winding-up
is sought in
terms of section 344(f) read with section 345(1)(a) of
The Companies Act 61 of 1973.
Issues
to be determined:
[2]
Issues in dispute:
1.
Whether the applicant’s non-compliance with Rule 41A is a valid
defence for dismissing the liquidation
application;
2.
Whether the applicant’s claims are disputed on
bona fide
and
reasonable grounds; and
3.
Whether the respondent is commercially insolvent.
[3]
The parties entered into loan agreements between August 2018 and
August 2019, in terms
of which the applicant advanced various loans
to the respondent against the security of mortgage bonds being
registered over the
respondent’s immovable property.
[4]
On 22 April 2024, DC Trustees was placed under provisional
liquidation by the Master
of the High Court of South Africa. A
rule
nisi
was issued, calling upon the respondent and all interested
persons to provide reasons, if any, on 20 June 2024, as to why a
final
liquidation order should not be granted.
[5]
On 20 June 2024, the matter was postponed to the semi-urgent roll for
hearing on 19
August 2024, and the
rule nisi
was extended to
19 August 2024.
[6]
. The respondent raised a point in limine of non-compliance with Rule
41A of the Uniform
Rules of Court in their answering affidavit and
sought the dismissal of the application.
Non-compliance
with Rule 41A
[7]
Rule 41A provides thus:
“
(2)
(a) In every new
action or application proceeding, the plaintiff or applicant shall,
together with the summons or combined summons
or notice of motion,
serve on each defendant or respondent a notice indicating whether
such plaintiff or applicant agrees to or
opposes referral of the
dispute to mediation.
(b) A defendant or
respondent shall, when delivering a notice of intention to defend or
a notice of intention to oppose, or at any
time thereafter, but not
later than the delivery of a plea or answering affidavit, serve on
each plaintiff or applicant or the
plaintiff’s or applicant’s
attorneys, a notice indicating whether such defendant or respondent
agrees to or opposes
referral of the dispute to mediation.”
[8]
It is common cause that when the application was served on the
respondent on 11 March
2024, it was not accompanied by the notice as
contemplated in Rule 41A(2)(a). Similarly, the respondent’s
notice to oppose
the application and the subsequent answering
affidavit were served without the notice in terms of Rule 41A(2)(b).
[9]
The applicant submitted that the respondent’s preliminary point
is misplaced,
as the mediation process contemplated in Rule 41A is,
entirely voluntary and a court is not empowered to direct the parties
to
mediate a dispute. Consequently, a party’s election not to
negate during the mediation process does not impact on the validity
of an application which has been instituted. In addition, there is no
sanction for non-compliance with Rule 41A. Furthermore, the
applicant
submitted that the respondent has not contended that it has been
prejudiced by the applicant’s alleged non-compliance,
nor has
the respondent indicated, in its answering affidavit that it wishes
to mediate the dispute. Further, the applicant submitted
that the
dispute is not amenable to mediation.
[10]
The respondent contends that the applicant's failure to adhere to
Rule 41A is an irregular action,
and the applicant has not even
attempted to comply with the Rule at a later stage. The
respondent submitted that the
applicant’s assertion that no
prejudice has been caused by the applicant’s failure to file a
notice in terms of Rule
41A, is patently incorrect. The respondent
submits that it has been severely prejudiced by the applicant’s
failure to afford
the respondent an opportunity to mediate the
matter.
[11]
I do not agree with the respondent’s contentions that a failure
to comply with the provision
of Rule 41A (2) warrants an order that
the matter be dismissed. The object of Rule 41A is to afford
litigants an opportunity to
resolve their disputes through a process
of mediation as an alternative to litigation. It is a voluntary
process, and as a result
parties cannot be compelled to submit their
dispute to mediation.
[12]
It appears that the respondent has lost sight of the fact that in
terms of the rule, the respondent
is also obliged to deliver such a
notice, regardless of the applicant’s failure to comply with
the rule. Neither party complied
with Rule 41 A and the respondent’s
hands are not clean in order to complain about the applicant’s
non-compliance.
[13]
The second point in limine raised by the respondent in its answering
affidavit is that the applicant
has received payment from the
insurance cover with Nedgroup Insurance Company Limited.
Consequently, the respondent submits, there
are no amounts owing to
the applicant as all outstanding amounts have been settled by the
trade credit insurance cover.
[14]
The applicant in response submitted in their answering affidavit that
the respondent’s
contentions in respect of the trade credit
insurance lack any factual, legal or logical basis. The applicant
further submitted
that there is no such policy in place in respect of
the accounts in question and that no amounts have been paid to the
applicant
from any insurer.
[15]
The respondent failed to succinctly and unambiguously deal with this
dispute of fact in his papers.
He presents vague allegations without
providing any documentation substantiating his
allegations that the policy exists,
or that such monies were paid out
to the applicant by the insurer.
[16]
The applicant on the other hand has disputed the averment made by the
respondent and dealt with
the allegations succinctly and clearly in
the replying affidavit.
[17]
I am therefor inclined to agree with the applicant that the
allegations made by the respondent
is unsubstantiated, far-fetched
and untenable and falls to be dismissed.
[18]
I now turn to deal whether applicant’s claims are disputed on
bona fide
and reasonable grounds:
[19]
The court must consider a critical concept of our law when responding
to this inquiry. The
Badenhorst
principle is the first. In
terms of this principle, winding-up proceedings are not to be
employed to enforce payment of a debt
that is disputed on
bona
fide
and reasonable grounds.
(See Robson v Wax Works (Pty) Ltd
and others
[2001] 3 All SA 546
(C))
[20]
However, in cases where the respondent’s indebtedness has,
prima facie,
been established, the onus is on the respondent
to show that the indebtedness is indeed on
bona fide
and
reasonable grounds.
(See Desert Star Trading 145 (Pty) Ltd and
another v No 11 Flamboyant Edleen CC and another
[2011] 2 All SA 471
(SCA).
[21]
The second important concept is the
Plascon-Evans
Rule. The
test here is different than the one applied in the
Badenhorst
principle, as in
Plascon-Evans
, the affidavits must
demonstrate a
prima facie
case in favour of the applicant.
[22]
The concept of winding-up companies based on commercial insolvency (a
state of inability to pay
debts as they fall due) is recognised. The
Supreme Court of Appeal in
Murray NO and others v African Global
Holdings (Pty) Ltd and others
[2020] 1 All SA 64
(SCA).
It
confirmed that in respect of a company which has assets and seeks to
oppose its winding-up, the test applied is whether were
those assets
to be sold, the company would thereafter be able to continue normal
trading. In the event that the company is unable
to resume normal
trading following the sale, it should be placed in winding-up.
[23]
The respondent acknowledges at page 269 at paragraph 11.1 of his
answering affidavit that he
entered into eight (8) separate loan
agreements with the applicant between the period of August 2018 and
August 2019. The respondent
on the other hand, denies that loans
advanced by the applicant were against the security of mortgage bonds
registered against the
respondent’s immovable property.
[24]
It is important to note that the applicant has attached copies of the
covering mortgage bonds
to their founding papers to prove that the
loans advanced by them to the respondent were indeed against security
of mortgage bonds
that were registered against the respondent’s
immovable property. The respondent on the other hand does no more and
places
no evidence before the court to gainsay the allegations made
by the applicant. The respondent’s allegations therefore
amounts
to a bare denial.
[25]
Further, the respondent denies the quantum of the debt. In his
answering affidavit at paragraph
14.2, he avers that any outstanding
amount that was payable to the applicant by him was settled by trade
credit insurance.
[26]
In amplification of his denial the respondent refers to his third
point
in limine
by alleging in their answering papers, that
the applicant blocked his access to account 1[…], by
reflecting the account
on the money-app as R0-00 outstanding. The
respondent avers that the applicant did this in order to create an
arrear amount. This
resulted in preventing payment of any of the
outstanding accounts being paid by the debit order.
[27]
Respondent avers further that even after the applicant issued demand
for payments, he continued
to make payments. Further that the last
payment he made was during January 2024, which was accepted by the
applicant.
[29]
In my opinion, the respondent’s assertion is implausible. He
refers to the account 1[…]
as being blocked by the applicant,
but does not dispute that it is only one of the eight accounts that
are in arrears. According
to his own admission the last payment
he made to the applicant was during January 2024. He does not address
the fact that the applicant
averred in their founding affidavit at
page 9 at paragraph 15, which is that from 14 February 2024, to date,
the cumulative arrears
of the loans advanced to him by the applicant
amounted to R393 539,26 while the total outstanding balance
amounted to R5 637 141,
86 together with further interest
thereon.
[30]
The respondent’s denial that he is commercially insolvent and
unable to pay its debts as
they became due, is unsubstantiated, in
that the respondent does not place any evidence before this court to
gainsay the allegations
by the applicant. Instead, it is the
applicant who in solidifying their claim attaches certificates of
balances of the outstanding
loans. Nowhere in his papers does the
respondent dispute these as being inaccurate reflections of
certificates of balance on the
outstanding balances owed the loans.
By issuing trivial denials, the respondent seeks to convince this
court that his allegations
are accurate.
[31]
The respondent’s bare denial is considered against his
admission that eight loans were
advanced to him by the applicant,
that there is evidence that the applicant advanced loans to him was
against the security of mortgage
bonds registered against the
immovable properties owned by the respondent. Furthermore, the
respondent’s failure to address
the fact that all eight loan
accounts are in arrears, the payments he had made up to January 2024,
and the amounts owed as reflected
in the statement of accounts, which
expressly records the debt being owed in the amount of
R5 637 141, 86, together
with interest.
[32]
The certificates of balance is
prima facie
proof of the
respondent’s indebtedness and the respondent has placed nothing
before the court to rebut the
prima facie
case made out by the
applicant.
[33]
In addition to failing to present a bona fide and rational defence in
accordance with the Badenhorst
principle, the respondent also fails
to present a genuine dispute of fact in accordance with the
Plascon-Evans rule. The respondent
fails to adequately address the
applicant's allegations, and he fails to provide a specific
explanation for why he is not in arrears.
The respondent's defences
are unfounded and untenable, and they should be rejected.
[34]
Turning then to the allegations regarding commercial and factual
solvency. The test for commercial
solvency is whether the respondent
possesses the necessary funds to satisfy the applicant’s debt
in the amount of R5 637 141,86,
or not.
[35]
It is sufficient for the court to determine that the necessary case
under section 344(f) of the
Companies Act 61of 1971 has been
established when there is evidence that the respondent's company is
commercially insolvent, meaning
that it is unable to pay its debts
when they are due.
[36]
The respondent's obligation to pay the applicant a substantial debt
is undeniable in this application.
It is evident that the respondent
lacks the necessary funds to satisfy the applicant's debt.
Consequently, the respondent is insolvent,
and no further action is
necessary, in addition to the deeming provision resulting from
the section 345 statutory notice.
[37]
Although the respondent has submitted valuation certificates for the
immovable properties that
were mortgaged to the applicant in an
effort to substantiate the claim that it is solvent, the
documentation has actually established
the contrary.
[38]
The financials show that the value of the immovable properties
already mortgaged to the applicant
amounts to R5 903 000,00
according to the respondent’s averments at page 272 paragraph
17.3 of his answering affidavit.
This amount referred to by the
respondent is not cash flow and does not assist the respondent as the
total outstanding balance
due to the applicant amounts to
R5 637 141,86. Were the value of the respondent’s
immovable property to be set-off
against the applicant’s
outstanding balance, the respondent would effectively only have
R265 858 at his disposal, bearing
in mind that at the time of
the application the costs and further interest rates had not yet been
included in the total outstanding
balance due.
[39]
The respondent, in its own best case “expected” position
is unable to meet the demands
of the debt. The full accelerated debt
is due, and the respondent definitely does not have R5 637 141,86
together with
the interest thereon to pay the debt owed to the
applicant.
[40]
The respondent has to date not paid his debt to the applicant and his
submission at page 272
paragraph 17.4 of his answering affidavit can
only be seen as a concession that the debt is owed and that he does
not have the
funds to satisfy the debt and further that he requires
the immovable properties held as security by the applicant to satisfy
the
debt owed.
[41]
The respondent has set out no basis and certainly no satisfactory
facts why this court in exercising
its discretion should not grant an
order for its final winding-up.
Conclusion
[42]
In the circumstances, I am satisfied that the applicant has succeeded
in making out a case for
the final liquidation of the respondent on
the basis that the respondent is unable to pay its debts.
Costs
[43]
In the exercise of my discretion on costs, I considered an
appropriate order to be that each
party to pay their own costs, even
in spite of the applicant’s success in the section 344(f)
application.
Order
[44]
In the result, the following order was made:
That the rule nisi
granted on 22 April 2024 is made absolute and the Respondent is
placed under Final Liquidation.
MTHIMUNYE, AJ
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