Case Law[2024] ZAWCHC 400South Africa
Duthie v Cilliers and Associates (19275/2015 ; 19375/2015) [2024] ZAWCHC 400 (29 November 2024)
High Court of South Africa (Western Cape Division)
29 November 2024
Judgment
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# South Africa: Western Cape High Court, Cape Town
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## Duthie v Cilliers and Associates (19275/2015 ; 19375/2015) [2024] ZAWCHC 400 (29 November 2024)
Duthie v Cilliers and Associates (19275/2015 ; 19375/2015) [2024] ZAWCHC 400 (29 November 2024)
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sino date 29 November 2024
IN THE HIGH COURT OF
SOUTH AFRICA
(WESTERN CAPE
DIVISION, CAPE TOWN)
CASE NO: 19275/2015
In the matter between:
JOHN – JOHN
DUTHIE
Applicant
and
CILLIERS AND
ASSOCIATES
Respondent
AND
CASE NO: 19375/2015
In the matter between:
JACOBUS
OCTOBER
Applicant/Plaintiff
and
CILLIERS AND
ASSOCIATES
Respondent/Defendant
Heard on: 18 November
2024
Delivered on: 29
November 2024
This judgment was handed
down electronically by circulation to the parties’ legal
representatives by email publication and
release to SAFLII. The date
and time for hand-down is deemed to be 12h00 on 29 November 2024.
JUDGMENT
MANTAME
J
[1]
These two applications in terms of Rule 28 (4) of the Uniform Rules
of Court served before
this Court simultaneously as the issues
arising thereto are the same. Notwithstanding this similarity, they
were not formally consolidated.
The parties were advised that
for swift finalisation of these issues, there would be one judgment.
[2]
The two applicants/plaintiffs filed a damages claim against the
respondent/defendant.
In their particulars of claim, as plaintiffs
under Case No. 19275/2015 and 19375/2015 respectively, they alleged
that they sustained
severe injuries during a motor vehicle accident
that occurred on 17 March 2010 subsequent to which they approached
the respondent/defendant
during or about mid 2010 for legal advice
and assistance with their claim for compensation due to bodily
injuries sustained.
[3]
According to the applicants/plaintiffs in their paragraph 5 of their
particulars of
claim, the respondent/defendant accepted a mandate to
perform professional services as their attorney, inter alia as
follows;
(a) To proceed with
an action against the Compensation Commissioner in terms of
Compensation for Occupational Injuries and
Diseases Act (COIDA);
(b) To take all
reasonable steps, precautions and procedures to ensure the diligent,
professional and fair prosecution of
the applicant’s/plaintiff’s
claim;
(c) To make use of
all remedies and methods to ensure the diligent, professional, fair
and accurate composition of the applicants/plaintiffs
claim;
(d) To obtain and
peruse all necessary and available documentation as well as consult
with applicants/plaintiffs in order
to correctly ascertain the facts;
(e) To serve summons
timeously in the correct forum or court;
(f) To
appoint the appropriate medical experts taking into consideration the
nature and extent of the applicant’s/plaintiff’s
injuries;
(g) To quantify the
claim regarding the applicant’s/plaintiff’s injuries
judiciously and with due care and consideration;
and
(h) To exercise the
necessary skill, adequate knowledge and diligence expected of an
average practising attorney.
[4]
The applicants/plaintiffs alleged further in their respective
paragraphs 6 of their
particulars of claim that the respondent was
obliged to perform “
the services in a proper and
professional manner and without negligence”
in terms of an
“
implied term of the agreement between the parties”
.
In addition, the applicants/plaintiffs pleaded in the said paragraph
that the respondent was obliged, in terms of a further “
implied
term of the agreement”
to advise the applicant of “
all
remedies in law emanating from the injuries sustained.”
[5]
In paragraph 7 of the particulars of claim the applicants/plaintiffs,
pleaded that
the respondent/defendant breached “
the
agreement”
by failing to perform its duties “
in
terms of the agreement in that:
“
7.1
They neglected and/ or omitted to investigate the possibility of
lodging a claim against the Road Accident
Fund, 56 of 1996 as amended
by Act 19 of 2005 (herein referred to as “the Act”) and
to timeously submit a claim in
terms of the Act;
7.2
They allowed the claim to prescribe;
7.3
They failed in general to perform the work necessary to litigate the
matter.”
[6]
In paragraph 8 of the particulars of claim the applicant alleges
that:
“
It was in the
contemplation of the parties to the agreement that the plaintiff
would suffer damages in the event that the matter
was incorrectly or
negligently prosecuted by the Defendant or the employees of the
Defendant.”
[7]
To this end, the respondent/defendant has denied that he ever
accepted the mandate. The
respondent/defendant pleaded that it
accepted a mandate to advise and assist the applicants/plaintiffs
with their claim against
the Compensation Commissioner in terms of
COIDA. The respondent/defendant denied that it also accepted an
instruction to assist
the applicants/plaintiffs with a claim against
the Road Accident Fund (the RAF)
[8]
In its amended plea, the respondent/defendant pleaded that it was not
prepared to
accept an instruction to represent the
applicants/plaintiffs in a claim against the RAF alternatively it did
not accept an instruction
to assist with a claim of this nature. In
the further alternative, the respondent/defendant pleaded that in the
event that the
applicants/plaintiffs intended to proceed with a claim
against the RAF, the applicants /plaintiffs were aware that they
should
seek alternative legal representation. This amended plea
caused the applicants/plaintiffs to deliver a replication which was
met
with a notice in terms of Rule 23 (1) of the Uniform Rules of
Court. Pursuant thereto, the applicants/plaintiffs then gave its
notice to amend the replication in terms of Rule 28 (1) of the
Uniform Rules of Court which now forms the basis of this application.
[9]
In its opposition of this amendment, the respondent/defendant stated
that the applicants/plaintiffs
based their case on an implied term.
As an implied term is one that exists in law and is not a term of an
agreement which has to
be agreed upon between the parties, it was
therefore clear that this is different from a term which is accepted
between the parties.
The onus therefore lies on the
applicants/plaintiffs to prove the existence of such an implied term.
It is therefore unnecessary
to plead that the respondent/defendant
accepted such a term as this implied term, if proven would exist in
the agreement irrespective
of whether the defendant accepted same or
not.
[10]
The applicants/plaintiffs proposed amendments are that the entire
paragraph 3.2 of the applicants/plaintiffs
replication be deleted
which reads as follows:
“
3.2 The Plaintiff
pleads specifically that:
3.2.1 The
Defendant accepted the mandate as pleaded in paragraphs 5 and 6 of
the Plaintiff’s particulars of claim.
3.2.2 The
Defendant not only accepted the mandate, but on an inquiry by the
Plaintiff on various occasions in respect
of progress, the Defendant
assured the Plaintiff that the claims, inclusive of the claim against
the Road Accident Fund, were indeed
instituted and attended to in the
required manner.
3.2.3 The
Plaintiff had no reason not to accept the foresaid
(sic)
to be
the truth and correct.
3.2.4 The
Plaintiff, in the premise, had no reason to seek alternative legal
advice at the time.”
[11]
The paragraph the applicants/plaintiffs wish to introduce reads as
follows:
“
3.2 The Plaintiff
pleads specifically that the Defendant accepted the mandate as
pleaded in paragraph 5 and 6 of the Plaintiffs
particulars of claim.”
[12]
The respondent/defendant objected to this proposal on the basis that:
(a)
The applicants/plaintiffs seek to, through amendment, include an
allegation that the respondent/defendant
accepted the mandate to
“
advise the Plaintiff of all remedies available in law
emanating from the injuries sustained…”
(b)
The intended amendment is not in response to an allegation by the
respondent/defendant in the plea,
as amended;
(c)
The proposed amendment seeks to expand and increase the ambit of the
applicant’s/plaintiff’s
case as contained in the
particulars of claim;
(d)
The proposed amendment, if allowed, will severely prejudice the
respondent/defendant.
[13]
The issues as set out by the applicants/plaintiffs are (i) whether
the applicant’s claim
against the respondent/defendant is
contractual in nature, or (ii) whether the respondent/defendant is
justified in denying the
terms as pleaded in the particulars of
claim more in particular whether or not it was agreed that the
respondent/defendant
would assist in the applicants/plaintiffs claims
against the RAF; (iii) whether facts and not evidence are generally
requested
to be pleaded, and that sight should not be lost of the
distinction between
facta probanda
(the facts to be proven)
and
facta probantia
(the facts that would prove the first
said) and whether such amendment would cause prejudice on the
applicants/plaintiffs, and no
new cause of action would be
introduced. In the contrary, the respondent/defendant asserted that
the issues relating to this objection
for amendment are much simpler
than what is envisaged by the applicants/plaintiffs.
[14]
The respondent/defendant submitted that the applicants/plaintiffs
relied on the contract or agreement
that they failed to attach in
their particulars of claim. In terms of Rule 18 (6) of the Uniform
Rules of Court, “
A party who in his or her pleadings relies
upon a contract shall state whether the contract is written or oral
and when, where and
by whom it was concluded, and if the contract is
written, a true copy thereof or of the part relied on in the pleading
shall be
annexed to the pleading.”
[15]
In addition, the proposed amendment is not a response to an
allegation by the respondent/defendant
in the amended plea. It merely
seeks to expand and increase the ambit of the applicant’s/plaintiff’s
case or introduce
a fresh cause of action and thereby causing severe
prejudice to the respondent/defendant. Although the
applicants/plaintiffs seek
to amend paragraph 5 and 6 of the
particulars of claim, paragraph 6 is somewhat contradictory to
paragraph 5 as it seems to allege
that the respondents/defendants
were responsible for providing a spectrum of legal advice to the
applicant’s/plaintiff’s,
while paragraph 5 refers
specifically to the COIDA matter only.
[16]
Further, paragraph 7 of the particulars of claim state that the
respondent/defendant was negligent
in reflecting and/or omitting to
investigate the possibility of lodging the RAF claims and thereby
allowing the claims to prescribe
and failing to perform the work
necessary to litigate the matter. On the other hand, the particulars
of claim do not specifically
allege that the respondent/defendant
accepted a mandate to lodge the RAF claims on behalf of the
applicants/plaintiffs or that
the respondent/defendant represented to
the applicants/plaintiffs that it was willing to pursue such claims
and/or issue the RAF
claims.
[17]
The respondent/defendant submitted that in their replication the
applicants/plaintiffs make reference
to the respondent/defendant
specifically making utterances to the applicants that the RAF claims
had been instituted and was being
followed up. The respondent
contended that it is an established principle that if a plaintiff in
his particulars of claim alleges
breach of contract, and that is
sufficiently answered in a plea, the plaintiff cannot in his
replication alter the basis of his
claim to one of fraud
[1]
.
[18]
Similarly in this matter, the applicants/plaintiffs make the
allegation of misrepresentation
made to him by the
respondent/defendant which do not appear in the particulars of claim.
The applicant’s/plaintiffs response
is not a response to the
amended plea, given that the respondent/defendant has long denied
having accepted a mandate to assist
the applicants/plaintiffs in
their RAF claims. The amended plea merely gave the details thereof.
In the applicant’s/plaintiff’s
submissions, this was a
misrepresentation on the part of the respondent/defendant. In any
event, it was said, in terms of Rule
25 of the Uniform Rules of
Court, replication is only necessary when the plaintiff intends: (i)
admitting allegations in the plea;
(ii) admitting [confessing] but at
the same time avoiding allegations in the plea; (iii) responding to a
special defence such as
one based on prescription; (iv) and when
plaintiff intends disputing allegations in the plea. The absence of a
replication essentially
amounts to a denial of all the allegations in
the plea.
[19]
As stated above in its replication the applicants/plaintiffs should
have been restricted to answering
the allegations made by the
respondent/defendant in its plea. The applicants/plaintiffs may not
introduce a fresh claim or a fresh
cause of action. The
respondent/defendant repeatedly contended that the
applicants/plaintiffs seek to expand and increase the ambit
of its
case or it introduced a fresh cause of action. In response to these
submissions, the applicants/plaintiffs stated that,
if the amendment
is allowed, the respondent/defendant is at liberty to file an amended
plea.
[20]
In such circumstances, the applicant’s/plaintiff’s
approach cannot be corrected. It is
trite that the
applicants/plaintiffs who wishes to introduce a new cause of action
after the defendant has delivered its plea,
the correct course is to
apply for an amendment of his summons
[2]
.
It then follows that the applicants/plaintiffs may not be allowed to
effect amendments which may be different from its initial
case
through the back door, that is at replication stage. The
respondent/defendant is correct that the amendment sought is not
in
response to an allegation by the respondent/defendant in its plea, as
amended. As a consequence thereof, new allegations may
be made in
reply only when they are called for by the plea. A replication which
does introduce a fresh cause of action is known
as a “
departure
”
and is bad
[3]
.
[21]
In any event, the respondent/defendant had already pleaded on the
nature of the mandate that
was given to it by the
applicants/plaintiffs. If, for instance they intended to
revisit the same issue, an amendment should
have been sought to their
particulars of claim. As stated above, Rule 18 (6) of the
Uniform Rules of Court gives a proper
guidance that a party who
relies upon a contract shall state whether it is written or oral in
nature. And where, when and
by whom it was concluded. If it is
a written contract, a true copy thereof should be attached in the
pleading.
[22]
Sight should not be lost to the fact that the applicants/plaintiffs,
as stated in Rule 25 of
the Uniform Rules of Court answered to the
defendant’s plea with a replication. A replication may not
contradict the particulars
of claim or introduce a fresh claim or
cause of action not stated in the particulars of claim.
[23]
Uniform Rules of Court are there to regulate the conduct of
proceedings in Court. Pleadings that
are filed in preparation for
trial should conform to the rules. Courts should not allow a
situation whereby litigation would descend
to total chaos simply
because its rules were not adhered to. A cause of action should be
pleaded in the summons and particulars
of claim and not in
replication. A plea is only competent in response to summons and
particulars of claim or a stated case. It
was incorrect for the
applicants /plaintiffs to suggest that if the amendment to
replication is granted, the respondent could file
a plea. In fact,
that was an acknowledgement that they indeed introduced a new cause
of action in their replication.
[24]
Pleadings are the foundation of any litigation. In fact, they define
specific issues in dispute
between the parties and serve as a roadmap
for the evidence to be presented during trial. The issues in dispute
cannot be tucked
away somewhere in replication and from the main
pleadings.
[25]
The test on whether to grant or refuse an amendment is a question of
discretion. However, such
discretion has its own guiding
principles
[4]
and could be
summarized as follows:
(a) An amendment
cannot be granted for the mere asking – some explanation must
be offered;
(b) The applicant
must show that,
prima facie,
the amendment has something
deserving of consideration, a triable issue;
(c) The modern
tendency lies in favour of an amendment if such “facilitates
the proper ventilation of the dispute between
the parties”;
(d) The party
seeking the amendment must not be
mala fide
;
(e) It must not
cause injustice to the other side which cannot be compensated by
costs;
(f) The
amendment should not be refused simply to punish the applicant for
neglect;
(g) A mere loss of
time is no reason, in itself to refuse the application;
(h) If the
amendment is not sought timeously, some reason must be given for the
delay; and in general;
(i)
The Court leans in favour
of granting an amendment if doing so will ensure that justice is done
between the parties by deciding
the real issues between them
[5]
.
[26]
In this matter, if this Court were to grant an amendment in favour of
the applicants/ plaintiffs such
decision would cause grave prejudice
and injustice to the respondents/defendants. In fact, it would result
in confusion in determining
the triable issues as the
applicant’s/plaintiff’s case would be scattered around
the record of proceedings.
[27]
In the circumstances, it would be unnecessary to deal with the
applicant’s/plaintiff’s
issues for determination as
stated above. Such would have been competent if their replication was
prompted by the amended plea.
As a consequence, thereof, the
applicants/plaintiffs have not made out a case for the granting of an
amendment to their replication.
[28]
In the result, the application for an amendment of the applicant’s
replication is dismissed
with costs
MANTAME
J
WESTERN
CAPE HIGH COURT
COUNSEL
FOR THE APPLICANT: ADV JG VAN DER MERWE
INSTRUCTED
BY: A NORTJE/ - GERT NEL INC
COUNSEL
FOR THE RESPONDENT: ADV SHAINA NAIDOO
INSTRUCTED
BY: CILLIERS AND ASSOCIATES
[1]
United
Dominions Corporation (Rhodesia) Ltd v Van Eyssen 1961 (1) SA 53
(SR)
[2]
Faischt
v Colonial Government
(1903) 20 SC 211.
De Beer v Minister of Posts
and Telegraphs
1923 AD 653
at 657; United Dominions Corporation
(Rhodesia) Ltd v Van Eyssen
1961 (1) SA 53
(SR) at 58C.
Knightsbridge Investments (Pvt) Ltd vs Gurland
1964 (4) SA 273
(SR)
at 279C.
[3]
Joerning
v The Paarl Ophir Gold Mining and Milling Co Ltd
(1898) 5 Off Rep 9
,
Broad v Bloom 1903 TH 427.
[4]
Commercial
Union Assurance Co Ltd v Waymark NO
1995 (2) SA 73
(TK) at 77 F –
I, as approved in Affordable Medicines Trust and Others v Minister
of Health and Others
[2005] ZACC 3
;
2006 (3) SA 247
(CC) at para
[9]
; Erasmus,
Superior Court Practice at pages B1 -178 to B1 184 C
[5]
Caxton
Ltd v Reeva Forman (Pty) Ltd
[1990] ZASCA 47
;
1990 (3) SA 547
(A) at 565 G –
566 A
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