Case Law[2025] ZAKZDHC 29South Africa
Singh v Blue Label Distribution (Pty) Ltd and Another (D11087/2022) [2025] ZAKZDHC 29 (9 January 2025)
Judgment
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# South Africa: Kwazulu-Natal High Court, Durban
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## Singh v Blue Label Distribution (Pty) Ltd and Another (D11087/2022) [2025] ZAKZDHC 29 (9 January 2025)
Singh v Blue Label Distribution (Pty) Ltd and Another (D11087/2022) [2025] ZAKZDHC 29 (9 January 2025)
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sino date 9 January 2025
IN
THE HIGH COURT OF SOUTH AFRICA
KWAZULU-NATAL
LOCAL DIVISION, DURBAN
Case no: D11087/2022
In the matter between:
HEMANTH
RAJKUMAR SINGH
Applicant
and
BLUE
LABEL DISTRIBUTION (PTY) LTD
First Respondent
BARKERS
Second Respondent
ORDER
Having
read the papers and after hearing counsel, the following order is
made:
1.
The application for rescission is
dismissed.
2.
The first respondent is to pay the
applicant’s costs on scale C.
JUDGMENT
Date delivered: 9 January
2025
Masipa
J
### Introduction
Introduction
[1]
This is an application for the rescission of
an order granted on 1 February 2023 in favour of the first
respondent. The order declared the applicant personally liable for
the debts of Proud Heritage 217 (Pty) Ltd (in liquidation) under
s
424 of the Companies Act 61 of 1973 (the Companies Act). The
applicant seeks rescission under rule 42(1)
(a)
of the Uniform
Rules of Court and at common law, and is contending that the order
was erroneously sought and granted. The applicant
also seeks a
punitive costs order against the second respondent.
[2]
The respondents oppose the application, and
are contending that the applicant has failed to satisfy
the
jurisdictional requirements for rescission under rule 42(1)
(a)
and the common law. They further argue that the applicant delayed
unreasonably in bringing this application, which lacks merit.
### Factual
Background
Factual
Background
[3]
The order sought to be rescinded was granted
in the absence of the applicant during the hearing on
1 February
2023. According to the respondents, proper notice of the proceedings
was provided, and the applicant failed to appear
or oppose the
application. The applicant disputes this, arguing that the second
respondent gave an undertaking to adjourn the matter,
which was not
honoured, thereby rendering the proceedings procedurally irregular.
[4]
The applicant also contends that the
respondents failed to disclose the binding authority of
Minnaar
v Van Rooyen NO
,
[1]
which, according to the applicant, precludes the granting of a
default order without oral evidence in applications under s 424
of
the Companies Act.
[5]
The respondents argue that the order was
lawfully granted and maintain that no agreement for adjournment
existed. While they acknowledge an email dated 31 January 2023
referencing the removal of the matter from the roll, they contend
that this communication did not constitute an unconditional agreement
not to proceed with the application.
### Issues for
Determination
Issues for
Determination
[6]
The issues for determination are as follows:
(a)
Whether the applicant has met the jurisdictional requirements for
rescission under rule 42(1)
(a)
, specifically whether the order
was granted in his absence and whether it was erroneously granted.
(b)
Whether the applicant has shown ‘good cause’ for
rescission under the common law by
providing a reasonable explanation
for his default and demonstrating the existence of a bona fide
defence with prospects of success.
(c)
Whether the application was brought within a reasonable time.
(d)
Whether the applicant is entitled to a punitive costs order against
the second respondent.
### Analysis
Analysis
[7]
Rule 42(1)
(a)
provides for rescission
where an order was ‘erroneously sought or erroneously granted
in the absence of any party affected
thereby.’ The applicant
must satisfy two jurisdictional requirements:
(a)
The order was granted in his absence; and
(b)
The order was erroneously granted.
[8]
The Constitutional Court in
Zuma
v Secretary of the Judicial Commission of Inquiry into Allegations of
State Capture
[2]
clarified that ‘absence’ under rule 42(1)
(a)
refers to procedural exclusion, not voluntary absence despite proper
notice. In this case, the respondents demonstrated that the
applicant
was duly notified of the proceedings. Despite the email, nothing
prevented the applicant from attending court and ensuring
that their
interests were protected.
[9]
On the second requirement, the applicant
contends that the order was erroneously granted due to the
court’s
lack of awareness of binding authority being
Minnaar
.
However,
Minnaar
is distinguishable. That case involved an unopposed trial under rule
39(1), where no evidence was led. In contrast, this matter
concerns
an application under s 424, supported by affidavits presenting prima
facie evidence of the applicant’s alleged misconduct.
The
failure to present
Minnaar
to the court does not render the order ‘erroneous’ under
rule 42(1)
(a)
.
[10]
To succeed at common law, the applicant must show
‘good cause,’ which entails:
(a)
A reasonable and acceptable explanation for his default; and
(b)
A bona fide defence with prospects of success (
Chetty
v Law Society, Transvaal
1985 (2) SA 756 (A)).
[3]
[11]
The applicant has provided no explanation for his
failure to oppose the application. He relies on the email
correspondence from 31 January 2023 as evidence of an undertaking not
to proceed. The email explicitly referenced an intention
to seek
directions regarding affidavits and provided an unqualified guarantee
against proceeding with the application. Accordingly,
so argued the
applicant, the first respondent’s legal representatives had an
obligation to bring the contents of the email
of 31 January 2023 to
the attention of the court. This would have explained the applicant’s
non-appearance and allowed the
court to exercise its discretion
adequately.
[12]
I do not agree with the respondents’
contention that they were entitled to seek judgment on the basis
that
the applicant was in default, nor with their assertion that the
matter had become unopposed. The second respondent informed
the court
that the applicant was out of time to file an answering affidavit.
Despite this, the respondents sought to have the matter
adjourned to
10 March 2023, a date to be allocated by the Registrar of the Court.
However, the respondents, acting in bad faith,
subsequently elected
to proceed with the matter on an unopposed basis and obtained
judgment by default, notwithstanding the email
undertaking to have
the matter postponed.
[13]
It is evident that, until the court remarked on the applicant being
out of time, the respondents had been
intent on seeking an
adjournment. Following the court’s observations, the matter was
stood down to allow the first respondent’s
counsel to obtain
instructions. When the matter was recalled, a draft order,
substantially identical to the relief sought in the
notice of motion,
was handed up, and the order was granted as sought.
[14]
Regarding
Minnaar
,
the court in that case emphasized the necessity of oral evidence to
substantiate claims under s 424 of the Companies Act. However,
unlike
Minnaar
,
where no evidence was led, such as in the present case which involved
the filing of affidavits containing prima facie proof of
the
applicant’s conduct. As stated earlier the current matter is
distinguishable from
Minaar
as
evidence was given under oath. The applicant has failed to
demonstrate that his alleged defence has any reasonable prospect of
success since all relied on in his rescission related to
Minaar
to
prove that he had a bona fide defence.
[15]
Although rule 42(1) does not prescribe a specific
time limit, rescission must be sought within a reasonable
period.
[4]
The order was granted on 1 February 2023, yet the applicant filed
this application several months later without any explanation
for the
delay. This unreasonable delay further undermines the merits of the
application.
###
[16]
The applicant has failed to meet the
jurisdictional requirements for rescission under rule 42(1)
(a)
or to establish ‘good cause’ under the common law. The
application is further undermined by the unreasonable delay
in its
filing and the absence of a bona fide defence.
###
### Costs
Costs
[17]
The applicant seeks a punitive costs order against
the second respondent on the basis of alleged misconduct.
However, I
find that there is insufficient evidence to substantiate the
allegations of impropriety. The record reflects that the
decision for
the matter to proceed was made by the court, and the matter was stood
down for the purpose of obtaining instructions.
There is no evidence
to indicate the source from which the instructions to proceed
ultimately emanated. Accordingly, the punitive
costs order sought by
the applicant is not justified.
[18]
Nonetheless, I am of the view that the respondents acted in bad faith
by proceeding with the matter in contravention
of the undertaking
previously provided. Such conduct warrants the imposition of a costs
order against the respondents, notwithstanding
that the application
for rescission is unsuccessful. In light of the circumstances, the
costs shall be awarded on the highest permissible
scale.
###
Order:
[19]
In light of the above, the following is ordered:
- The
application for rescission is dismissed.
The
application for rescission is dismissed.
- The
respondent is ordered to pay the applicant’s costs onscale
C.
The
respondent is ordered to pay the applicant’s costs on
scale
C.
MBS
Masipa J
APPEARANCE
DETAILS
:
For
the Applicant:
L
B Broster SC
Instructed
by:
Rakesh
Maharaj & Company, KwaDukuza
For
the Respondents:
J
L Miranda
Instructed
by:
Bakers
Attorneys
Matter
heard on:
14
November 2024
Reasons
for Judgment delivered on:
9
January 2025
[1]
Minnaar
v Van Rooyen NO
[2015]
ZASCA 114
;
2016 (1) SA 117
(SCA) (
Minnaar
).
[2]
Zuma v
Secretary of the Judicial Commission of Inquiry into Allegations of
State Capture, Corruption and Fraud in the Public Sector
Including
Organs of State and others
[2021] ZACC 28; 2021 (11) BCLR 1263 (CC).
[3]
Chetty
v Law Society, Transvaal
1985 (2) SA 756 (A).
[4]
Gcasamba
v Mercedes-Benz Financial Services SA (Pty) Ltd and another
2023 (1) SA 141
(FB).
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