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# South Africa: South Gauteng High Court, Johannesburg
South Africa: South Gauteng High Court, Johannesburg
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[2025] ZAGPJHC 275
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## E.S v J.H.C.S (2022/17221)
[2025] ZAGPJHC 275 (13 March 2025)
E.S v J.H.C.S (2022/17221)
[2025] ZAGPJHC 275 (13 March 2025)
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sino date 13 March 2025
SAFLII
Note:
Certain
personal/private details of parties or witnesses have been
redacted from this document in compliance with the law
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SAFLII
Policy
REPUBLIC
OF SOUTH AFRICA
IN
THE HIGH COURT OF SOUTH AFRICA
GAUTENG
LOCAL DIVISION, JOHANNESBURG
Case
Number: 2022/17221
(1)
REPORTABLE: NO
(2)
OF INTEREST TO OTHER JUDGES: NO
(3)
REVISED: YES
13
Mar 2025
In
the matter between:
E[...]
S[...]
Plaintiff / Applicant
and
J[...]
H[...] C[...] S[...]
Defendant / Respondent
JUDGMENT
Introduction
[1]
This is an application by the applicant
(whom I will refer to as Mrs S[...]) for an order that -
a.
a notice of bar delivered on 19 September
2023 by the respondent (whom I will refer to as Mr S[...]) be
uplifted (the “notice
of bar”); and
b.
Mrs S[...] be permitted to amend her
particulars of claim in accordance with her notice of intention to
amend dated 27 September
2023.
Background
[2]
At
the heart of this dispute is an order made by Fevrier J on 13 August
2004
[1]
in which the learned
judge ordered that -
a.
the marriage between Mrs S[...] and Mr
S[...] be dissolved; and
b.
a deed of settlement (which was attached to
the order and marked “X”) “
is
made binding
”.(the “deed of
settlement”).
[3]
On 5 May 2023, more than 18 years after the
order made by Fevrier J, Mrs S[...] launched proceedings against Mr
S[...] by way of
a combined summons and particulars of claim (the
“original particulars of claim”).
[4]
In the original particulars of claim, Mrs
S[...] asked for an order that a certain paragraph 3. of the deed of
settlement be deleted
and replaced by other wording formulated by
her.
[5]
In the deed of settlement Mr S[...] was the
plaintiff and Mrs S[...] was the defendant. The relevant provisions
of clause 3.1 provide
(replacing the “Plaintiff” and
“Defendant” with the terminology used in this judgment) –
3.1.1 The
aforementioned property is currently registered in the name of [Mrs
S[...]]. It is hereby agreed that this property be
transferred to [Mr
S[...]] within a period of ten (10) years and that all Transfer fees
be paid by [Mr S[...]] subject to the following
conditions.
3.1.1.1. that the bond
currently registered against the property be paid in full by [Mr
S[...]]
3.1.1.2. and that
monthly instalments be paid before the 5th of each month
3.1.1.3 that no
further bonds be registered against the property within the
aforementioned period
3.1.1.4. in the event
[Mr S[...]] settling the bond within a period of ten (10) year, he
shall be entitled to transfer the property
into his name under the
conditions set.
3.1.2 …
3.1.3 Upon transfer of
the property into the name of [Mr S[...]] shall make payment to [Mrs
S[...]] of one third of the total rental
income in respect of the
property (excluding disbursements) on a monthly basis.
[6]
The genesis of the current proceedings was
a successful exception Mr S[...] took to Mrs S[...]’s original
particulars of claim.
This exception was brought on the basis that
the particulars of claim did not disclose a valid cause of action.
This exception
was upheld by Mdalana-Mayisela J on 1 August 2023 and
Mrs S[...] was given 30 days to amend her particulars of claim. The
30 day
period expired on 13 September 2023.
[7]
The notice of bar referred to in para [1]a
above was delivered on 19 September 2023. In the
notice, Mr S[...] called upon Mrs S[...] to deliver her amended
particulars of
claim (as she had been ordered to do by
Mdalana-Mayisela on 1 August 2023) within 5 days from the date of the
notice, failing which
Mrs S[...] was to be ipso facto barred from
doing so.
[8]
Mrs S[...]’s notice (in terms of rule
28(1)) of her intention to amend her particulars of claim was
delivered on 27 September
2023. Mr S[...] objected to the proposed
amendment on 5 October 2023 on the basis that proposed amendment was
excipiable.
[9]
On 4 December 2023, Mrs S[...] launched her
application to seek upliftment of the notice of bar and to be granted
leave to effect
her proposed amendment.
[10]
In the meantime, on 26 October 2023, Mr
S[...] had delivered to Mrs S[...] an application for absolution from
the instance. In Mrs
S[...]’s application of 4 December 2023,
Mrs S[...] also opposed the application for absolution.
Preliminary issue
[11]
Mrs S[...] requests an order that the
notice of bars should be uplifted and her proposed amendment be
allowed and the matter thereafter
proceed on its merits.
[12]
In so doing, Mrs S[...] relies on rule
42(1)(b) which provides –
The court may, in
addition to any other powers it may have, mero motu or upon the
application of any party affected, rescind or
vary—
…
(b) an order or
judgment in which there is an ambiguity, or a patent error or
omission, but only to the extent of such ambiguity,
error or omission
…
[13]
In the alternative, Mrs S[...] argues that
the court has inherent jurisdiction to clarify or supplement its
orders where necessary.
[14]
Mr S[...] argues that Mrs S[...]’s
reliance on the provisions of rule 42(1)(b) is misplaced. Mr S[...]
argues that the deed
of settlement was not the product of any
judicial pronunciation but was rather a private agreement that was
concluded between the
parties to regulate the proprietary
consequences of their intended divorce at the time.
[15]
I do not think this is correct. Clause 7 of
the deed of settlement provides –
7. ORDER OF
COURT
Subject to and
conditional on the granting of a final Order of Divorce and subject
to the above honourable Court so ordering, this
agreement is to be
made an Order of Court.
[16]
In the court order Fevrier J stated –
IT IS ORDERED –
1.
The marriage is dissolved,
2.
The deed of Settlement (marked “X”) is made binding.
[17]
Given the context and the wording of the
deed of settlement itself, it is my opinion that the deed of
settlement was made an order
of court by the learned judge. The order
meant that the deed of settlement was made binding ‘as an order
of court’.
[18]
I therefore proceed with this judgment on
the basis that Mrs S[...] is correct in relying on Rule 42(1)(b) as
the basis for seeking
an amendment to the court order and deed of
settlement.
Removal of the bar
[19]
It is trite that a party who has been
barred from pleading may apply to court for a removal of bar and, in
such a case, the provisions
of rule 27 apply.
[20]
A court has a wide discretion to remove a
bar but a defaulting party cannot claim as of right to be allowed to
remove a bar. It
is an indulgence resting in the discretion of the
court on good cause shown.
[21]
The courts have not attempted to formulate
an exhaustive definition of what constitutes good cause because to do
so would hamper
unnecessarily the exercise of the discretion.
[22]
In
the leading case of Smith NO v Brummer NO
[2]
the court, after a review of the authorities and a reaffirmation of
its wide discretion, stated that the courts are inclined to
grant
applications for removal of bar where -
a.
a reasonable explanation for the delay is
forthcoming;
b.
the application is bona fide;
c.
there has not been a reckless or
intentional disregard of the rules of court;
d.
the applicant's case is not obviously
without foundation and facts must be set out that demonstrate this;
e.
the other party is not prejudiced to an
extent which cannot be rectified by a suitable order as to costs.
[23]
It is now trite that condonation cannot be
had for the mere asking. A party seeking condonation must make out a
case entitling it
to the court's indulgence. It must show sufficient
cause and the applicant must file an affidavit dealing with all the
matters
which the applicant wishes the court to take into account in
deciding whether or not to remove the bar.
[24]
Bearing all these factors in mind I am not
satisfied the bar should be removed. In coming to this conclusion I
take into account
the following matters:
a.
There has been an 18 year delay between the
granting the divorce order and the institution of court proceedings
to attempt to vary
that order.
b.
Mrs S[...], in her proposed replacement
particulars of claim, requests an order, under the auspices of rule
42(1)(b), to introduce
a new clause 3.1.4 to the deed of settlement –
Should [Mr S[...]]
fail to Comply with any of the terms stipulated in Paragraph 3.1, the
property described as Eagle's Nest 3 will
remain the exclusive
property of [Mrs S[...]] and [Mrs S[...]] will be entitled to any and
all income generated by and on the property.
In
order to succeed under rule 42(1)(b), the omission of this clause
3.1.4 must be attributable to the court. In other words, the
judgment
must not reflect the court’s intention and that fact must be
patent
[3]
. This clause 3.1.4 is
a clause to be included in the deed of settlement. Its omission
cannot be attributed to the court. In addition,
it is simply not a
patent omission.
c.
One of the conditions in clause 3.1 was
that Mr S[...] settle the bond over the property within a period of
ten years. The uncontroverted
evidence under oath by Mr S[...] in
these proceedings is that he did pay off the bond within 10 years.
d.
Mrs S[...]’s founding affidavit in
the application to uplift the notice of bar was deposed to by Mrs
S[...]’s attorney.
There was no confirmatory affidavit by Mrs
S[...] herself. Mrs S[...]’s attorney alleges that a letter
(which she attaches
as annexure “E4” to her affidavit)
was crucial as far as proceeding with the application to effect the
amendment of
Mrs S[...]’s particulars of claim. Mrs S[...]’s
attorney alleges that she only managed to recover a copy of the
letter
over the weekend of 2 December 2023. This letter, from Mr
S[...]’s attorneys to Mrs S[...], is dated 8 October 2021. It
is
a letter of demand requiring Mrs S[...] to comply with her
obligations under the deed of settlement. It is not apparent nor is
it explained why this letter was crucial to proceeding with the
application for amendment. The letter is not referred to in Mrs
S[...]’s proposed amended particulars of claim. No other reason
is given why the application for leave to amend was not brought
timeously.
[25]
In summary, Mrs S[...] has not set out
facts to support and has not convinced me that -
a.
there is a reasonable explanation for the
delay;
b.
the application is bona fide;
c.
Mrs S[...]’s case made out in the
proposed amendment has even an arguable foundation.
[26]
I therefore decline to uplift the notice of
bar.
Absolution from the
instance
[27]
Mr
S[...] submits that, should Mrs S[...] not succeed in her application
for removal of the bar, then Mr S[...]’s application
for
absolution from the instance must succeed. This is because Mrs
S[...]’s particulars of claim dated 22 May 2022 have been
struck out. Mrs S[...] has been barred from amending her pleadings
further and there is accordingly no pleading supporting Mrs
S[...]’s
claim. This situation is similar to the case where a party had been
ordered to deliver a pleading within a specific
period of time but
then fails to do so. In such a situation the opposing party’s
remedy is to deliver a Notice of Bar followed,
in the event of
continued inaction, by an application for absolution. For this
proposition Mr S[...] relies on Woolf v Zenex Oil
(Pty) Ltd
[4]
.
[28]
In Woolf, the court was dealing with the
situation where a party was in default in filing the declaration. The
court was dealing
with a (simple) summons for a debt or liquidated
amount. In such a case, the summons itself sets out, in concise
terms, plaintiff’s
cause of action. When absolution is granted
here, it is absolution from the concise cause of action set out in
the summons. The
position is different with a combined summons
because, when the particulars of claim are set aside, there is
nothing in the summons
to identify the cause of action from which
absolution is granted.
[29]
This
issue was raised in a different context in Group Five Building Ltd v
Government of the Republic of South Africa (Minister of
Public Works
and Land Affairs)
[5]
where the
court held –
…
.
an exception successfully taken to a declaration may leave the
summons standing as an “empty husk” to sustain the
action; but that in the case of a combined summons the setting aside
of the particulars of claim as a consequence of a successful
exception causes the whole action to fall away because the summons
can have no existence independent of the particulars of claim.
It
would seem to be a corrollary (sic) to these propositions that when
an exception is successfully taken to the particulars of
claim in a
combined summons on the ground that no cause of action is disclosed,
there is no room for the grant of leave to amend
the particulars.
This, in my opinion, does not constitute the law and practice of our
courts …
The court went on to
grant the appellant leave to amend.
[30]
In the present case, Mrs S[...] is barred
from amending her particulars of claim. This may mean that the whole
cause of action falls
away because the summons can have no existence
independent of the particulars of claim. This has the result that the
granting of
an order of absolution from the instance would have no
practical effect.
[31]
Despite this, in the circumstances of this
matter where a plaintiff has been barred from amending the
particulars of claim, it does
seem to be the practice of the courts
to grant an order of absolution from the instance. The effect is the
same - either the order
renders the summons non-existent or the
summons ceases to exist by operation of law.
Costs
[32]
Mr S[...] has requested that Mrs S[...] be
ordered to pay the costs of the suit, including the costs of her
application for the
removal of the notice of bar and for leave to
amend, as well as of Mr S[...]’s application for absolution
from the instance,
such costs to be taxed on the party and party
scale, with the costs of counsel to be taxable on scale B.
[33]
Mr S[...] has been successful in these
proceedings and is entitled to costs.
[34]
Rule
67A permits a court to exercise control over the maximum rate at
which counsel’s fees can be recovered under a party
and party
costs award. As stated by Wilson J
[6]
–
the
approach to setting a scale of costs under Rule 67A (3) should be,
first, to identify the appropriate scale (“A”,
“B”
or “C”) in light of the importance, value and complexity
of the case, and then consider whether, because
of inartful or
unethical conduct of the nature identified in Rule 67A (2), that
scale should be reduced, such that the successful
party should not be
able to recover counsel’s costs to the extent that they would
otherwise have been entitled.
[35]
Taking these factors into account I do not
think an award of costs on scale B is justified in this case.
Order
In the result I make the
following order –
A.
Mrs S[...]’s (plaintiff / applicant)
application for the removal of the notice of bar and application for
leave to amend are
hereby dismissed;
B.
Absolution from the instance is hereby
granted in favour of Mr S[...] (defendant / respondent) in respect of
the action Mrs S[...]
(plaintiff / applicant) has instituted against
him under the above case number;
C.
Mrs S[...] (plaintiff / applicant) is
ordered to pay the costs of the suit, including the costs of her
application for the removal
of the notice of bar and for leave to
amend, as well as of Mr S[...]’s (defendant / respondent)
application for absolution
from the instance, such costs to be taxed
on the party and party scale, with the costs of counsel to be taxable
on scale A
A MITCHELL
Acting Judge of the High
Court
This judgment is handed
down electronically by circulation to the parties or their legal
representatives by email, by uploading
it to the electronic file of
this matter on Caselines, and by publication of the judgment to the
South African Legal Information
Institute. The date for hand-down is
deemed to be 13 March 2025.
HEARD
ON:
19 February
2025
DECIDED
ON:
13 March 2025
For
Plaintiff
Counsel
Adv L
K Van der Merwe
082
747 4287
Attorneys
Van
Andel Brink Attorneys
012
335 4464
vabatt@gmail.co.za
Ref:
Mrs E Van Andel-Brink
For
Defendant:
Counsel
Adv M
W Verster
082
885 7323
marius@lawmva.co.za
Attorneys
Marius
Verster & Associates Inc
011
453 0125
james@lawmva.co.za;
tershelene@lawmva.co.za
Ref:
Mr J Mannering / Ms T Rajkumar
[1]
On the face of it the order was granted on 13 August 2004. There is
a stamp by the registrar on the copy of the court order forming
part
of this record which is dated 4 April 2008. Mrs S[...] alleges in
her particulars of claim that the divorce order was granted
on 4
April 2008. This seems wrong and I assume for the purposes of this
judgment that the order was granted on 13 August 2004.
Nothing turns
on this.
[2]
1954 (3) SA 352
(O)
[3]
Erasmus, Civil Procedure in the Superior Courts, B42.5
[4]
1999 (1) SA 652
(W) at 654F-G
[5]
[1993] 2 All SA 127 (A)
[6]
Mashavha v Enaex Africa (Pty) Ltd and Others
2025 (1) SA 466
(GJ)
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