Case Law[2025] ZAGPJHC 529South Africa
Civil and Power Generation Projects (Pty) Ltd v MHI Power ZAF (Pty) Ltd and Another (2023/079557) [2025] ZAGPJHC 529 (6 May 2025)
High Court of South Africa (Gauteng Division, Johannesburg)
6 May 2025
Judgment
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## Civil and Power Generation Projects (Pty) Ltd v MHI Power ZAF (Pty) Ltd and Another (2023/079557) [2025] ZAGPJHC 529 (6 May 2025)
Civil and Power Generation Projects (Pty) Ltd v MHI Power ZAF (Pty) Ltd and Another (2023/079557) [2025] ZAGPJHC 529 (6 May 2025)
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sino date 6 May 2025
REPUBLIC
OF SOUTH AFRICA
IN
THE HIGH COURT OF SOUTH AFRICA
GAUTENG
DIVISION, JOHANNESBURG
Case
Number: 2023-079557
(1)
REPORTABLE: NO
(2)
OF INTEREST TO OTHER JUDGES: NO
(3)
REVISED: YES
6
May 2025
In
the matter between:
CIVIL
AND POWER GENERATION PROJECTS (PTY) LTD
Applicant
and
MHI
POWER ZAF (PTY)
LTD
First Respondent
ANDRE
ROBERT GAUTSCHI N.O.
Second Respondent
JUDGMENT
CRUTCHFIELD J
[1]
The applicant, Civil and Power Generation
Projects (Pty) Ltd, seeks a review and the setting aside of the
awards of the arbitrator,
the second respondent before me, in terms
of section 33(1)(a), (b) and/or (c) of the Arbitration Act 42 of
1965 (“the
Act”). The first respondent, MHI Power ZAF
(Pty) Ltd, seeks the dismissal of the applicant’s review
application and
an order in terms of the first respondent’s
counterapplication, that various awards of the second respondent be
made orders
of court and that the award of a cost consultant also be
made an order of court under s31(1) of the Act, being:
a.
The interim award made on 6 July 2021;
b.
The merits award made on 4 March 2022;
c.
The final quantum award made on 30 June
2023; and
d.
The bill of costs taxed and dated 13 June
2023.
[2]
The second respondent, the arbitrator, Mr
André Robert Gautschi
N.O.
,
did not participate in the review application and abides the decision
of this court.
[3]
Paragraph 1 of the applicant’s notice
of motion provides for an order reviewing and setting aside all
aspects of the award
of the second respondent dated 30 June
2023, in terms of s33(1)(b) and/or (c) of the Act.
[4]
Two alternatives, as well as ancillary
relief, are also claimed by the applicant together with costs of the
application in terms
of the notice of motion.
[5]
The second respondent’s award dated
30 June 2023, is referred to in the papers as the “quantum
award,” this
being the award in respect of which the applicant
seeks the review and setting aside in terms of paragraph 1 of the
applicant’s
notice of motion.
[6]
The second respondent in fact issued four
awards through the process of the arbitration between the parties,
being the retention
award dated 10 February 2021, the
clarification award dated 5 March 2021, the merits award dated
4 March 2022 and
the quantum award dated 30 June 2023.
[7]
Whilst the applicant attacks the
clarification and merits awards in these proceedings, it is only the
quantum award that the applicant
seeks to be reviewed and set aside.
[8]
The applicant’s application stands on
two legs – firstly; that the arbitrator, the second respondent,
did not have jurisdiction
to entertain and determine the first
respondent’s counterclaim, and secondly, that the arbitrator
made himself guilty of
misconduct and gross irregularities and that
he exceeded his powers in terms of s33(1)(a), (b) or (c) of the Act.
The applicant
contends that the second respondent did not have
jurisdiction to entertain and determine the first respondent’s
counterclaim
and that the onus remains on the first respondent to
prove that the second respondent had jurisdiction to deal with the
counterclaim.
[9]
The applicant opposes the first
respondent’s counterapplication that the awards aforementioned,
be made orders of court, and
contends that all of the awards made
after the retention award on 10 February 2021, must be set
aside. As stated by me already,
whilst the applicant attacks the
clarification and merits awards, the notice of motion seeks that only
the quantum award be reviewed
and set aside.
[10]
The essence of the applicant’s
argument is that the first respondent’s counterclaim was not
included in the disputes
that were referred to arbitration by the
High Court under case number 90571/2019. The applicant, in argument
before me, disputed
the second respondent’s jurisdiction to
deal with the counterclaim. The applicant contended that the
retention award, in
any event, determined the first respondent’s
counterclaim raised in the arbitration, after which the arbitrator
was
functus officio,
that
the arbitrator did not have jurisdiction to permit the first
respondent to pursue its counterclaim on grounds that did not
form
part of the High Court application under case number 90571/2019, and
that the arbitrator had no jurisdiction to allow a new
basis to
pursue a counterclaim in the arbitration.
[11]
The first respondent raised three separate
and self-standing grounds as bases for the dismissal of the
applicant’s attack
on the arbitrator’s jurisdiction to
determine the first respondent’s counterclaim. Firstly, that
the arbitrator was
clothed with the necessary jurisdiction and power
to determine the first respondent’s counterclaim. Secondly,
that the application
was brought by the applicant outside of the six
week time period provided by the Act, in the absence of an
application to extend
the time period on cause shown. Thirdly, that
the applicant is perempted from raising the jurisdiction defence
because the applicant
acquiesced, by its objective conduct, in the
jurisdiction of the arbitrator to determine the first respondent’s
counterclaim.
I shall deal with the first respondent’s grounds
as necessary in due course.
[12]
I turn to deal with the issues before me.
[13]
The applicant’s attack on the
arbitrator’s jurisdiction in respect of the first respondent’s
counterclaim is framed
as the absence of a counterclaim by the first
respondent in the papers before the High Court, which application
resulted in the
court order referring the matter to arbitration.
According to the applicant, the issues referred to arbitration in
terms of the
court order did not include the counterclaim by the
first respondent. The applicant contends that the dispute that the
High Court
referred to arbitration comprised only one issue –
being whether the first respondent, MHI, could set off against the
retention
amount due to the applicant and claimed by the applicant.
[14]
The
applicant’s application was aimed at claiming payment of
retention funds from the first respondent. The latter, the first
respondent, resisted the applicant’s claim to payment of the
retention monies with reference to the first respondent’s
significantly larger claim, against the applicant. The notices issued
by the first respondent to the applicant prior to the High
Court
application demonstrate that the first respondent was contemplating a
claim, indeed potentially a counterclaim, against the
applicant.
[1]
[15]
The origins of the applicant’s attack
on the second respondent’s jurisdiction to determine the first
respondent’s
counterclaim, lie in the court order granted by
Fabricius J referring the matter to arbitration (“the
order”).
[16]
The order referred the “disputes”
in terms of clause 20 of the conditions of subcontract, to
arbitration. The order
did not define the disputes or the issue or
issues or the claim or the defence that were being referred to
arbitration in terms
of the order. The referral to arbitration was
achieved in essentially broad strokes, with reference to the disputes
on the papers
before the High Court, being the applicant’s
claim for payment of the retention monies, and, the first
respondent’s
claim in respect of the standardisation of wages
overpayment (the “SOW overpayment”).
[17]
There
is no dispute between the parties before me that what served before
the High Court were disputed claims by both parties, the
one against
the other. It is irrelevant how these competing claims were
formulated, the first respondent’s claim being one
premised on
a set-off.
[2]
The applicant,
importantly, acknowledges the first respondent’s claim in the
High Court proceedings.
[3]
[18]
Furthermore, it is evident from the
arguments before me that the applicant did not object to the first
respondent’s counterclaim
being part of the arbitration
proceedings, being included in the arbitration and decided by the
arbitrator.
[19]
The
applicant’s objection to jurisdiction raised in reply to the
first respondent’s statement of defence,
[4]
reflects that the applicant’s objection was limited to defences
that were raised. No objection was brought to the first respondent’s
counterclaim. Furthermore, the applicant in its statement of
defence,
[5]
repeated paragraph 5
aforementioned of its reply.
[20]
Clearly, the applicant’s objection
did not comprise an objection to the arbitrator’s jurisdiction
in respect of the
first respondent’s counterclaim. The
applicant’s argument was that no counterclaim of the first
respondent could be
determined, but such an objection was not raised
by the applicant in the pleadings.
[21]
Additionally, the applicant requested the
separation of the applicant’s claim and the first respondent’s
counterclaim.
This was due, allegedly, to the complexity of the first
respondent’s counterclaim as against the relative simplicity of
the
applicant’s claim for payment of the retention monies. Be
that as it may, the arbitrator granted the separation and the
arbitration
proceeded accordingly.
[22]
The arbitrator, in dealing with the
retention award, was not asked to deal with the first respondent’s
counterclaim or any
aspect of the first respondent’s
counterclaim. Furthermore, the arbitrator, in determining the
retention award, did not deal
with any aspect of the first
respondent’s counterclaim. The arbitrator was not asked to deal
with any aspect of the counterclaim
during the course of the
proceedings that culminated in the retention award. The counterclaim
remained outside and separate from
the retention award proceedings.
That serves to reflect the parties’ mutual understanding that
the counterclaim was alive
and proceeding in due course, outside of
the retention award.
[23]
The retention award kept the counterclaim
undecided. That serves to put an end to the applicant’s
arguments of
res judicata
and
the arbitrator being
functus officio
.
Those arguments have no merit in the light of the counterclaim being
determined separately from the retention award.
[24]
The retention award did not deal with or
declare the notice in terms of clause 2.7 (“the clause 2.7
notice”) to be invalid.
The clarification award made it
apparent that the arbitrator dealt with the sufficiency of the clause
2.7 notice for purposes of
considering whether set-off should apply
in respect of the first respondent’s counterclaim.
[25]
The arbitrator, whilst invited by the
applicant to dismiss the first respondent’s counterclaim in
terms of the clarification
award proceedings, declined to do so. The
arbitrator stated that the counterclaim, although brought in terms of
an incorrect process,
effectively could live on.
[26]
The objective fact that the applicant
invited the arbitrator to dismiss the first respondent’s
counterclaim in terms of the
clarification award proceedings and that
the arbitrator declined to do so, stating that the first respondent
may yet have a valid
counterclaim and merely utilised a misguided
process, did not serve to nonsuit the first respondent. That
demonstrates unequivocally
that the counterclaim remained extant and
that both parties considered it to be valid and alive.
[27]
The arbitrator indicated in terms of the
clarification award that the counterclaim was active and could
proceed.
[28]
Accordingly, the arbitrator assumed and the
parties assumed, and relied upon the arbitrator’s obligation to
decide the counterclaim.
It was the arbitrator’s job and it was
within the arbitrator’s powers conferred on him by the parties,
to determine
and decide the first respondent’s counterclaim.
The arbitrator was required and clothed with jurisdiction to
determine the
counterclaim.
[29]
As
to the applicant’s argument that the arbitrator impermissibly
extended his jurisdiction, that argument is wrong in law.
The first
respondent referred to
Lebashe
Investment Group (Pty) Ltd and Another v Coral Lagoon Investments 194
(Pty) Ltd & Others,
[6]
particularly paragraphs 27 and 28 thereof. The court dealt with an
extension by an arbitrator of his powers and reiterated that
an
arbitrator “’exceeds his powers’ only by purporting
to exercise a power (that) he did not have: the erroneous
exercise of
a power that (the arbitrator) did have does not involve an excess of
power. An error of interpretation does not involve
an arbitrator
exceeding his powers.”
[7]
[30]
Accordingly,
the erroneous exercise of a power that an arbitrator does have, does
not equate to an impermissible extension of power,
as relied upon and
argued by the applicant before me. See in this regard the judgment of
the SCA in
Telcordia
Technologies Incorporated v Telkom SA Ltd
[8]
and referred to in
Lebashi.
[9]
[31]
An error of interpretation by an arbitrator
does not amount to an impermissible extension by an arbitrator of his
jurisdiction.
[32]
Thus, whether the arbitrator was incorrect
or not in respect of his interpretation of the clause 2.7 notice
requirements, and whether
those requirements were met or not, and
complied with the contractual requirements or not, is simply not an
issue before me.
[33]
The arbitrator was of the view that the
clause 2.7 notice was sufficient to survive the clarification award
proceedings and thus,
the determination in respect of the
counterclaim did not reflect an impermissible extension by the
arbitrator of his jurisdiction.
[34]
The counterclaim was brought by the first
respondent and referred to arbitration under the order of
Fabricius J. Furthermore,
it was within the power and the
jurisdiction of the arbitrator, as tasked by the parties, to decide
the counterclaim, as he duly
did. Accordingly, the applicant failed
to distinguish between the arbitrator’s power to decide, and,
the arbitrator deciding
his powers incorrectly.
[35]
The arbitrator, in deciding on the
sufficiency of the clause 2.7 notice, did not widen his jurisdiction.
The first respondent’s
amendment of its statement of defence
was in line with the arbitrator’s decision in the clarification
award. The first respondent
continued to rely on the same clause 2.7
notice dated 17 December 2019. The first respondent did not rely
on a new or a supplemented
clause 2.7 notice. The applicant pleaded
to the amended statement of defence and did not object to the
arbitrator’s jurisdiction
to determine the first respondent’s
counterclaim as formulated.
[36]
Thereafter, the first respondent requested
a separation of the merits and quantum in respect of the
counterclaim. At that stage,
the applicant’s claim in respect
of the retention was already determined under the retention award and
the first respondent
had already received payment of its monies. All
that was left before the arbitrator was the first respondent’s
counterclaim.
In those circumstances the applicant agreed to the
first respondent’s request for a separation of the merits and
the rand
value of the counterclaim. The parties requested the
arbitrator to make the award in respect of the separation by
agreement between
them. There was no objection by the applicant to
the arbitrator’s jurisdiction in respect of the counterclaim.
The arbitrator
heard the merits of the first respondent’s
counterclaim without any objection thereto by the applicant to his
jurisdiction
to do so, and without any reservation by the applicant
of the applicant’s rights in that regard.
[37]
It was only subsequent thereto, for the
first time, after the applicant changed its legal representatives,
that the applicant raised
the jurisdiction issue sought to be
advanced before me.
[38]
It is evident from the statements made by
me above, that the first respondent’s counterclaim was among
the disputes that were
referred by the High Court to arbitration in
terms of the order. The parties and the arbitrator accepted that the
counterclaim
was before the arbitrator as a dispute for determination
by the arbitrator and the parties and the arbitrator proceeded with
the
arbitration accordingly.
[39]
The fact that the counterclaim was premised
on a setoff and that that setoff was found to be a misguided
procedure, is irrelevant.
A setoff requires an underlying liquidated
claim. The point being that the first respondent advanced a
counterclaim and the fact
that that claim was subsequently found not
to be liquidated, is irrelevant.
[40]
In the circumstances, it is not necessary
for me to deal any further with the first respondent’s
arguments in respect of pre-emption,
as I find that the disputes
referred to arbitration in terms of the order of Fabricius J,
included the first respondent’s
counterclaim. Nor do I need to
deal with the first respondent’s argument that the applicant’s
review application was
brought outside of the time periods provided
in s33(2) of the Act.
[41]
Turning
to the second basis of the applicant’s claim in respect of the
conduct of the arbitrator, s33 of the Act limits the
grounds upon
which an arbitral award may be set aside. Court are loathe to
intervene in arbitral awards and in arbitration proceedings.
Litigants’ autonomy in choosing to resolve their disputes by
arbitration and in doing so, should be respected.
[10]
[42]
The grounds for intervention are limited to
misconduct, gross irregularity by the arbitrator and that the
arbitrator exceeded his
powers. The first respondent referred to an
article by former SCA judge of appeal Brandt JA, in which the
Learned Judge reiterated
that even a gross mistake of fact or law by
an arbitrator does not constitute misconduct envisaged in terms of
Section 33(1)(a)
of the Act. A court is not entitled to disturb the
outcome of an arbitration unless there is moral turpitude or
male
fides
on the part of the arbitrator.
Deliberate dishonesty is required. A
bona
fide
mistake, no matter how gross, will
not suffice to overturn the arbitrator’s decision.
[43]
Gross irregularity does not mean an
incorrect judgment. Gross irregularity refers not to the result but
to the method of a trial
such as an approach that deprived the
aggrieved party from adequately presenting its case, from having its
case fully and finally
determined. The applicant before me assured me
in argument that it did not seek to impugn the arbitrator’s
integrity, that
the impugned conduct, however, amounted to “mistakes”
on the arbitrator’s part, sufficient for the outcome to
be
reviewed.
[44]
The applicant did not allege, and, there
certainly was no basis for any allegation or even for a suggestion of
the arbitrator having
been deliberately dishonest or having been
male
fide
.
[45]
The attack on the arbitrator by the
applicant amounts to nothing more than criticisms of the manner in
which the arbitrator conducted
and regulated the arbitration
proceedings before him, and arrived at the decision that he reached.
[46]
The applicant enjoyed a full and proper
opportunity to ventilate its case fully, and as it considered
appropriate and was not prevented
from doing so.
[47]
The fact that the arbitrator dismissed the
applicant’s arguments does not provide a basis for the
arbitrator’s quantum
award to be reviewed and set aside.
[48]
In respect of the gross irregularity
complaint against the first respondent for failing to disclose
documents, the applicant sought
documents from the first respondent
and the first respondent resisted that disclosure. The parties argued
the issue before the
arbitrator who found in the first respondent’s
favour. Properly articulated arguments resulting in a judgment either
in favour
or against one or other of the parties, cannot be described
as a gross irregularity by the losing party, as contended by the
applicant
regarding the first respondent’s conduct. There is no
merit in the alleged gross irregularity complaint against the first
respondent.
[49]
In my view, there is no substance to the
applicant’s claims in respect of the conduct of the arbitrator
and the second leg
of the applicant’s argument in respect of
the review application must fail.
[50]
That, in effect, puts paid to the
applicant’s application.
[51]
I have found already that the attack on the
arbitrator’s jurisdiction was of no merit and the attack on the
arbitrator’s
conduct in terms of s33 of the Act, similarly,
must fail. There is no reason why the costs of the applicant’s
application
should not follow the order on the merits.
[52]
As to the first respondent’s claim
for condonation, the first respondent was late in filing its
answering affidavit by one
week and late in respect of delivering its
replying affidavit in the counter-application by three weeks. The
first respondent duly
requested extensions from the applicant in
respect of the late delivery but those requests were denied. The
delay in respect of
both affidavits was adequately explained by the
first respondent. The delays were for short periods and it is evident
that no prejudice
was caused to the applicant as a result of the
first respondent’s delays, which were not deliberate. This
because the applicant
did not take steps to progress the matter. The
first respondent was the party who took the necessary steps to bring
the application
to a hearing. Accordingly, the first respondent’s
late delivery of its answering affidavit in the main application and
its
replying affidavit in the counter-application is condoned.
[53]
As to the first respondent’s
counter-application that the awards aforementioned be made orders of
court, there is no merit
in the applicant’s opposition in terms
of the attack on the arbitrator’s jurisdiction and the attack
in terms of s33
of the Act.
[54]
The awards of the arbitrator are valid and
provide a proper basis for a court order. Given that I have found
against the applicant
in terms of the applicant’s review
application and that the awards of the arbitrator are proper and form
an adequate basis
for a court order, there is no reason for me not to
order that those awards be incorporated into a order of court.
[55]
In respect of the bill of costs, the first
respondent relied on a separate arbitration agreement appointing a
costs arbitrator.
The first respondent appointed a cost consultant
and the applicant also appointed a cost consultant. Those two cost
consultants,
on behalf of the parties respectively, appointed one Mr
Burt Coetzee to hear and determine the disputes between the parties
in
relation to the first respondent’s bill of costs. The said
Mr Coetzee accepted the appointment, effectively to act as a cost
arbitrator. The agreement was reduced to writing in terms of various
emails exchanged between the parties’ respective cost
consultants and Mr Coetzee. The applicant did not object to the
appointment of Mr Coetzee and the applicant’s representative
as
well as the representative of the first respondent participated fully
in the taxation process.
[56]
Mr Coetzee duly ruled on the disputes heard
before him and issued a signed ruling. The outcome of the taxation
process before Mr
Coetzee constitutes a valid arbitration award
pursuant to the appointment of Mr Coetzee, by agreement between the
parties, as a
cost arbitrator.
[57]
In the circumstances there is no cogent
basis as to why the ruling of Mr Coetzee should not be incorporated
in an order of this
court.
[58]
Accordingly, by reason of the
aforementioned, I grant the following order:
1.
Condonation is granted in favour of the
first respondent in respect of the late delivery by the first
respondent of its answering
affidavit in the main application and its
replying affidavit in the counter-application.
2.
The applicant’s review application is
dismissed with costs, including the costs of two counsel where two
counsel were employed,
with junior counsel on scale B and senior
counsel on scale C.
3.
The first respondent’s
counter-application is upheld; the interim award of the second
respondent made on 6 July 2021,
the merits award made on 4 March
2022, the final award made on 30 June 2023 and the bill of costs
dated 13 June
2023 are incorporated in terms of orders of this
court.
4.
The applicant is to pay the costs of the
counter-application, including the costs of two counsel where two
counsel were employed,
with junior counsel on scale B and senior
counsel on scale C.
I hand down the judgment.
CRUTCHFIELD
J
JUDGE OF THE HIGH
COURT
JOHANNESBURG
For
the Applicant: Adv L J Van Tonder SC and Adv D J Joubert instructed
by Liesel de Lange Inc.
For
the First Respondent: Adv JJ Reyneke SC and Adv CT Picas instructed
by Pinsent Masons Africa LLP.
Date
of Hearing: 2 and 3 December 2024.
Date
of Judgment: 6 May 2025.
[1]
See
in this regard annexure D at CaseLines 1-130; annexure E at
CaseLines 1-137; and annexure F at CaseLines 1-138.
[2]
CaseLines 01-12 paragraph 23.
[3]
CaseLines 03-33 paragraph 97.3.
[4]
CaseLines 01-351 paragraph 5 up to and including paragraph 5.3.
[5]
CaseLines 01-358.
[6]
Lebashe
Investment Group (Pty) Ltd and Another v Coral Lagoon Investments
194 (Pty) Ltd & Others
[2024] ZAGPJHC 117 (9 February 2024) (“
Lebashe”).
[7]
Telcordia
Technologies Incorporated v Telkom SA Ltd
[2006]
ZASCA 112
;
2007 (3) SA 266
(SCA) (“
Telcordia
”)
at para [52].
[8]
Id
.
[9]
Lebashi
note
6 above footnote 20.
[10]
Lufuno
Mphaphuli & Associates (Pty) Ltd v Andrews & Another
2009 (4) SA 529
(CC) at paras [219] and [235].
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