Case Law[2025] ZAGPJHC 632South Africa
N.S v A.D (2022/257) [2025] ZAGPJHC 632 (20 June 2025)
High Court of South Africa (Gauteng Division, Johannesburg)
20 June 2025
Headnotes
by the Constitutional Court in Helen Suzman Foundation v Judicial Service Commission[1] that the court does not have a discretion in this regard. The Constitutional Court held — “As to the antecedent question arising from rule 30A (1) whether there has, in fact, been non-compliance with the rules, there is no question of an exercise of discretion. The court must determine - as an objective question of fact or law -whether there has been non- compliance.”[2] 8. Rule 30A cannot be read in isolation though and Rule 30(3) states:
Judgment
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# South Africa: South Gauteng High Court, Johannesburg
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## N.S v A.D (2022/257) [2025] ZAGPJHC 632 (20 June 2025)
N.S v A.D (2022/257) [2025] ZAGPJHC 632 (20 June 2025)
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REPUBLIC
OF SOUTH AFRICA
IN
THE HIGH COURT OF SOUTH AFRICA
GAUTENG
DIVISION, JOHANNESBURG
CASE
NUMBER:
2022/257
(1)
REPORTABLE: YES
/
NO
(2)
OF INTEREST TO OTHER JUDGES: YES/
NO
(3)
REVISED:
YES
/NO
20/06/2025
In
the matter between:
N[…]
S[…]
Applicant
(Identity
number: 8[…])
and
A[…]
D[…]
Respondent
(Identity
number: 8[…])
JUDGMENT
LANGE
AJ
Introduction
1.
This is an opposed
interlocutory
application brought in terms of
Rule
30(2)(b) and Rule 30A
of the Uniform
Rules of Court.
Background
2.
The applicant (who is the applicant in
the main application and respondent in the counter application to
which this interlocutory
application relates) served a Notice in
terms of Rule 30(2)(b) and Rule 30A on the respondent on 12 February
2025
(the
Notice), in terms of which the respondent was afforded ten days
within which to remove the cause of the applicant’s complaint.
The respondent refused to do so.
3.
On Thursday 27 February 2025, the
applicant served a notice in terms of rule 30A with a supporting
affidavit on the respondent.
The respondent filed her notice of
intention to oppose on 13 March 2025 and her answering affidavit on 3
April 2025.
4.
The matter was thereafter set down on
the opposed family court motion roll and came before me on 22 May
2025.
Applicable
rules and law
5.
Rule 30A provides as follows:
“
(1)
Where a party fails to comply with these Rules or with a request made
or notice given pursuant thereto, any other party may
notify the
defaulting party that he or she intends, after the lapse of 10 days,
to apply for an order that such rule, notice or
request be complied
with or that the claim or defence be struck out.
(2)
Failing compliance within 10 days, application may on notice be made
to the court and the court may make such order thereon
as to it seems
meet.”
6.
Whilst it is beyond the scope of this judgment to set out in detail
all of the issues raised by the applicant in his notice
in terms of
rule 30(2)(b) and 30A read with rules 27(1), rules 28(1) and (2), and
rule 6(15), I wish to highlight the following
arguments advanced by
t
he
applicant:
a.
The respondent delivered a replying
affidavit
in
her counter application on 10 February 2025, which was
delivered
6
months
out
of
time
and
9
court days before the allocated date for the opposed hearing in the
Family Court on 24 February 2025.
b.
The respondent failed to properly seek
leave to extend the time periods and comply with the provisions of
rule 27 which are mandatory
and require a substantive application, on
notice, together with a supporting affidavit wherein a full and
reasonable explanation
is to be given for the delay.
c.
The respondent delivered a notice of
motion
together
with the above referred replying affidavit, which is in itself highly
irregular, in which the
respondent
seeks (a) to supplement various and unspecified previous affidavits,
(b) for condonation for the late filing of her affidavit
and (c) to
strike out annexures to the applicant's previously filed affidavits.
d.
The notice of motion is irregular and
not in compliance with the provisions of rules 6(15), 27 or 28 in
that it is not accompanied
by a supporting affidavit which is
required in terms of rules 6(15) and 27. Further, the applicant was
not afforded an opportunity
to deal with these issues raised by the
respondent nine court days before the allocated date for the hearing
of the main application.
e.
In the impugned notice of motion, the
respondent seeks an order to strike out annexures attached to the
applicant's founding affidavit
filed in 2022 and supplementary
affidavit filed in December 2024 without utilising and complying with
the provisions of rule 6(15)
in that she did not file a substantive
application to strike, nor did she file a supporting affidavit to
provide reasons/grounds
for such relief.
f.
There is a paragraph at the end of the
respondent’s replying affidavit, stating that:
"WHEREFORE
I pray for an order dismissing the Applicant's application with costs
on the attorney client scale and an order
directing the appointment
of forensic psychologist to investigate the Applicant's alienation of
Athena from me which costs of the
investigation are to be paid in
full by the Applicant and that the Applicant pays the costs of my
counterapplication”
, which is
not the relief sought by the respondent in her notice to her counter
application dated 12 June 2023. This is therefore
an amendment of the
respondent’s notice to her counter application and is not in
compliance with Rule 28 which sets out the
requirements should a
party wish to amend pleadings or a document.
7.
Ms Abro,
both in her heads of argument and in argument before me, made the
submission that this court must determine, as an objective
question
of law or fact, whether there has been non-compliance by the
respondent. It was held by the Constitutional Court in
Helen
Suzman Foundation v Judicial Service Commission
[1]
that
the court does not have a discretion in this regard. The
Constitutional Court held —
“
As to the
antecedent question arising from rule 30A (1) whether there has, in
fact, been non-compliance with the rules, there is
no question of an
exercise of discretion. The court must determine - as an objective
question of fact or law -whether there has
been non-
compliance.”
[2]
8.
Rule 30A cannot be read in isolation
though and Rule 30(3) states:
“
If
at the hearing of such application the court is of opinion that the
proceeding or step is irregular or improper, it may set it
aside in
whole or in part, either as against all the parties or as against
some of them, and grant leave to amend or make any such
order as to
it seems meet.”
9.
In
Afrocentrics
Projects and Services (Pty) Ltd t/a Innovative Distribution v State
Information Technology Agency
it was
stated that:
“
Rule
30(3) contemplates a two-stage process. A court must first satisfy
itself that the proceeding or step is irregular or improper.
If it is
so satisfied, it has the wide power to set the proceeding aside in
its entirety or in part, grant leave to amend or make
any order as it
deems fit. These are, no doubt, wide powers. Following its conclusion
that a step or proceeding is irregular or
improper, a court however,
is required to make an order “
[3]
10.
The Uniform Rules seek to regulate the
procedure relating to litigation and not the substance of the
pleadings. Any grievance
raised by a party in terms of rule 30
must relate to an alleged procedural irregularity in the conduct of
the litigation. If a
court finds a particular step to be irregular,
it has wide powers including the ability to afford the party against
whom the complaint
is raised an opportunity to remove the cause of
complaint. In the current matter, however, the respondent has
clearly taken
the stance that there is no irregularity and that
therefore there is nothing for her to remove.
11.
No explanation is proffered by the
respondent as to why she served a notice of set down without any
supporting affidavit. Whilst
I take cognisance of the fact that she
requested condonation for the late filing of the replying affidavit
in the replying affidavit
itself, she ought to have filed an
affidavit with the impugned notice of motion setting out the grounds
for the relief sought and
the replying affidavit ought to have been
an annexure to the application, which would have rendered her
compliant with the applicable
rules.
12.
Whilst this may have been overlooked by
the respondent’s legal representatives initially due to the
fact that, as the respondent
states, they prepared the replying
affidavit under some tight time constraints, once alerted to the
issue by the applicant’s
notice in terms of Rule 30(2)(b) and
30A read with rules 27(1), rules 28(1) and (2) and, 6(15); it would
have been prudent for
the respondent to withdraw the notice of motion
and replying affidavit and comply with the Uniform Rules of Court.
13.
The respondent also does not deal
satisfactorily with the other grounds raised by the applicant in his
notice in terms of Rule 30(2)(b)
and 30A read with rules 27(1), 28(1)
and (2) and 6(15).
14.
Neither the respondent’s heads of
argument nor the argument presented in court by Ms Metzer provided a
cogent and satisfactory
response as to why the respondent did not
remove the cause of complaint once alerted to it. Ms Metzger argued
that the applicant’s
Notice was not clear enough as to the
reasons for the Notice, however this is not borne out by a simple
reading of the Notice which
sets out, in detail, the paragraphs in
the replying affidavit to which the applicant objected, as well as
the rules which the respondent
had breached with regard to the notice
of motion and replying affidavit filed.
15.
When questioned about the
appropriateness of this application, when the subject matter of the
main application involves the best
interests of a minor child, Ms
Abro correctly stated that just because a matter is a family law
matter, it does not give litigants
license to simply ignore the rules
of court as this would lead to uncertainty and chaos. I take
her point, and I am of the
view that the application was necessary
and warranted.
16.
Whilst I am sympathetic to the
respondent’s feeling that she is litigating at a disadvantage
as the applicant is more moneyed
than she is, this is not a reason to
completely flout the rules of court. This is the sole reason
advanced by the respondent
regarding the complaint that her replying
affidavit was filed six months out of time. It is, with
respect, not sufficient.
It does not explain why the
respondent’s legal representative did not write to the
applicant’s legal representative
during this period and advise
them of the difficulties the respondent was facing in the
litigation.
17.
At the very least, when the respondent
received the application by the applicant for leave to file a
supplementary affidavit in
December 2024, or even on receipt of the
notice of set down on the opposed family court roll on 23 January
2025, it would have
behoved her to send a letter to the applicant’s
attorney of record and let her know that the respondent intended to
file
a replying affidavit and was just trying to gather the means to
do so. She also had the option of trying to find counsel to
represent her pro amico, but this option is not canvassed at all in
the answering affidavit.
18.
The respondent contends that the
applicant is trying to silence her; in this regard Ms Metzer
contended that by seeking
an order that the Respondent’s
affidavit filed on 10 February 2025 be “
set aside”
,
the applicant is attempting to proceed with his application to
terminate the respondent’s parental responsibilities and
rights
in respect of her daughter, Athena, on an unopposed basis. Ms
Abro, when questioned on this point, stated in oral
argument that the
applicant has no objection to the respondent filing an amended notice
of motion and filing a replying affidavit
but that this must be done
correctly, in terms of the rules of court, so that he is given an
equal opportunity to consider the
proposed amendments.
19.
The respondent further contends that it
is the applicant who is abusing the rules of court by “nit
picking”. However,
once again this is not borne out by
the common cause facts; it is clear that the applicant has complied
with all the rules of court,
at considerable cost to him, throughout
the application; in this regard, the applicant brought a substantive
application for leave
to file a supplementary affidavit in December
2024 and then on receipt of the applicant’s replying affidavit,
a mere nine
days before the scheduled date for the hearing of the
main application, the applicant’s attorney of record prepares
and,
two days later, serves, a notice in terms of rule 30 (2)(b) and
rule 30A alerting the respondent to the irregularities in the
impugned
notice of motion and replying affidavit.
20.
The applicant’s attorney of record
then also writes to the respondent’s attorney of record
requesting that they agree
to the postponement of the matter on 24
February 2025 but the respondent, inexorably refuses. This
forces the applicant to
then prepare and launch a comprehensive
application for a postponement and a costs order, which relief the
respondent opposes but
which relief was then granted to him by the
court.
21.
Rule
30 envisages that any irregular step complained of must cause
prejudice to the party seeking to set it aside. It is accepted
though, that even if a procedural step may be found to be irregular
but it presents no prejudice in the further conduct of the
case to
the party complaining thereof, there would be no need to set it
aside.
[4]
22.
In the present case, the late filing of
the replying affidavit has already been dealt with through the
applicant’s postponement
application and the costs order
granted against the respondent. I can see no further prejudice
to the applicant in allowing
the respondent’s replying
affidavit to stand. The only prejudice to the applicant would
come if the applicant was not
afforded an opportunity to respond
thereto. Any potential prejudice to the applicant is cured,
however, by giving him an
opportunity to deal with each of the
impugned allegations in the replying affidavit by filing a further
supplementary affidavit
in response to the respondent’s
replying affidavit.
23.
In any event, the applicant’s
complaints regarding the content of the replying affidavit are best
dealt with by the court
hearing the main application. It is
beyond the scope of this court to evaluate whether there are
allegations that are scandalous,
vexatious or irrelevant and
prejudice the applicant without considering the merits thereof.
Costs
24.
The issue of costs is a sensitive one.
Whilst in commercial matters it is the norm that costs follow the
result, in family law matters
there is a tendency not to grant costs
orders against parties on the basis that they are all acting in the
belief that their actions
are in the best interests of the minor
children involved. This cannot be said to be the case in this
matter however which
relates to the procedural aspects of litigation
and not the merits of the matter.
25.
In support of his claim for a de bonis
propiis costs order, Ms Abro submitted that
the
respondent's attorney, Mr Armstrong, of Shepstone and Wylie, had
conducted this litigation in a manner which is inconsistent
with the
standard to be expected from a legal practitioner.
He has acted in an obstructive manner by
failing to at the very least correspond with the applicant's attorney
prior to filing the
impugned notice of motion and replying affidavit
9 court days before the allocated date for the hearing; refusing to
remove the
causes of complaint as raised by the applicant in the rule
30(2)(b) notice and indicating that should an application for a
postponement
or an application in terms of the rules be brought, same
would be opposed (which conduct has already resulted in a costs order
against the respondent); seeking substantive relief by way of a
counterapplication in the middle of the opposed postponement
application
which conduct has similarly resulted in a costs order
against the respondent; the abject failure and refusal to comply with
the
rules of court which an attorney ought to be ofay with; and
general irresponsible and grossly negligent conduct and reckless
litigation.
26.
The applicant makes a strong case for a
de bonis propiis
costs order and relies on the
dicta
in
Multi-Links Telecommunications Ltd
v Africa Prepaid Services Nigeria Ltd
(
Multi-Links
)
where it was stated that
—
“
It
is true that legal representatives sometimes make errors of law, omit
to comply fully with the rules of court or err in other
ways related
to the conduct of the proceedings. This is an everyday occurrence.
This does not, however, per se ordinarily result
in the court showing
its displeasure by ordering the particular legal practitioner to pay
the costs from his own pocket. Such an
order is reserved for conduct
which substantially and materially deviates from the standard
expected of the legal practitioners,
such that their clients, the
actual parties to the litigation, cannot be expected to bear the
costs, or because the court feels
compelled to mark its profound
displeasure at the conduct of an attorney in any particular context.
Examples are dishonesty, obstruction
of the interests of justice,
irresponsible and grossly negligent conduct, litigating in a reckless
manner, misleading the court,
gross incompetence and a lack of care.
See,
for instance, Cilliers et al Herbstein & Van Winsen: The Civil
Practice of the High Courts of South Africa 5 ed vol 2 at
984. See
also D Ward v Sulzer
1973 (3) SA 701
(A) at 706G - 707H.”
[5]
27.
The respondent contends that this
application is an attempt to bleed her dry of every last penny she
has to oppose the relief the
applicant seeks and to litigate her into
submission. The respondent’s attorney of record offers the
applicant the opportunity
to file a supplementary affidavit and to
withdraw this application; however, it is not for the respondent or
her attorney of record
to grant consent for the filing of a further
supplementary affidavit. In terms of Rule 6(5)(e) only the court may
grant consent
to a party seeking to file a supplementary affidavit. A
party cannot therefore be punished for relying on the rules of court
in
the conduct of his/her proceedings.
28.
It is apparent from affidavits filed by
both parties that their respective legal representatives have locked
horns in this matter
and their personal animosity for one another
appears to have coloured the manner in which this matter has been
litigated.
29.
Whilst a reading of the affidavits and
annexures filed tell a tale of two attorneys locked in combat, that
is not reason enough
to overlook the fact that this application could
have been avoided had the respondent’s attorney of record taken
a more common
sensical approach. I see no reason to burden the
respondent with a further costs order especially where she is reliant
on the advice
of her legal representatives in the conducting of her
application.
30.
At the same time, bearing in mind the
dicta
in
Multi-Links
,
I am not convinced that the applicant has satisfied the requirements
for a
de bonis propiis
costs order against Mr Armstrong. He has not in my view acted in a
manner that shows “
dishonesty,
obstruction of the interests of justice, irresponsible and grossly
negligent conduct, litigating in
a
reckless manner, misleading the
court”
or “
gross
incompetence”
.
31.
At the same time, I am cognizant of the
respondent’s dire financial situation and see no reason for her
to be burdened with
costs which could have been avoided. She has
stated under oath that Mr Armstrong is acting
pro
amico
but that she had to engage
counsel to finalise her replying affidavit. She does not take this
court into her confidence regarding
the costs for opposing the
application and what, if any, she has had to bear.
32.
There can be no doubt that the subject
matter of the main application is a serious one and that the best
interests of the parties’
minor child is best protected when
both parents are ably represented. In the circumstances, I am
of the view that in so far
as Ms Metzer has charged fees for the
present interlocutory application, the respondent should not be
burdened with the costs thereof
and such fees are to be paid by Mr
Armstrong.
Order
33.
In the result, I make the following
order:
1.
The respondent’s notice of motion
dated 10 February 2025 is set aside.
2.
The final paragraph of the respondent’s
replying affidavit which states “
"WHEREFORE
I pray for an order dismissing
the Applicant's application with costs on the attorney client scale
and an order directing the appointment
of forensic psychologist to
investigate the Applicant's alienation of Athena from me which costs
of the investigation are to be
paid in full by the Applicant and that
the Applicant pays the costs of my counterapplication”
is
struck out.
3.
The
applicant is granted leave to file a supplementary affidavit to the
respondent’s replying affidavit, which is to be filed
by no
later than 30 June 2025.
4.
The applicant shall thereafter apply for
a date on the opposed family court roll for the hearing of the main
application.
5.
The applicant shall be liable for his
costs. Mr Armstrong shall be liable for any costs incurred by the
respondent in opposing this
application.
LANGE, AJ
JUDGE OF THE HIGH
COURT
JOHANNESBURG
FOR
THE APPLICANT:
ADVOCATE M ABRO instructed by
SHARDLOW ATTORNEYS
FOR
THE RESPONDENT: ADVOCATE L
METZER instructed by
SHEPSTONE & WYLIE
ATTORNEYS
[1]
2018
(4) SA 1 (CC).
[2]
Id
at
para
79.
[3]
2023
(4) BCLR 361
(CC) at para 26.
[4]
Bloem
and Another v NWK Limited
[2024] ZANWHC 83
(20 March 2024) at para10.
[5]
2014(3)
SA 265 (GP) at para 35.
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