Case Law[2025] ZAGPJHC 782South Africa
Shoba v Malaku (079472/2024) [2025] ZAGPJHC 782 (30 July 2025)
High Court of South Africa (Gauteng Division, Johannesburg)
30 July 2025
Headnotes
in Trope v South African Reserve Bank and another and two other cases 1992 (3) SA 208 (T) at page 211 that the ultimate test must still be whether the pleading complies with the general rule enunciated in Rule 18(4). [9] Uniform Rule of Court 18(4) requires that: “Every pleading shall contain a clear and concise statement of the material facts upon which the pleader relies for his claim, defence or answer to any pleading, as the case may be, with sufficient particularity to enable the opposite party to reply thereto.”
Judgment
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## Shoba v Malaku (079472/2024) [2025] ZAGPJHC 782 (30 July 2025)
Shoba v Malaku (079472/2024) [2025] ZAGPJHC 782 (30 July 2025)
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sino date 30 July 2025
Case No:
079472/2024
(1)
REPORTABLE: YES /
NO
(2)
OF INTEREST TO OTHER JUDGES: YES /
NO
(3)
REVISED: YES /
NO
30 July 2025
In the matter between:
SIPHO
SHOBA
Plaintiff/Respondent
and
SINDISO
MALAKU
Defendant/Excipient
Coram:
Groenewald, RJ (AJ)
Heard
on: 28 July 2025
Delivered:
30 July 2025 - This judgment was
handed down electronically by uploading to Caselines.
JUDGMENT
GROENEWALD
AJ
Introduction:
[1]
This is an opposed exception. The
Plaintiff called upon the Defendant, in terms of the provisions of
Uniform Rule of Court
23(1), to remove the causes of causes of
complaint set out in that notice.
[2]
In reaction to the Rule 23(1) notice the
Plaintiff delivered a document styled as being a “
reply
to Defendant’s Rule 23 notice
”
wherein the Plaintiff proceeded to deliver an
ad
seriatim
response to the Rule 23(1)
notice and alluding to the intention to amend the particulars of
claim.
[3]
Although the amended particulars of claim
appears in section 006 of the Case Lines file folder no Rule 28
notice was delivered in
respect of the amended particulars of claim.
The Plaintiff simply delivered the amended particulars of claim
without complying
with the provisions of Rule 28. This was
raised during argument, and counsel on behalf of both parties
indicated in turn
that, although Rule 28 was not complied with, the
parties accepted that the amendment had been properly effected, that
the amended
particulars of claim has been accepted and the excipient/
defendant does not challenge the amendment.
[4]
Notwithstanding the somewhat unusual course
adopted by the parties, it appears common cause that the Defendant
accepted the amended
particulars of claim and proceeded, consequent
upon the delivery of the amended particulars of claim, to deliver a
formal exception.
[5]
Where the Rule 23(1) notice alluded to
averments being vague and embarrassing, the exception itself appears
to be premised solely
upon the basis that the amended particulars of
claim lacks averments necessary to sustain a cause of action and/or
that the Plaintiff’s
claim and/or claims are bad in law. The
initial grounds of objection in the Rule 23(1) notice was therefore
not persisted
with.
[6]
Before dealing with the specific grounds of
exception it is prudent to note that the Plaintiff proceeded to
deliver an answering
affidavit in respect of the exception opposing
the same. In this answering affidavit the Plaintiff deals with what
it refers to
as “
grounds for
dismissing the exception application
”.
[7]
Counsel for the Plaintiff also attached a
document as annexure “B” to his heads of argument, which
appears to be correspondence
directed by the Defendant seeking a
settlement in the form of a monetary payment to the Defendant.
This document does not
appear as part of the pleadings and cannot be
relied upon by the Plaintiff. The attachment of the document was
ill-considered and
inappropriate. I shall return to this
document below within the context of the argument advanced on behalf
of the Plaintiff.
[8]
In determining an exception, the Court held
in
Trope v South African Reserve Bank
and another and two other cases
1992 (3) SA 208
(T) at page 211
that the ultimate test must still be whether the pleading complies
with the general rule enunciated in Rule 18(4).
[9]
Uniform Rule of Court 18(4) requires that:
“
Every
pleading shall contain a clear and concise statement of the material
facts upon which the pleader relies for his claim, defence
or answer
to any pleading, as the case may be, with sufficient particularity to
enable the opposite party to reply thereto.
”
[10]
In
McKenzie
v Farmers’ Co-operative Meet Industries Ltd 1922 AD at 23
the following definition of “
cause
of action
” was adopted by the
Appellate Division:
“…
every
fact which it would be necessary for the plaintiff to prove, if the
traversed, in order to support the right to judgement
of the court.
It does not comprise every piece of evidence which is necessary to
prove each fact, but every fact which is necessary
to be proved.
”
[1]
[11]
It therefore follows that, in order to
ensure that his or her summons is not excipiable on the ground that
it does not disclose
a cause of action, the relevant party (as was
held in
Makgae v Sentraboer
(Koöperatief) Bpk
1981 (4) SA 239
(T) at 245D
.)
must ensure that: the material facts (in other words the
facta
probanda
and not the
facta
probantia
or evidence proving the
facta
probanda
) of his claim have been
alleged with sufficient clarity and particularity that, if the
existence of such facts are accepted, that
it would support the legal
conclusion and would allow him to succeed in law with the relief
which the plaintiff seeks.
[12]
It was held in
Stafford
v Special Investigating Unit
1999 (2) SA 130
(E) at 138
that:
“…
each
cause of action which the plaintiff seeks to rely upon should have
been set out separately in such a way as to enable the defendant
to
assess what was claimed from it in each case.
”
[13]
The Full Court held in
International
Tobacco Co of SA Ltd v Wolheim
1953 (2) SA 603
(A) at 613A-C
:
“
All
that need be said on this point is that, in my view, if it can be
shown on exception that a declaration discloses no cause of
action,
an exception on this ground should be allowed; if the exception is
that the declaration is vague and embarrassing, then,
if it be shown,
at any rate for purposes of his plea, that the defendant is
substantially embarrassed by vagueness or lack of particularity,
it
equally should be allowed.
”
[2]
[14]
The
object of all pleadings is that a succinct statement of the grounds
upon which a claim is made or resisted shall be set forth
shortly and
concisely, and where such statement is vague, it is either
meaningless or capable of more than one meaning. It
is
embarrassing that it cannot be gathered from the pleading what ground
is being relied upon by the pleader.
[3]
[15]
In an exceptions the excipient must
persuade the Court that upon every interpretation which the
Particulars of Claim can reasonably
bear, no cause of action is
disclosed.
[16]
It
was held in
Pretorius
& Another v Transport Pension Fund & Another
[4]
that
the purpose of an exception is to protect litigants against claims
that are bad in law or against an embarrassment which is
so serious
as to merit the costs of an exception. It is a useful
procedural tool to weed out bad claims at an early stage,
but an
overly technical approach must be avoided.
[5]
[17]
The
Honourable Court in
Hassim
v Lishiva
[6]
elucidated
upon the position in
Pretorius
& Another v Transport Pension Fund & Another supra
,
as follows:
“
When
an exception is raised against the pleading on the basis that it
lacks averments necessary to disclose a cause of action, this
implies
that even if one were to accept the factual averments as set out in
the pleading is correct, these factual averments do
not justify the
conclusion of law or the relief the pleader intends to reach. It
therefore follows that the defendant cannot plead
the defence to a
cause of action which does not exist or is otherwise precluded on any
lawful ground.”
[7]
The
grounds of exception:
[18]
I proceed to deal with the respective
grounds of exception:
Ground 1: The
Plaintiff is precluded by law from instituting a defamation claim
pursuant to the provisions of the Protected Disclosure
Act 26 of
2000:
[19]
Essentially, the Plaintiff contends that
the ‘disclosure’ contained in the letter, forming an
annexure to the amended
particulars of claim, contains a disclosure
within the ambit of the
Protected
Disclosures Act, 26 of 2000
(“the
PDA”) and, as there is no allegation in the amended particulars
of claim that the disclosure was made inappropriately,
so the
argument does, the Plaintiff is precluded in terms of section 9A of
the PDA from instituting these civil proceedings.
[20]
The PDA defines a “
disclosure
”
as follows:
“
means
any disclosure of information regarding any conduct of an employer,
or of an employee or of a worker of that employer, made
by any
employee or worker who has reason to believe that the information
concerned shows or tends to show one or more of the following:
(a)
That a criminal offence has been committed, is being committed or is
likely to be committed;
(b)
that a person has failed, is failing or is likely to fail to comply
with any legal obligation
to which that person is subject;
(c)
that a miscarriage of justice has occurred, is occurring or is likely
to occur;
(d)
that the health or safety of an individual has been, is being or is
likely to be endangered;
(e)
that the environment has been, is being or is likely to be damaged;
(f)
unfair discrimination as contemplated in Chapter II of the Employment
Equity Act, 1998 (Act
55 of 1998), or the Promotion of Equality and
Prevention of Unfair Discrimination Act, 2000 (Act 4 of 2000); or
(g)
that any matter referred to in paragraphs (a) to (f) has been, is
being or is likely to be deliberately
concealed;
”
[21]
The PDA further defines a “
protected
disclosure
” as follows:
“
means
a disclosure made to-
(a) a legal
adviser in accordance with section 5;
(b) an employer
in accordance with section 6;
(c) a member of
Cabinet or of the Executive Council of a province in accordance with
section 7;
(d) a person or
body in accordance with section 8; or
(e) any other
person or body in accordance with section 9,
but does not, subject
to section 9A, include a disclosure-
(i)
in respect of which the employee or
worker concerned commits a criminal offence by making that
disclosure; or
(ii)
made by a legal adviser to whom the
information concerned was disclosed in the course of obtaining legal
advice in accordance with
section 5;
”
[22]
The objects of the PDA includes protecting
an employee or worker, whether in the private or public sector, from
being subjected
to an “
occupational
detriment
” on account of having
made a protected disclosure and provides for certain remedies in
connection with any ‘occupational
detriments’ suffered on
account of having made a protected disclosure.
[23]
Section 3 of the PDA provides that “
No
employee or worker may be subjected to any occupational detriment
by
his or her employer
on account,
or party on account, of having made a protected disclosure
.”
The PDA is primarily designed to protect an employee from
‘occupational detriment’ which he or she may
suffer at
the hands of his or her employer. The present matter is not
such a case. The parties are both employees of
the same
employer, but the Defendant is not an employee of the Plaintiff.
[24]
It is within the context of section 3 of
the PDA that section 4 thereof provides for certain remedies. In
other words, in the relationship
between employer and employee.
[25]
Section 9(3) of the PDA, which relates to
general protected disclosures, list a number of aspects which must be
given consideration
to in determining, for purposes of section
9(1)(ii), whether it was reasonable to make such a disclosure. These
aspects are the
following:
“
(a)
the identity of the person to whom the disclosure is made;
(b)
the seriousness of the impropriety;
(c)
whether the impropriety is continuing or is likely to occur in the
future;
(d)
whether the disclosure is made in breach of a duty of confidentiality
of the employer towards
any other person;
(e)
in a case falling within subsection (2) (c), any action which the
employer or the person or body
to whom the disclosure was made, has
taken, or might reasonably be expected to have taken, as a result of
the previous disclosure;
(f)
in a case falling within subsection (2) (c) (i), whether in making
the disclosure to the
employer the employee or worker complied with
any procedure which was authorised by the employer; and
(g)
the public interest.
”
[26]
To qualify for the protection provided by
the PDA, any such qualifying disclosure, must be made in ‘good
faith’ and
requires consideration of the factors set out in
section 9(3) of the PDA.
[27]
Section 9A of the PDA, upon which the
Plaintiff relies in his exception, provides as follows:
“
Exclusion
of civil and criminal liability
(1)
A court may find that an employee or worker who makes a protected
disclosure of information-
(a)
referred to in paragraph (a) of the definition of disclosure; or
(b)
which shows or tends to show that a substantial contravention of, or
failure to comply with the law
has occurred, is occurring or is
likely to occur, shall not be liable to any civil, criminal or
disciplinary proceedings by reason
of having made the
disclosure
if such disclosure is prohibited by any other law, oath, contract,
practice or agreement requiring him or her to maintain
confidentiality or otherwise restricting the disclosure of the
information with respect to a matter
.
(2)
Exclusion of liability as contemplated in subsection (1) does not
extend to the civil or criminal
liability of the employee or worker
for his or her participation in the disclosed impropriety.
”
(Own emphasis applied.)
[28]
Section 9A of the PDA refers to a
discretionary power afforded to the court under circumstances where
the disclosure would have
been prohibited ‘
by
any other law, oath, contract, promise or agreement
’
requiring the party making the disclosure to maintain confidentiality
or otherwise restricting the disclosure of the information
with
respect to a matter. Upon being questioned within which of
these categories a claim for defamation would fall, counsel
for the
excipient could not provide a cogent answer. Section 9A of the
PDA appears to be directed at a scenario where there
is a legal
obstacle to making the disclosure, the breach of which may give rise
to a civil or criminal liability within the ambit
of section 9A.
[29]
The
Court in
Tshishonga
v Minister of Justice and Constitutional Development and Another 2007
(4) SA 135 (LC)
[8]
dealt
extensively with the provisions of the PDA and the test which the
court should apply. The court made a detailed analysis
of the
meanings of 'disclosure', 'protected disclosure', 'general protected
disclosure' and 'impropriety' contained in the PDA
with reference to
international and local authorities. Regarding general protected
disclosures provided for in section 9, the court
noted that several
requirements have to be met for a disclosure to qualify as a general
protected disclosure. It has to be in good
faith; the employee must
have a reasonable belief that the information is substantially true,
and the disclosure should not be
for personal gain. These three
requirements of good faith, reasonable belief and personal gain
overlap and are mutually reinforcing.
A weakness in one can be
compensated for by the others. These requirements must be construed
in a manner that does not defeat the
objectives of eliminating crime,
promoting accountable governance and protecting employees against
reprisals. The disclosure must
in addition be filtered through two
more tests: The disclosure must meet one or more of the four
conditions in section 9(1) and
it must be reasonable to make the
disclosure. Reasonableness must be assessed against the seven
criteria in section 9(3). These
tests shift the focus away from an
assessment of the employee's good faith and the reasonableness of his
beliefs to more tangible
and objectively determinable facts.
Whether the relief is reasonable is a finding of fact based on what
is believed.
[9]
[30]
The defence that any one of the
requirements in s 9 is lacking must be specifically pleaded and
proved. Deciding whether all the
requirements have been met
is
a question of fact
.
[31]
The PDA is conceived as a four-staged
process that begins with an analysis of the information to determine
whether it is a disclosure.
If it is, the next question is whether it
is protected. The third stage is to determine whether the employee
was subjected to any
occupational detriment and lastly, what the
remedy should be for such treatment. It is not an enquiry into
wrongdoing, but about
whether the employee deserves protection.
Structured in this way the inclination to shift the emphasis from the
conduct and credibility
of the wrongdoer to that of the whistleblower
is real.
[32]
Several
hurdles must be overcome before disclosures can qualify as general
protected disclosures. First, the disclosure must
be in good
faith. In
Tshishonga
,
[10]
the Court held that:
“
[204]
By setting good faith as a specific requirement, the legislature must
have intended that it should include something
more than reasonable
belief and the absence of personal gain. An employee may reasonably
believe in the truth of the disclosures
and may gain nothing from
making them, but his good faith or motive would be questionable if
the information does not disclose
an impropriety or if the disclosure
A is not aimed at remedying a wrong.
[205]
Good faith is a finding of
fact
. The court has to consider
all the evidence cumulatively to decide whether there is good faith
or an ulterior motive, or, if there
are mixed motives, what the
dominant motive is.
”
(Own
emphasis applied.)
[33]
It stands to reason that where the reliance
on the PDA is presupposed on findings of fact and is combined with
the requirement to
consider evidence in concluding whether the party
making those disclosures was acting in good faith, a defence under
section 9A
of the PDA, even if at all available to the Defendant in
these proceedings, cannot be entertained at exception stage.
[34]
Therefore:
[34.1]
Firstly
,
the court cannot, under the present circumstances, at exception
stage, make a finding as to whether the disclosure was made in
good
faith or not; and
[34.2]
Secondly
,
the discretionary protection against liability, provided for in terms
of section 9A of the PDA, does not appear to be an absolute
bar to
civil proceedings being instituted against a party who has made a
disclosure. For the Court to exercise a discretion
to exclude
civil liability, as a general proposition, evidence must be
presented.
[35]
The Defendant does not suffer prejudice as
he can still plead this defence, if so advised, as part of its
opposition to the action.
[36]
Therefore, this first ground of exception
must fail and stands to be dismissed.
Ground
2: No cause of action for defamation
:
[37]
In the second ground of exception the
Defendant contends that the Plaintiff has failed to make out a cause
of action for a claim
based upon defamation.
[38]
The Plaintiff contends,
inter
alia
, (see par. 11 of the exception)
that:
[38.1] The
Plaintiff does not rely on an innuendo or secondary meaning to be
attached to the statement; and
[38.2] The words or
statement, understood in the context of the whole document, and
considering their grammatical meaning,
are not capable of a
defamatory meaning and consequently not defamatory to the Plaintiff.
[39]
It is correct that the Plaintiff does not
appear to rely on innuendo. The Plaintiff’s case appears to be
that the contents
of the letter, attached to the Amended Particulars
of Claim, are
per se
defamatory. The voluminous document refers to ‘
concrete
proof of corruption and fraud
’
ostensibly perpetrated by the Plaintiff, includes allegations of
sexual misconduct and in the conclusion refers to the Plaintiff
as
‘
someone who lacks mental
stability, psychological fitness, and chemical balance
’.
The contention in the exception that these words or statement,
understood in the context of the whole document, and
considering
their grammatical meaning, are not capable of a defamatory meaning
and consequently not defamatory to the plaintiff
is rejected.
Certainly, these are not trifling statements.
[40]
Whilst there is much to be said that
several of the allegations contained in the particulars of claim may
be vague and embarrassing,
the Defendant has elected not to rely on
those grounds in attacking the pleading.
[41]
In paragraph 4.4 of the Amended Particulars
of Claim the Plaintiff contends that the Defendant ‘further
said the plaintiff
is known for hiring hitman ‘
inkabi
’.
This statement does not appear in the relevant letter. When I
asked Mr Mello where this statement appears he
indicated that it
appears in the document annexed as annexure “B” to his
heads of argument. I have already made
reference to this letter
which was attached to Mr Mello’s heads of argument above.
Mr Mello explained that the purpose
of attaching this document was,
inter alia
,
to demonstrate that the Defendant is acting with an ulterior purpose
and to demonstrate that the Defendant had used the word ‘
inkabi
’
in this further letter. The reliance on this further document,
which does not form part of the pleading, is of course
impermissibly. However, Mr Mello’s explanation points to
the obvious, the pleading does not attach nor quote a document
which
appears to be central to his case.
[42]
The Plaintiff does not, as correctly
conceded by Mr Mello, rely on an inuendo. In failing to either attach
the further letter or
by failing to properly plead the reliance
thereon, demonstrates that a complete cause of action has not been
made out. This is
apparent from considering the Amended Particulars
of Claim within the four corners of the pleading.
[43]
The Plaintiff has, failed to disclose a
complete cause of action premised upon allegations contained in
paragraph 4.4 of the Amended
Particulars of Claim.
[44]
Accordingly, the second ground of the
exception must succeed in so far as stated above.
Ground 3: The claim
for potential financial loss is bad in law:
[45]
The Plaintiff claims damages in the amount
of R1.8 million for ‘potential financial loss’. This is
not done as a separate
head of damages, but is part of the larger
claim totalling the sum of R3 million and composed of (as set out in
“
amended paragraph 7.2
”
of the Amended Particulars of Claim), R800 000-00 for damage to
reputation; R400 000-00 for emotional distress
and anguish and
R1.8 million for potential financial loss.
[46]
The Defendant contends that: the Plaintiff
seeks to recover pure economic loss under defamation and must
therefore plead and prove
the elements of the
aquilian
action; that the Plaintiff has failed to plead and prove wrongfulness
in the context of a claim for pure economic loss; and that
the
Plaintiff failed to plead and prove an intentional wrong on the part
of the Defendant.
[47]
Save for an anaemic reference in paragraph
7.1.1 of the Amended Particulars of Claim that as a direct result of
the statements,
the Plaintiff has suffered and continues to suffer
harm, including but not limited to, harm to ‘
his
career prospects
’. The
pleading does not even allege what impact the statements will have on
the Plaintiff’s career prospects,
what harm is being suffered
and there is no apparent
nexus
between the bald allegation and the amount being claimed.
[48]
Therefore, this ground of exception must
also succeeds.
Ground 4: The claim
for damages for emotional distress and anguish is bad in law:
[49]
The Plaintiff claims damages in the amount
of R400 000-00 for emotional distress and anguish.
[50]
The Defendant contends that has not made
the averments necessary to complete a claim under an action for pain
and suffering.
[51]
In
Simmonds
v White
1980 (1) SA 755
(C) at 758
it was held that a plaintiff should
particulate general damages or provide particulars about the
Plaintiff’s reputation, standing
in the community or character
or the extent of the publication.
[52]
A Plaintiff may claim for actual
patrimonial loss suffered because of defamation. The cause of action
is then the
lex aquilia
,
being a claim for pure economic loss, and the Plaintiff bears the
onus
in
respect of all the elements of that action. See in this regard:
Economic Freedom Fighters and others
v Manuel
2021 (3) SA 425
(SCA) at par. 91
.
[53]
The Plaintiff has failed to properly plead
the elements for this claim.
[54]
Therefore, this ground of exception
succeeds.
The relief sought:
[55]
Mr Toma, for the Excipient/Defendant,
contended that if the exception succeeds, premised on the first
ground of exception, that
the Defendant’s claim should be
dismissed. The first ground of exception has failed, for the
reasons stated above,
but in any event, a dismissal of the claim is
not justified, nor would it be prudent.
[56]
If
the exception is successful, the proper course for the court is to
uphold it. When an exception is upheld, it is the pleading
to which
exception is taken which is destroyed. The remainder of the edifice
does not crumble.
[11]
The upholding of an exception to a declaration or a combined summons
does not, therefore, carry with it the dismissal of
the summons or of
the action.
[57]
There is no reason why the normal principle
that the costs follow the result should not be applied. The
conduct of the Plaintiff
is not such as to justify a punitive cost
order.
The order:
[58]
The following order is made:
1.
Ground 1 of the exception is dismissed;
2.
Grounds 2, 3 and 4 of the exception are
upheld;
3.
The Plaintiff’s amended particulars
of claim is struck-out;
4.
The Plaintiff is given leave to file an
amended particulars of claim, if so advised, within 20 days of this
order; and
5.
The Plaintiff is ordered to pay the costs
of proceedings on exception on a party and party basis, including
costs of counsel on
Scale B.
RJ GROENEWALD (AJ)
JUDGE OF THE HIGH
COURT
GAUTENG DIVISION,
PRETORIA
Delivered: This
judgment was prepared and authored by the Judge whose name is
reflected and is handed down electronically
by circulation to the
parties/their legal representatives by email and by uploading it to
the electronic file of this matter on
CaseLines. The date for
hand-down is deemed to be 30 July 2024.
For the Excipient /
Defendant:
Adv K Toma
Instructed
by:
Machingura Attorneys
For the Respondent /
Plaintiff:
Adv L Mello
Instructed
by:
S Mgwenya Attorney Inc
Matter heard
on:
28 July 2025 - Court 6C
Judgment
date:
30 July 2025
[1]
See
also:
Evans
v Shield Insurance Co Ltd
1980 (2) SA 814
(A) at 838E–F;
Minister of Law and Order v Thusi
1994 (2) SA 224
(N) at 226H–I;
Buys v Roodt
2000 (1) SA 535
(O) at 539G–H; Gardener’s
Grapevine CC t/a Grapevine v Flowcrete Precast CC
2009 (1) SA 324
(N) at 326F–G; Stols v Garlicke & Bousfield Inc
2012
(4) SA 415
(KZP) at 421H–422A
.
[2]
See
also: “Herbstein and Van Winsen – The Civil Practice of
the High Courts of South Africa” (5th Ed.)
Vol 1, page
632 to 634 and 638 to 641;
Barclay’s
National Bank Ltd v Thompson
1989 (1) SA 547
(A) at 553; Van
Lochen v Associated Office Contracts (Pty) Ltd
2004 (3) SA 247
(W)
at 252; Dharumpal Transport (Pty) Ltd v H Dharumpal
1956 (1)
SA 700
(A) at 706
.
[3]
Lockhart
and Others v Minister of the Interior
1960 (3) SA 765
(D); Cf
International Tobacco Co of SA Ltd v Wolheim and Others
1953 (2) SA
603
(A); Daniels: “Beck’s Theory and
Principles of Pleading in Civil Actions” 6th Ed.
Page132-133.
[4]
2019
(2) SA 37
(CC)
.
[5]
Pretorius
& Another v Transport Pension Fund & Another supra paragraph
15
.
[6]
(
35381/2020)
[2021] ZAGPJHC 120
.
[7]
Pretorius
& Another v Transport Pension Fund & Another supra at
paragraph 14
.
[8]
Also
reported at: (2007) 28 ILJ 195 (LC).
[9]
Tshishonga
v Minister of Justice and Constitutional Development and Another
supra at par 185
.
[10]
Supra
at par 204 and 205
.
[11]
Ocean
Echo Properties 327 CC v Old Mutual Life Assurance Co (South Africa)
Ltd
2018 (3) SA 405
(SCA) at 409C.
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