Case Law[2024] ZAGPJHC 1059South Africa
SS Glen High v Kruger NO (2023/055133) [2024] ZAGPJHC 1059 (10 September 2024)
High Court of South Africa (Gauteng Division, Johannesburg)
10 September 2024
Headnotes
judgment as embodied in rule 32 of the Uniform Rules of Court. The Applicant in the supporting affidavit relies on a deponent who acts as the manager, employed by its managing agent, and who has all the documentation under his control. The deponent claims to have access to and personal knowledge of the same. The Applicant relies on the fact that the monetary value of its claim is capable of prompt and easy ascertainment or calculation. The statements presented for prompt calculation are annexed to the supporting affidavit.
Judgment
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## SS Glen High v Kruger NO (2023/055133) [2024] ZAGPJHC 1059 (10 September 2024)
SS Glen High v Kruger NO (2023/055133) [2024] ZAGPJHC 1059 (10 September 2024)
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REPUBLIC
OF SOUTH AFRICA
IN THE HIGH COURT OF
SOUTH AFRICA,
GAUTENG DIVISION,
JOHANNESBURG
Case Number:
2023/055133
(1)
REPORTABLE: Yes
(2)
OF INTEREST TO OTHER JUDGES: Yes
(3)
REVISED: Yes
DATE
10 September 2024
SIGNATURE
In
the matter between:
SS
GLEN HIGH
Applicant
and
MADELEYN
KRUGER NO
Respondent
JUDGMENT
DE
BEER AJ
This matter has been
heard in open court and is otherwise disposed of in terms of the
Directives of the Judge President of this
Division. The judgment and
order are accordingly published and distributed electronically and
handing it down.
1.
The application before me is for summary
judgment as embodied in rule 32 of the Uniform Rules of Court. The
Applicant in the supporting
affidavit relies on a deponent who acts
as the manager, employed by its managing agent, and who has all the
documentation under
his control. The deponent claims to have access
to and personal knowledge of the same. The Applicant relies on the
fact that the
monetary value of its claim is capable of prompt and
easy ascertainment or calculation. The statements presented for
prompt calculation
are annexed to the supporting affidavit.
2.
The
Applicant is a body corporate duly established by virtue of its
registration in terms of the Sectional Titles Act.
[1]
The Respondent acts
ex
officio
as
the duly appointed executor of the Estate Late Takesure Tembo
(“Tembo”) who was the registered owner of Unit 1[...]
G[...] H[...] Body Corporate, CNR High Road & Central Edenglen.
In terms of
section 2(1)
of the
Sectional Titles Schemes Management
Act
[2
] any person who becomes an
owner of a unit in a sectional title scheme becomes a member of that
particular body,
ex
lege
and
as such the Tembo became a member of the Body Corporate by virtue of
his ownership.
3.
The functions of a Body Corporate are
specifically set out in
section 3
of
Sectional Titles Schemes
Management Act, which
inter alia,
stipulates that the Body Corporate
must:
3.1.
establish
and maintain both an administrative and reserve fund;
[3]
3.2.
require
owners, whenever necessary, to make contributions to such funds,
which includes the provisions of electricity, water, and
sewage,
where the owners concerned are responsible for such funds;
[4]
3.3.
determine
amounts to be raised for the purpose of such administrative and
reserve funds, as well as contributions towards electricity,
water,
and sewage, where the owners concerned are responsible for such
funds;
[5]
and
3.4.
determine
such administrative and reserve fund contributions in proportion to
an owner’s participation quota.
[6]
4.
In terms of
section 3(2)
, Tembo, by virtue
of his membership to the body corporate, is liable to make payment to
the body corporate for all contributions
levied by the Body
Corporate, together with all charges relating to utilities and
consumption charges on a monthly basis.
5.
In terms of
section 4(i)
of the
Sectional
Titles Schemes Management Act, a
body corporate is entitled to do all
things reasonably necessary for the enforcement of the rules and for
the management and administration
of the common property. The
Sectional Titles Schemes Management Act, and
particularly
sections 3
and 4 thereof remain binding on the owner, and any failure on the
part of any owners of any section to ensure that payment of the
levies or any other amounts due to the body corporate is paid as
such, the body corporate shall be entitled to claim same from
the
owner.
6.
The Applicant has the authority, as set out
in
section 3(2)
to appoint its managing agent. In terms of
section
4(a)
of the
Sectional Titles Schemes Management Act, a
body corporate
shall have the powers conferred upon it by the
Sectional Titles
Schemes Management Act and/or
its regulations and/or Management
and/or Conduct Rules, and such powers include appointing such
managing agents and employees as
the Applicant deems fit.
7.
Accordingly, the Applicant through is
managing agents, imposed levies, community scheme ombud service
levies, special levies and
legal costs recovering arrear
contributions in an amount of R 322 966.82.
8.
In reiteration, the Applicant in its
supporting affidavit relies on the manager employed by the managing
agent that stated that:
“
All the
documentation pertaining to this application is under my control
.
I have access thereto, and indeed possess personal knowledge thereof.
I am able to depose to all aspects pertaining to this matter
under
oath and hereby duly do so. Where I rely on information conveyed to
me by others, I believe such information to be correct
and have no
reason to believe otherwise”. He continues and confirms the
cause of action and the indebtedness in the amount
of R 322 966.82
by attaching statements detailing the amounts and/or charges levied,
being the total amount which consists
of outstanding levies,
community schemes ombud services levies, special levies, interest
related charges, and legal costs in terms
of the mandate entrusted
upon him.
9.
The
Respondent opposed the summary judgment application by raising three
defences to the prevent the granting thereof: lack of personal
knowledge of the deponent, a premature institution of the action
because of a section 34(1) notice served in terms of the
Administration
of Estates Act
[7]
and that the amount relied upon is not liquidated. The Respondent,
during argument, similarly focused on these aforesaid grounds
of
opposition.
LACK
OF PERSONAL KNOWLEDGE
10.
The Respondent incorrectly contends that
the deponent refers to himself as the appointed portfolio manager of
the Plaintiff. After
careful reading of the supporting affidavit, it
is quite evident that the deponent refers to himself as the duly
appointed portfolio
manager of the Applicant, employed with the
Managing agent of the Applicant.
11.
Relying on the alleged lack of personal
knowledge, the Respondent contends further that a portion of the
amount claimed emanates
from outstanding charges, levies and special
levies imposed through a previous managing agent, Norma Wallace
Property Management.
The duties have subsequently been taken over by
the current managing agent, Earle Blue. On the aforesaid premise,
Respondent argued
that the deponent has insufficient knowledge and is
unable to state he has personal knowledge and is unable to verify the
correctness
of total amount of R 322 966.82. The Respondent
submitted that the confirmation aforesaid amounts to inadmissible
hearsay
evidence and no reliance can be placed thereon.
12.
In
Maharaj
v
Barclays National Bank Ltd
[8]
Corbett
JA, in considering the requirement that the affidavit should be made
by the plaintiff himself 'or by any other person who
can swear
positively to the facts', stated:
“
Concentrating
more particularly on requirement (a) above, I would point out that it
contemplates the affidavit being made by the
plaintiff himself or
some other person who can swear positively to the facts. In the
latter event, such other person's ability
to swear positively to the
facts is essential to the effectiveness of the affidavit as a basis
for summary judgment; and the Court
entertaining the application
therefor must be satisfied, prima facie, that the deponent is such a
person. Generally speaking, before
a person can swear positively to
facts in legal proceedings they must be within his personal
knowledge. For this reason the practice
has been adopted, both
in regard to the present Rule 32 and in regard to some of its
provincial predecessors (and the similar
rule in the magistrates'
courts), of requiring that a deponent to an affidavit in support of
summary judgment, other than the plaintiff
himself, should state, at
least, that the facts are within his personal knowledge (or make some
averment to that effect),
unless such
direct knowledge appears from other facts stated
. . . . The mere assertion by a deponent that he can swear positively
to the facts (an assertion which merely reproduces the wording
of the
Rule) is not regarded as being sufficient, unless there are good
grounds for believing that the deponent fully appreciated
the meaning
of these words . . . . In my view, this is a salutary practice. While
undue formalism in procedural matters is always
to be eschewed, it is
important in summary judgment applications under Rule 32 that,
in substance, the plaintiff should do
what is required of him by the
Rule. The extraordinary and drastic nature of the remedy of summary
judgment in its present form
has often been judicially emphasised . .
. . The grant of the remedy is based upon the supposition that the
plaintiff's claim is
unimpeachable and that the defendant's defence
is bogus or bad in law. One of the aids to ensuring that this is the
position is
the affidavit filed in support of the application; and to
achieve this end it is important that the affidavit should be deposed
to either by the plaintiff himself or
by
someone who has personal knowledge of the facts
.
Where the affidavit fails
to measure up to these requirements
, the defect may, nevertheless,
be cured by reference to other documents relating to the proceedings
which are properly before the Court . . . . The principle is that, in
deciding whether or not to grant summary judgment, the
Court looks
at the matter at the end of the day on all the documents that are
properly before it
. . . .” [Own emphasis.]
13.
In
Rees
and Another v Investec Bank
[9]
relying on
Barclays
National Bank Ltd v Love
(quoted
with approval in Maharaj at 424B – D) the following is said:
“
We
are concerned here with an
affidavit
made by the manager of the very branch of the bank at which overdraft
facilities were enjoyed by the defendan
t.
The
nature of the deponent's office in
itself suggests very strongly that he would in the ordinary course of
his duties acquire personal
knowledge of the defendant's financial
standing with the bank
.
This
is not to suggest that he would have personal knowledge of every
withdrawal of money made by the defendant or that he personally
would
have made every entry in the bank's ledgers or statements of account
;
indeed, if that were the degree of personal knowledge required it is
difficult to conceive of circumstances in which a bank could
ever
obtain summary judgment.” [Own emphasis.]
14.
Since
Maharaj
,
the requirements of rule 32(2) have from time to time received the
attention of our courts.
[10]
In
Shackleton
Credit Management v Microzone Trading
it was held in para 13 that:
“
(F)irst-hand
knowledge of every fact which goes to make up the applicant's cause
of action is not required, and . . . where the
applicant
is a corporate entity
, the
deponent
may well legitimately rely on records in the company's possession
for their personal knowledge of at least certain of the relevant
facts and the ability to swear positively to such facts.”
[Own
Emphasis]
15.
Taking the nature of the deponent’s
office into consideration it suggests very strongly that he would in
the ordinary course
of his duties acquire personal knowledge of the
outstanding levies, community schemes ombud services levies, special
levies, interest
related charges. The knowledge also further appears
from other stated facts and documents that are properly before me. As
per
Shackleton Credit Management v
Microzone Trading
supra,
First-hand knowledge of each and every
fact is not required. It is prudent to mention that the Respondent
does not dispute the authenticity
of any documents transferred from
the erstwhile managing agent to the current one, nor did she raise or
reflected incorrect computed
amounts/levies charged. Counsel for the
Respondent confirmed that the authenticity of the documents is not in
dispute. Seemingly,
the Respondent solely relies on the
‘verification’ of the correctness thereof. The reliance
on the ‘verification’
is without disputing the
authenticity and correctness of the amounts. The total outstanding
amount is in my view clear and capable
of prompt ascertainment.
16.
The managing agent, Earle Blue is a
corporate entity responsible for managing the accounts of the
Applicant and the deponent may
well legitimately rely on the records
in its possession, also those taken over by it. It often occurs that
managers and/or personnel
attending to the accounts change or are
replaced. Does that mean a new manager cannot verify the correctness
of the amount. No,
I am of the view that he/she can. It is not
to suggest that he /she would have personal knowledge of every amount
levied
or that he is responsible for every entry but the thrust of it
is that he/he has it under his/her control. On the conspectus of
evidence, the levies, special levies and charges imposed are not
disputed.
17.
In this matter, there is sufficient
probability in favour of the deponent having the requisite knowledge
for the purposes of summary
judgment.
A PREMATURE
INSTITUTION OF ACTION BECAUSE OF A SECTION 34(1) NOTICE SERVED IN
TERMS OF THE ADMINISTRATION OF ESTATES ACT.
18.
The
question up for determination here is whether the delivering of a
section 34(1) notice in terms of the Administration of Estates
Act
precludes a creditor from enforcing its claim against a deceased
estate. Counsel for the Applicant relied on
Nedbank
Ltd v Samsodien NO
[11]
“….
The weight of the authority is in favour of allowing a creditor to
avail himself of the common-law enforcement
procedures (see Estate
Stanford v Kruger
1942 TPD 2
43; Davids v Estate Hall
1956 (1) SA 774
(C), Benade v Boedel Alexander
1967 (1) SA 648
(O)… I have
referred to. Professor FJ van Zyl, who was a renowned authority on
the law of succession, in an article 'Boedelskuldeiser
Versus
Eksekuteur' (1987) 53 De Jure 308, convincingly comes to the
conclusion that the creditor's common-law competence to enforce
his
claim against a deceased estate has not been abolished by the
provisions in the Act (see also W Abrie et al Deceased Estates
5 ed
138). Finally, some support for this view is to be found in the
recent judgment of the Supreme Court of Appeal, in Scoin Trading
(Pty) Ltd v Bernstein NO
2011 (2) SA 118
(SCA), para 23, where K
Pillay AJA remarked: 'Except for the risk of personal liability if he
overpays, it is not unlawful
for an executor to pay a
creditor's claim before the confirmation of such account.” for
its contention that it does
not.
19.
Counsel for the Respondent, despite
invitation, failed to provide case law that militates against the
above finding.
20.
In
Nedbank
Ltd v Steyn
[12]
it
was held by Brand JA that the claims procedure provided for by the
Administration of Estates Act does not prevent a creditor
from
instituting action.
[13]
21.
The delivering of a section 34(1) notice in
terms of the Administration of Estates Act therefore does not deprive
a creditor of
his right to institute action. The Applicant may avail
itself of the common-law remedies to claim an outstanding debt.
Concomitantly
the failure to deliver a notice cannot serve as a
defence in summary judgment proceedings.
CLAIM THAT THE
AMOUNT IS NOT LIQUIDATED
22.
The
Respondent disputes the liquidity of the amount with specific
reference to the legal costs incurred in recovering outstanding
levies and charges. Counsel for the Respondent referred to the
management rule 25(5)
[14]
“The
body corporate must not debit a member’s account with any
amount that is not a contribution, or a
charge
levied
in terms of the Act or these rules
without
a member’s consent or the authority of a judgment or order by a
judge, adjudicator or arbitrator
.”
[Own emphasis] and submitted that the legal costs in the amount of R
17 316.45 have not been taxed or agreed to as
provided for in
management rule 25(5) and therefore the amount cannot be
construed as liquidated. Counsel for the Respondent
incorrectly
referred me to management rule 25(5), in fact rule 25(4) deals with
reasonable legal costs and disbursements as taxed
or agreed.
Management rule 25(5),
inter
alia,
deals
with levying charges where a member consents to it.
23.
The
question of legal costs incurred by a body corporate in the
collection of arrear levies and the recovery thereof came up for
adjudication in previous judgments and was pronounced upon. The
question of untaxed legal costs and whether it can be added to
a
member’s account together with other arrear levies and interest
was raised in
The
Body Corporate Marsh Rose v Steinmuller and Others
[15]
(“Marsh Rose”)
Although
the court was primarily concerned with this question to determine the
issuing a levy clearance certificate for the purposes
of section
15B(3)(a)(i)(aa), the principles enunciated nevertheless will apply
to summary judgment matters.
24.
In
Marsh
Rose,
the majority judgment, with reference to the management subrules
25(4) and 25(5), per Motojane J, held:
[16]
“The amount of collection and legal costs claimed before a
clearance certificate could be issued is R 57 395.80.
These
costs have not been taxed or agreed
to as provided for in section 25(5) of the STSMA and are accordingly
unlawfully levied as the amount is not due.” The minority
judgement as per Adams J, however held:
[17]
“Maybe it is apposite at this juncture to deal with the issue
of the legal charges, which, according to the first respondent,
should not be included in the payments due under s 15B(3)(a)(i)(aa).
The
trial court agreed with the first respondent on this issue. I don’t
.
I find support for my view in
Barnard
NO v Regspersoon van Aminie en 'n Ander
,
in which the SCA held that, in giving expression to the intention of
the provision [s 15B(3)(a)(i)(aa)] to give effective protection
to
the body corporate, it was clear that the contributions were covered
by the provision and therefore
the
relevant legal costs also fell within the ambit of the provision
.
I am therefore of the view that
the
Body Corporate was entitled to insist on the legal costs
being paid before issuing the clearance certificate.
To
say that these costs should have been taxed, as did the first
respondent, is, in my view, not sustainable
…”
[Own Emphasis]
25.
The
aforesaid matter then served before the supreme court of appeal,
Body
Corporate, Marsh Rose v Steinmuller and Others
[18]
and with reliance on
Barnard
NO v Regspersoon van Aminie en ‘n Ander
[19]
it was held that:
“ …
the
question arose whether the embargo covered not only arrear levies and
interest,
but
also legal costs incurred by a body corporate in seeking to recover
amounts due to it by the owner of a unit
.
This
court held that the legislature intended to give to a body corporate
effective protection
.
It reasoned that a body corporate was merely a collective of owners
of units who shared expenses.
If
one owner fails to meet their obligations, the burden fell on others,
hence the need for an effective remedy
.
This
court concluded that legal costs incurred in recovery of amounts due
to body corporate fell within the ambit of the protection
afforded
by s 15B(3)(a) of the Act.”
[20]
[Own Emphasis]. Notwithstanding the costs being untaxed, it was held
that it does form part and ought to be included and paid before
a
clearance certificate stands to be issued. The Supreme Court of
Appeal did not directly labour upon the question of untaxed legal
costs, but it would appear, followed and sustained the minority
finding by Adams J, thereby implying that it is not necessary for
the
legal costs to be taxed. But it is prudent to note that the Supreme
Court of Appeal in its judgment referred to ‘legal
costs
incurred’. Therefore, in my view where ‘legal costs are
incurred’ by a Body Corporate it need not be taxed.
Management
rule 25(4) is qualified by the Supreme Court of Appeal where it
refers to ‘as taxed’. It is clear from the
Supreme Court
of Appeal’s judgment that untaxed legal costs formed part of
the monies due by a member. Thus, the legal costs
incurred in
recovering arrear amounts
in
casu
need
not be taxed for its inclusion to the levies and other charges for
the purposes of summary judgment.
26.
Section
15B(3)(a)(i)(aa) of the Sectional Titles Act
[21]
confers upon a body corporate a statutory right to resist transfer of
a unit in the scheme until all moneys due to it have been
paid or it
is satisfied that the arrangements for their payment have been
made.
[22]
The monies due are
inclusive of legal costs. Therefore, the entitlement to add such
costs to a members account is manifest.
27.
I deem it prudent to have further regard to
the wording rule 25(4) of the rules and regulations to the Sectional
Title Scheme Management
Act that stipulate that: “A
member
is liable for
and
must
pay
the body corporate all reasonable
legal costs and disbursements
,
as taxed or
agreed by a member
,
incurred by the body corporate in the
collection of arrear contributions or any other arrear amounts due
and owing by such member
to the body corporate
,
or in enforcing compliance with these rules, the conduct rules of the
Act.” [Own Emphasis] The subrules 25(4) and 25(5)
refer to
either consent to or agreed by a member. The question that begs
answering is what the ‘consent’ or ‘agreed
to’
entails?
28.
In this matter the conduct rules of the
Body Corporate determine: “If the Body Corporate or the
Trustees instruct a firm of
Attorneys in connection with or arising
out of any infringement by an occupant of any provision of these
rules, such occupant shall
be liable
to
reimburse
the Body Corporate on demand
for all its
legal costs incurred
in respect thereof on an Attorney Client basis.” [Own
Emphasis]. The emphasis placed on reimbursement of costs incurred on
an attorney client scale. The conduct rules are rules that the
Respondent consented to upon becoming a member. There is an
underlying
agreement to be bound by it.
29.
The Respondent upon becoming a member
‘consented’ and/or ‘agreed’ to reimburse the
body corporate on demand,
for all its ‘legal costs incurred’,
thereby, in my view, also further satisfying the requirements in
subrules 25(4)
and 25(5).
30.
Accordingly, the legal costs incurred in
this matter need not be taxed to be included in the claim. Subrules
25(4) and 25(5) are
further satisfied in that the Respondent
consented and or agreed that such legal costs so incurred be
reimbursed which constitutes
a liquidated amount for the purposes of
summary judgment.
31.
As
already indicated, the
Body
Corporate, Marsh Rose v Steinmuller and Others
[23]
referred to ‘legal costs incurred’ which brings me to the
following aspect that requires me to draw a distinction between
“legal costs incurred” and legal costs that are claimed
by its primary source or provider, the legal representative.
In the
latter case it is trite law that attorney’s fees (legals costs)
do not constitute a liquidated debt until ascertained
and determined
by taxation. See
Blakes
Maphanga Inc v OUTsurance Insurance Co Ltd
[24]
In
the matter before me, the amount of legal costs was already incurred
by the Body Corporate and stands to be reimbursed by the
Respondent.
By reason of it already having been incurred by the Body Corporate,
it forms a liquidated amount that has been determined
which needs not
be taxed. It constitutes a liquidated amount that can be included in
the determination of the liquidated amount
owed for summary judgment
purposes.
32.
For the reasons set out above, I see no
reason why the untaxed legal costs cannot be included to form part of
the monies due to
the Applicant. The total outstanding amount is
capable of being promptly computed and established.
RESPONDENT’S
DEFENCE
33.
The Applicant relies on several grounds in
its supporting affidavit to demonstrate that the Respondent’s
opposition is not
bona fide
and
purely to delay the inevitable.
34.
On the conspectus of evidence, it is
evident that the Respondent concedes that the amount is due and
payable. The Respondent in
her plea relies on the provisions of
section 34 of the Administration of Estates Act as defence. She
pleads that in the circumstances
the claim is premature, and that
Applicant ought to wait until the property is sold, thereby entitling
the Applicant to place reliance
on section 15B(3)(a)(i)(aa) of the
Sectional Titles Act by refusing a clearance certificate until all
outstanding monies are paid.
Differently put the Respondent admits
that the amount is due and payable, although not immediately.
Accordingly, it is evident
to me that Respondent is only causing a
delay by filling a plea and opposing the summary judgment
application.
35.
The Respondent also does not dispute the
authenticity of the documents utilised to determine the liquidated
amount.
36.
The
Respondent’s plea and opposing affidavit do not disclose any
plausible triable issues or put differently, her affidavit
fails to
show that there is a reasonable possibility that the defences which
she advances may succeed at trial.
[25]
37.
There
is 'some onus of proof' on a Respondent resisting summary
judgment.
[26]
The test is
whether the opposing affidavit sets out facts which, if proved at the
trial, will constitute a defence.
[27]
The Respondent’s opposing affidavit fails to set facts which
constitutes a defence
.
No sustainable defence has been put forward.
38.
In
the exercise of a discretion on liquidity a court must not only look
at the summons in order to decide whether a claim is for
a liquidated
amount of money; the defence disclosed in the defendant’s
opposing affidavit must also be taken into account.
[28]
The Respondent’s defence does not bring about any doubt as to
the amount claimed which in any event can be easily determined
by way
of a calculation.
39.
A
liquidated amount of money is an amount which is either agreed or
which is capable of speedy and prompt ascertainment. Whether
an
amount is capable of speedy ascertainment is a matter left to the
individual discretion of a judge.
[29]
I am satisfied that the amount for summary judgment purposes can be
determined and is capable of being the subject of summary judgment.
40.
In this matter, the Applicant has complied
with the requirements of rule 32, the Respondent has no
bona
fide,
triable defence and summary
judgment stands to be awarded.
COSTS
41.
I
was reminded by counsel for the Respondent that although consent to
costs is not prohibited by the common law, the court retains
a
residual discretion to enforce such an agreement, and parties cannot
by agreement deprive a court of the discretion it has to
costs.
Reference was made to
Intercontinental
Exports (Pty) Ltd v Fowles
1999
2 All SA 304 (A)
[30]
“Because a court exercises its discretion judicially, not
capriciously, it would normally be bound to recognise the
parties’
freedom to contract and to give effect to any agreement reached in
relation to costs. But good grounds may exist,
depending upon the
particular circumstances, for following a different course. This
might result, on a proper exercise of discretion,
in a party being
deprived of agreed costs, or being awarded something less in the way
of costs than that agreed upon.” I
can find no reason, in the
exercising of my discretion in this matter, to deviate from the
agreement between the parties.
42.
The Applicant’s counsel correctly
submitted that the matter deserves only costs on the magistrate’s
court scale. He
qualified it further by relying on the body corporate
rules that provides for cost on an attorney client basis.
43.
In the premises I make the following order:
1.
Summary judgment is awarded in the amount
of R 322 966.82 (Three Hundred and Twenty-Two Thousand Nine
Hundred and Sixty-Six
Rand and Eighty-Two Cents).
2.
Interest on the aforesaid amount at the
rate of 11.25 % interest rate per annum from 08 June 2023 to date of
payment.
3.
Costs of the suit on the magistrate’s
court scale as between attorney and client which include VAT.
DE BEER AJ
ACTING JUDGE OF THE
GAUTENG
DIVISION, JOHANNESBURG
APPEARANCES
:
For the Applicant:
Adv. R. Smith
Instructed by:
Schüler
Heerschop Pienaar Attorneys
For the Respondent:
Adv. J. Eastes
Instructed
by:
Velilo
Tinto & Associates Inc.
Date of Hearing:
28 August 2024 –
Open Court
Date
of Judgment:
10
September 2024 – Electronically
[1]
Act 95 of 1986.
[2]
Act 8 of 2011.
[3]
Section 3(1)(a).
[4]
Section
3(1)(c).
[5]
Section
3(1)(e).
[6]
Section
3(1)(f).
[7]
Act 66 of 1956.
[8]
1976
(1) SA 418
(A) at 434 A-H, Rees and Another v Investec Bank Ltd
2014
(4) SA 220
(SCA) at par 10.
[9]
Supra at par 11.
[10]
Rees
and Another Supra at par 12. Also see Shackleton Credit Management
(Pty) Ltd v Microzone Trading 88 CC and Another
2010 (5) SA 112
(KZP); FirstRand Bank Ltd v Beyer
2011 (1) SA 196
(GNP);
Mowschenson and Mowschenson v Mercantile Acceptance Corporation of
SA Ltd
1959 (3) SA 362
(W); Jeffrey v Andries Zietsman (Edms)
Bpk
1976 (2) SA 870
(T); Standard Bank of South Africa Ltd v
Han-Rit Boerdery CC [2011] ZAGPPHC 120; Standard Bank of South
Africa Ltd v Kroonhoek
Boerdery CC [2011] ZAGPPHC 132; Absa Bank Ltd
v Le Roux and Others
2014 (1) SA 475
(WCC).
[11]
2012
(5) SA 642
(GSJ) par 3.
[12]
(20085/2014)
[2015] ZASCA 30
(25 March 2015).
[13]
Paras
7-15.
[14]
Rules
and Regulation to the Sectional Titles Schemes Management Act 8 of
2011. GNR 1231 of 7 October 2016 Sectional Title Management
Regulations (Government Gazette No. 40335) Schedule of the Sectional
Titles Schemes Management Regulations,
Annexure
1, Management Rules.
[15]
Case Number A5002 23 September 2021.
[16]
Par 28.
[17]
Par
46.
[18]
2024
(2) SA 270
(SCA
)
at para 27.
[19]
2001 (3) SA 973 (SCA).
[20]
Ibid paras 15-18.
[21]
See vn 1 above.
[22]
Body
Corporate, Marsh Rose v Steinmuller and Others supra at par 26.
[23]
Supra
at par 27.
[24]
2010
(4) SA 232 (SCA).
[25]
See,
inter alia, Wright v Van Zyl
1951 (3) SA 488
(C); Lombard v Van
der Westhuizen
1953 (4) SA 84
(C); Soorju v Pillay
1962
(3) SA 906
(N); Shepstone v Shepstone
1974 (2) SA 462
(N) at
467; Citibank NA, South Africa Branch v Paul NO
2003 (4) SA 180
(T) at 200J–201A; He & She Investments (Pty) Ltd v
Brand NO
2019 (5) SA 492
(WCC) at 497B–C; South
African Securitisation Programme (RF) Ltd v Cellsecure Monitoring
and Response (Pty) Ltd (unreported,
GP case no 21647/2021 dated 25
November 2022) at paragraph [33].
[26]
See
Kassim Bros (Pvt) Ltd v Kassim and Another
1964 (1) SA 651
(SR) per
Hathorn ACJ at 652, 653A.
[27]
In
Shepstone v Shepstone
1974 (2) SA 462
(N) at A 467H it was held that
'a defendant may successfully resist summary judgment where his
affidavit shows that there is
a reasonable possibility that the
defence he advances may succeed on trial'.
[28]
Tredoux v Kellerman
2010 (1) SA 160
(c) at 166G
[29]
Botha v Themistocleous
1966 (1) SA 107
(T) at 110C-D, Maasdorp
and Smith v Sullivan
1964 (4) SA 2
(E) at 3B-D.
[30]
At
par 26.
sino noindex
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