Case Law[2025] ZAGPPHC 272South Africa
South African Arms and Ammunition Dealer's Association and Others v Sithole N.O and Others (23782/2022) [2025] ZAGPPHC 272 (20 March 2025)
High Court of South Africa (Gauteng Division, Pretoria)
20 March 2025
Judgment
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# South Africa: North Gauteng High Court, Pretoria
South Africa: North Gauteng High Court, Pretoria
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## South African Arms and Ammunition Dealer's Association and Others v Sithole N.O and Others (23782/2022) [2025] ZAGPPHC 272 (20 March 2025)
South African Arms and Ammunition Dealer's Association and Others v Sithole N.O and Others (23782/2022) [2025] ZAGPPHC 272 (20 March 2025)
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sino date 20 March 2025
IN THE HIGH COURT OF SOUTH AFRICA
GAUTENG DIVISION, PRETORIA
Case No:23782/2022
(1)
REPORTABLE: NO
(2)
OF INTEREST TO OTHER JUDGES: YES
(3)
REVISED.
DATED:
24 March 2025
SIGNATURE
In the matter between:
THE
SOUTH AFRICAN ARMS AND AMMUNITION
DEALER’S
ASSOCIATION
1
ST
APPLICANT
ON
BEHALF OF ITS MEMBERS
BERNHARD
AGENCIES (PTY) LIMITED
2
ND
APPLICANT
HAROLD
J DRINN (PTY) LIMITED
3
RD
APPLICANT
and
THE
NATIONAL COMMISSIONER OF THE
SOUTH
AFRICAN POLICE SERVICES
GENERAL
KJ SITHOLE N.O
(IN
HIS CAPACITY AS REGISTRAR FIREARMS)
1
ST
RESPONDENT
MAJOR
GENERAL MAMOTHETI
2
ND
RESPONDENT
(IN
HER CAPACITY AS HEAD OF THE FIREARMS,
LIQUOR
AND SECOND-HAND GOODS CONTROL
DEPARTMENT
“FLASH”)
COLONEL PN SIKHAKHANE
(IN HER CAPACITY AS SECTION HEAD,
CENTRAL FIREARMS REGISTRY)
3
RD
RESPONDENT
THE MNISTER OF
POLICE
4
TH
RESPONDENT
JUDGMENT
FRANCIS-SUBBIAH, J:
[1] The
Respondents have launched an application in terms of Rule 30 A (2) of
the Uniform Rules of
Court, seeking an order that Applicants’
main application issued on 28 April 2022 be struck out, on the basis
that the application
is defective.
Background facts
[2] The
First Applicant is an industry body that represents the majority of
firearm dealers in the
Republic of South Africa. The Second and Third
Applicants are licensed firearm dealers. All three Applicants have an
interest in
the proper administration of the
Firearms Control Act 60
of 2000
which directly affects the way their business is deemed
compliant with this Act. The Respondents are members of the South
African
Police Services and the Minister of Police.
[3] On 28
April 2022 the Applicants issued an application in terms of
rule 6
claiming relief against the Respondents requiring the Respondents to
act in a certain manner as set out in prayers 3, 4 and 12,
prohibiting respondents from acting in a certain manner as set out in
prayer 5 and various declaratory orders in prayers 1, 2,
6, 7, 8,
9,10 and 11.
[4] Part of
the relief claimed is as follows:
a)
Prayer 1 is for a declaratory order that
permanent import and export permits as contemplated by
Sections 74
,
75
and
76
of the
Firearms Control Act should
be issued not later than
21 (twenty-one) working days after the submission of same to a
designated firearm officer or alternatively,
directly to the Central
Firearms Registry.
b)
Prayer 2 requests an order that
applications may be submitted directly to the Registrar.
c)
Prayer 3 asks for an order that only
relevant information needs to be provided to the Registrar.
d)
Prayer 4 asks for an order compelling the
Respondents to provide the Applicants with a comprehensive list of
information needed
to complete certain forms.
e) Prayer 5 is for an order stating
the Respondents may not impose any other conditions on such forms, in
the form of an interdictory
relief.
f)
Prayer 12 is for an order that certain
forms may be submitted directly to the Central Firearms Registry.
There is no administrative
action contemplated in this prayer.
g)
Prayer 13 is for an order ordering the
Respondents to receive and process forms within twenty-one days.
h)
Prayer 14 asks for an order ordering the
Respondents to retain fingerprints, as specified in the
Firearms
Control Act.
>
[5] In
addition prayer 18 required the respondents to file the record of
proceedings as contemplated
by
rule 53
in the Uniform Rules of Court.
This contemplates a review application. However, the Applicants
sought to delete prayer 18 by the
proposed amendments. The
Respondents have objected to these amendments and the Applicants have
not set it down for a court hearing.
[6] The
Respondents submit that a record is fundamental in reviewing
administrative actions in terms
of the Promotion of Administrative
Justice Act 3 of 2000 (PAJA). They content that the Applicants
have failed to comply with
the provisions of the rules promulgated in
terms of section 7 of PAJA, read with Rules 6 and 53 of the Uniform
Rules of Court.
On the contrary the Applicant states that the main
application is not an application launched under PAJA, as set out at
paragraph
27 of the answering affidavit.
[7] It
is common cause between the parties that no record exists. Rule 2 of
the PAJA Rules provides
that an application to the High Court where
there is no record, or an incomplete record has been furnished, the
application shall
be brought in terms of Rule 6 or Rule 53 of the
High Court Rules. Therefore, any absence of record of proceedings
would be launched
in terms of Rule 53 of the Uniform Court Rules.
[8] The
Applicants refer to a review application for declaratory orders at
paragraph 28 of their answering
affidavit. The Constitutional Court
in
Turnball-Jackson v Hibiscus Court Municipality
2014
(6) SA 592
(CC) a
t para 37 stated the following in respect of the
fundamental importance of the Rule 53 record:
“
Undeniably,
a rule 53 record is an invaluable tool in the review process. It may
help shed light on what happened and why; give
the lie to unfounded
ex post facto (after-the-fact) justification of the decision under
review; in the substantiation of as yet
not fully substantiated
grounds of review; in giving support to the decision-maker’s
stance; and in the performance of the
reviewing court’s
function.”
[9] What
is being reviewed and set aside is crystalized and contemplated in
terms of Rule 53(2) as
follows:
“
It must be
set out in the Notice of Motion setting out the decision or
proceedings sought to be reviewed and shall be supported
by a
affidavit setting out the grounds and the facts and circumstances
upon which the Applicant relies to have the decision or
proceedings
set aside or corrected.”
It
remains unclear from the Notice of Motion what decision was taken and
what is sought to be reviewed.
[10] The applicants
on the 22
nd
of July 2022 set down the matter for hearing,
with their current notice of motion on the unopposed motions roll on
15 August 2022.
By agreement between the parties the matter was
removed from the roll with costs reserved.
[11] In the
interim the Respondents served this notice in terms of Rule 30A of
the uniform court rules that
the applicants have failed to comply
with the provisions of Rules in terms of section 7 of PAJA read with
Rules 6 and 53 of the
Uniform Rules of Court, and unless Applicants
comply with the aforesaid Rules within ten (10) days after the
delivery of the notice,
Respondents will apply to have the
application struck in accordance with the provisions of Rule 30A of
the Uniforms Rules of Court.
[12] Instead of
complying with the provisions of the Rules, the Applicants served a
notice of intention to amend
their Notice of Motion. The Respondents
objected in terms of Rule 28 (3) on 14 September 2022. Applicants
failed to set down the
Rule 28 application for hearing. The
Applicants submit that they did not persist with the intention to
amend, as a means to not
have the matter drawn out. Therefore, the
second notice of intention to amend would remove all references to
Rule 53. Rule 28 (3)
provides that “An objection to a proposed
amendment shall clearly and concisely state the grounds upon which
the objection
is founded”.
[13] Since
Applicants did not lodge an application for leave to amend in terms
of Rule 28(4) of the Uniform Rules
of Court within the prescribed
time period, it led the Respondents to lodge their application in
terms of Rule 30A (2).
[14] However, on 12 October 2022,
Applicants served their second notice of intention to amend, which
Respondents again objected
to and served on 26 October 2022, their
notice of objection in terms of Rule 28(3).
[15] Applicants
again did not lodge an application for leave to amend within the time
period stipulated in Rule
28(4) of the Uniform Rules of Court,
wherefore Respondents served their application in terms of Rule
30A(2) of the Uniform Rules
of Court on 10 November 2022.
[16] The provisions
of Rule 30A are:
“
(1) Where a
party fails to comply with these Rules or with a request made or
notice given pursuant thereto, or with an order or
direction made by
a court or in a judicial case management process referred to in rule
37A, any other party may notify the defaulting
party that he or she
intends, after the lapse of 10 days from the date of delivery of such
notification, to apply for an order-
(a) that such rule, notice, request,
order or direction be complied with; or
(b) that the claim or defence be
struck out.
(2) Where a party fails to comply
within the period of 10 days contemplated in subrule (1), application
may on notice be made to
the court and the court may make such order
thereon as it deems fit.”
[17] As much as
there is a discretion in terms of rule 30A as to what an appropriate
order should be when there
has been non-compliance with the rules. In
Helen Suzman Foundation v Judicial Service Commission,
2018 (4)
SA 1
(CC)
at para [79]
, Madlanga J held that:
“
there is no
question of an exercise of discretion, the court must determine- as
an objective question of fact or law- whether there
has been
non-compliance.”
[18] The Applicants complain that the
Respondents’ conduct is to prevent the Applicants from
rectifying its Notice of Motion
as it has no record of proceedings at
all. Further, they complain that the conduct of the Respondents is to
simply delay the filing
of its answering affidavit.
[19] The Respondents
persist that the Applicants’ application is a review
application for declaratory orders.
The Applicants contend that their
Notice of Motion in the main application does not require review and
setting aside of any action
whether in terms of PAJA, the rule of law
or any other legal basis. The founding affidavit at para 13 states
that “the purpose
of this application is to obtain clarity on
what information should be submitted for certain types of processes
stipulated in the
Firearms Control Act, how
such processes should be
submitted and what the functions and duties of relevant officials are
when completing such processing.”
How the Applicants dealt with
the request to the Respondents remain unclear.
[20] The Respondents
submit that they still do not know what case they must meet, what is
the cause of action
and before filing an answering affidavit these
issues must be clearly raised. The Applicant launched a hopeless case
and therefore
Rule 30A
is appropriate in the circumstances and be
granted.
[21] The Applicants
argue that the Notice of Motion can be amended at any time in terms
of
Rule 6
, but such amendment has not been initiated or set down.
Neither have the first and second intentions to amend been set down
for
a court hearing. The most of the Applicant’s application
relates to administrative action which are reviewable in terms of
the
provisions of PAJA or alternatively the rule of law. In addition, the
Applicant did not launch the application in terms of
Rule 53
, that is
in accordance with the Rules of Court.
[22] In particular,
prayer 18 proposes that the Notice of Motion is a review application
and what is being reviewed
in terms of
Rule 53
(2) must be clearly
set out. The Applicant fails to do this, and there are no amendments
at this stage effected to address the
veracity of the Respondents’
objections. There is no compliance with the rule on the question of
fact, read with the provisions
of
Rule 30
A (2) as contemplated in
the
Helen Suzman Foundation
case. It therefore invokes
the provisions of
Rule 30A
for a striking of the application.
[23] For the above
reasons the Respondent’s application for
Rule 30A
striking of
the Applicant’s main application succeeds with costs including
the fees of the of employment of Counsel on Scale
C.
R FRANCIS-SUBBIAH
JUDGE OF THE HIGH COURT
PRETORIA
DATE OF HEARING: 13 MARCH 2025
DATE OF JUDGMENT: 20 MARCH 2025
APPEARANCES:
COUNSEL FOR THE
APPLICANT:
ADV. M SNYMAN
SC
INSTRUCTED BY:
MJ HOOD & ASSOCIATES
COUNSEL FOR THE RESPONDENTS:
ADV I ELLIS SC
ADV MH MHAMBI
INSTRUCTED BY:
STATE ATTORNEY
Delivered:
This judgment is handed down electronically by circulation to the
Parties/their legal representatives by email and by
uploading to
Caselines. The date and time of hand-down
is
deemed to be 14H00
on 20 March 2025.
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