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# South Africa: North Gauteng High Court, Pretoria
South Africa: North Gauteng High Court, Pretoria
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## Minister of Police v Rafiki (2630/2012)
[2025] ZAGPPHC 323 (25 March 2025)
Minister of Police v Rafiki (2630/2012)
[2025] ZAGPPHC 323 (25 March 2025)
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sino date 25 March 2025
REPUBLIC
OF SOUTH AFRICA
IN
THE HIGH COURT OF SOUTH AFRICA
GAUTENG DIVISION,
PRETORIA
Case No.: 2630/2012
(1)
REPORTABLE: NO
(2)
OF INTEREST TO OTHER JUDGES: NO
(3)
REVISED.
25/03/2025
MNGQIBISA-THUSI
J
In
the matter between:
MINISTER
OF POLICE
Applicant
and
H
RAFIKI
Respondent
In
re
:
Case No: 2630/2012
HERERIMANA
RAFIKI
Plaintiff
and
THE
MINISTER OF POLICE
1
st
Defendant
CITY
OF TSHWANE METROPOLITAN MUNICIPALITY
2
nd
Defendant
JUDGMENT
MNGQIBISA-THUSI
J
[1]
The respondent, Mr Hererimana Rafiki, instituted an action
for
general and special damages against the applicant, the Minister of
Police (as first defendant) and the City of Tshwane Metropolitan
Municipality (as the second defendant) after allegedly being shot
with rubber bullets by members of the first and second respondents
on
21 September 2011 (the main action). As a result of being shot
in the eye, the respondent sustained a shattered cavity
and eyeball.
[2]
In pursuance of the prosecution of the claim against
the applicant
and the City of Tshwane, a pre-trial meeting was held on 12 May
2015. Counsel for the City of Tshwane posed
certain written
questions to the respondent’s legal representative which were
responded to in writing by the respondent’s
legal
representative 13 May 2012.
[3]
The trial proceeded in March 2018. However, during
the trial
proceedings, counsel for the respondent applied for a postponement of
the trial as it appeared that instructions he received
from the
respondent with regard to when (in terms of time period) the shooting
occurred, were inconsistent with the written answers
given by the
respondent’s legal representative and recorded in the pre-trial
minute. In granting the postponement,
the court ordered the
respondent to bring a substantive application for leave to amend the
answers in the pre-trial minute.
[4]
The respondent launched an application for leave to amend
the
pre-trial minute of 12 May 2015 in relation to the written responses
referred to in paragraph 3 above. The application
was granted
by default on 22 February 2022 as neither of the defendants had
indicated opposition to the application.
[5]
The claim against the second defendant was withdrawn
after the
respondent and the City of Tshwane reached a settlement.
[6]
The applicant now seeks the rescission of the default
order of 22
February 2022 granting leave to the respondent to amend its answers
as recorded in the pre-trial minute of 12 May 2015
and a declaration
that the respondent’s answers to the second defendant’s
questions at the pre-trial conference reduced
to writing on 13 May
2015, are reinstated as the recorded answers to such questions.
[7]
The applicant seeks the rescission of the default order
on the ground
that the order was granted erroneously granted or erroneously applied
for, alternatively, under common law.
[8]
Rule 42(1)(a) provides that:
“
A court may, in
addition to any other powers it may have,
mero motu
or upon
application of any party affected, rescind or vary:
(a)
an order or judgment erroneously sought or erroneously granted
in the
absence of any party affected thereby”.
[9]
This means
that the applicant has to show that the court in granting the default
judgment had committed an error “in the sense
of a mistake in a
matter of law appearing on the proceedings of a Court of
record
[1]
. If
the applicant can prove the error committed by the court, it is not
necessary for him to explain his default.
[10]
In
Kgomo
and Another v Standard Bank of South Africa and others
[2]
,
in
relation to the application of uniform rule 42(1)(a), the court
held that:
“
[11.1]
the rule must
be
understood against its
common law background;
[11.2] the basic
principle at common law is that once a judgment has been granted, the
judge becomes
functus
officio,
but
subject to certain exceptions of which rule 42(1)(a) is one;
[11.3]
the rule caters for a mistake in
the
proceedings;
[11.4] the mistake may
either be one which appears on the record of proceedings or one which
subsequently becomes apparent from
the information made available in
an application for rescission of judgment;
[11.5]
a
judgment
cannot be said to have been granted
erroneously in
the
light of a subsequently
disclosed
defence which was
not known or raised at the time of default
judgment;
[11.6] the error may
arise either in the process of seeking the judgment on the part of
the applicant for default judgment or in
the process of granting
default judgment on the part of the court; and
[11.7] the applicant for
rescission is not required to show, over and above the error, that
there is good cause for the rescission
as contemplated in rule
31(2)(b).”
[11]
Under the
common law, in order for the court to grant an order rescinding a
previous order or judgment the applicant has to show
sufficient
cause. In
Chetty
v Law Society, Transvaal
[3]
the court held that:
“
But it is clear
that in principle and in the long standing practice of our Courts two
essential elements of “sufficient cause”
for rescission
of a judgment by default are:
(i)
That the party seeking relief must present a reasonable
and
acceptable explanation for his default; and
(ii)
That on the merits such party has a bona fide defence,
which
prima
facie
carries some prospect of success.”
[12]
The deponent to the applicant’s founding affidavit alleges that
the respondent
was not aware of the amendment application or about
the set-down for hearing of the application on 22 February 2022.
It is
the applicant’s contention that the procedure followed in
the application to amend the pre-trial minute was flawed in that
there was no proper service of the application on the applicant.
[13]
Even though the applicant alleges that he was not aware of the
amendment application
and the set-down of 22 February 2022, as
appears from the documents filed of record and uploaded on Caselines,
it cannot be disputed
that there is a notice of set-down with a date
stamp of the office of the State Attorney’s office, indicative
of the fact
that service of the notice of set-down was in fact
effected on the State Attorney’s office on 19 November 2021.
It
is further the applicant’s contention that even if the
notice of set-down bears the date stamp of the State Attorney’s
office, that is not proof that the notice of set-down was actually
served on the State attorney’s office as the signature
on the
date stamp was still being verified by the office of the State
Attorney.
[14]
According to the respondent, the notice of motion in the application
to amend
was served under the cover of the notice of set-down and
that both documents were physically served on the State Attorney’s
office on 19 November 2021. Further that although the notice of
set-down bears the State Attorney’s date stamp, for
whatever
reason, the person who received service of the two documents, did not
attach the date stamp of the office on the notice
of motion of the
application.
[15]
Counsel for the applicant further submitted that based on the
respondent’s
own admission that the notice of motion was served
under cover of a notice of set-down when it was received at the State
Attorney’s
office on 19 November 2021, such service could not
warn the State Attorney that there is a new application that was been
brought
against the State. Mr Govender who deposed to the
founding affidavit on behalf of the applicant alleges that the
application
to amend the pre-trial minutes was never received by the
State Attorney’s office. Counsel argued that it does not
make
sense for a notice of set-down to be served when the main
application has not been served. Counsel argued that under those
circumstances
there was no service of the application as it is
apparent from the notice of motion that there is no date stamp of the
State Attorney’s
office confirming receipt of the application.
[16]
Counsel for the applicant argued that there was therefore no proper
service
of the application for leave to amend on the applicant and
that the order granted allowing the amendment of the pre-trial
minutes
was erroneously granted.
[17]
The applicant’s contention is that the uploaded notice of set//
down
properly. It is common cause that the application seeking
leave to amend the pre-trial minutes was served under the cover
of a
notice of set- down. As is apparent from the
documents uploaded on Caselines the notice of set-down has
the stamp
of the State Attorney’s office which is dated 19 November 2021.
[18]
On behalf of the respondent the following submissions were made.
On 14
September 2021 the following documents were uploaded on
Caselines: the application was for leave to amend the pre-trial
answers;
a ‘compliance declaration’; a ‘Date
Approval form and Date of Set Down-Provisional’ form.
Counsel
for the respondent conceded that the notice of motion for the
amendment application was served, attached to the notice of set-down
and that both were served on the State Attorney’s office on 19
November 2021 and that the person receiving the documents
only put a
stamp on the notice of set-down to which the application for leave to
amend the answers was attached. This submission
is confirmed by
Mr Henk Meyer who deposed to a confirmatory affidavit to the
respondent’s opposing affidavit in this application
that he
actually served the notice of set-down to which was attached the
notice of motion in the application for the amendment
of the
pre-trial minutes on 19 November 2021. Counsel for the
respondent further submitted that on 1 February 2022 prior
to the
order which is sought to be rescinded, was granted, and in accordance
with the Practice Directive, the respondent’s
attorney attended
the office of the State Attorney to serve an index together with a
complete set of paginated papers of the application.
[19]
Counsel argued that since the application was served on the State
Attorney’s
office on 19 November 2021 and also on 2 February
2022, the applicant chose not to participate in the proceeding
dealing with the
application to amend the pre-trial minute.
Council submitted that even if it were to be assumed that the
applicant
did not receive the notice of motion on 19 November 2021,
on receipt of the index and the paginated papers of the application,
the applicant still had the opportunity to oppose the amendment
application by filing a notice of intention to oppose and appear
in
court on 22 February2022 to oppose the application.
[20]
The second
point of opposition raised by the respondent to the granting of the
order sought by the applicant is that in terms of
uniform 42(1)(a),
an application of an order erroneously sought or granted must be
launched without a unreasonable delay
[4]
.
Counsel for the respondent further submitted that on 28
February 2022, a letter was sent by email to Mr Govender, the
relevant
State Attorney handling this matter which in part reads as
follows:
“
Find attached
hereto a draft order which was made an order of court on the 2
February 2022, allowing the plaintiff/applicant to
amend its answers
to the second defendant’s pre-trial questions answered on 12
May 2015.”
…
“
Also find attached
hereto our amended answers and these documents, together with the
endorsed court order will be served on your
offices in due course. “
[21]
Counsel further submitted that a further pre-trial was held between
the parties
on 20 September 2022 and in a joint pre-trial minute
signed by the parties, the following is recorded:
“
The
plaintiff obtained a court order to amend the answers to the
pre-trial questions on 22 February 2022 and a formal amendment
has
been effected in accordance to the court order of Justice Van der
Westhuizen.”
[22]
Counsel for the respondent argued that this is indicative of the fact
that
by 28 February 2022 the State Attorney’s office was aware
that a draft order had been granted. The amended answers were
served on the State Attorney on 7 March 2022. Counsel submitted
that it was disingenuous for the applicant to claim that
it only got
knowledge of the court order on the 23 May 2023.
[23]
Counsel argued that despite the State Attorney’s office having
knowledge
of the order on 28 February 2022, this application was only
instituted approximately 16 months later.
[24]
With regards to the arguments that service of the order on the 2
February 2022
did not provide or give the applicant sufficient time
to oppose the application counsel for the respondent argue that the
application
and application to amend is an interlocutory application
and it is does not mean that the long form needs to be used.
[25]
It cannot be disputed that on 19 November 2021 the respondent
effected service
of the notice of set-down of the application on the
office of the State Attorney as evidenced by the date stamp
reflected. As contended
for by the respondent, attached to that
notice of set-down was a notice of motion of the application for
leave to amend the pre-trial
minute of 13 May 2015. The denial
of receipt of the notice of set-down by the applicant is not
plausible when one takes into
account the date stamp put on the
notice of set-down. Invariably, one would expect that when the
state attorney responsible
for dealing with the matter received the
notice of set-down, it would naturally be expected that he/she would
peruse the papers
and would have realised that a notice of motion was
attached to the notice of set- down. Even if the State Attorney
did not
find the notice of motion as alleged to be attached to the
notice of set-down, one would have expected the relevant state
attorney
to have inquired from the respondent’s attorney as to
what the served notice of set-down related to. Moreover, 01
February
2022 the respondent’s attorney attended at the State
Attorney’s where the index and paginated complete set of the
application
were delivered. The papers delivered on that day
all bear the date stamp of the State Attorney’s office.
[26]
Even if one was to accept that by 01 February 2022 there was
insufficient time
given to the applicant to file its notice of
intention to oppose and its answering affidavit before the date of
the hearing of
the application on 22 February 2022, the applicant’s
representative could have appeared in court as directed so by the
notice
of set-down already served on the State Attorney’s
office on 19 November 2021 and 1 February 2022 and let the court
hearing
the matter be aware that the application was now opposed as
the applicant had not been served with the application. The
hearing
of the application would not have proceeded by default under
the circumstances.
[27]
I am therefore satisfied that the applicant has not made out a case
for the
rescission of the order dated 22 February 2022 on the basis
that the application was not served or not properly served on the
applicant.
[28]
Furthermore, the applicant must have become aware of the order
granted on 22
February 2022 by at least the 7 March 2022 when the
court endorsed draft order was served on the State Attorney’s
office
but failed to apply for the rescission of the order within
reasonable time and have failed to give a reasonable explanation for
such failure. The applicant’s explanation that it only
became aware of the order in May 2023 is not plausible bearing
in
mind the chronology of events from the time the order was granted,
including the contents of the joint signed pre-trial minute
of 20
September 2022.
[29]
In the result, the following order is made:
‘
The
application is dismissed with costs, including costs of two counsel.’
NP
MNGQIBISA-THUSI
Judge
of the High Court
Date
of hearing :30 October 2024
Date
of Judgment :25 March 2025
Appearances
For the Applicant:
Adv M Bothma
(Instructed by The State Attorneys, Pretoria)
For the Respondent:
Adv G Bester SC
with Adv P A Venter (Instructed by Loubser Van Der Walt Inc
[1]
Bakoven
Ltd v GJ Howes (Pty) Ltd
1992 (2) SA 466 (ECD).
[2]
2016
(2) SA 184 (GP).
[3]
1985
(2) SA 756
at 765
B-C.
[4]
Reference
in this regard was made to
Colyn
v Tiger Foods Industries Ltd t/a Meadow Feed (Cape)
where the court held that the purpose of rule 42(1)(a) is to correct
expeditiously.
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