Case Law[2025] ZAGPPHC 687South Africa
Noormohamed v Wealthy JT Brothers (Pty) Ltd (049270/2024) [2025] ZAGPPHC 687 (27 June 2025)
High Court of South Africa (Gauteng Division, Pretoria)
27 June 2025
Headnotes
judgment. I will hereinafter refer to the
Judgment
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# South Africa: North Gauteng High Court, Pretoria
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## Noormohamed v Wealthy JT Brothers (Pty) Ltd (049270/2024) [2025] ZAGPPHC 687 (27 June 2025)
Noormohamed v Wealthy JT Brothers (Pty) Ltd (049270/2024) [2025] ZAGPPHC 687 (27 June 2025)
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IN
THE HIGH COURT OF SOUTH AFRICA
GAUTENG
DIVISION, PRETORIA
Case
No:
049270/2024
(1)
REPORTABLE: YES/NO
(2)
OF INTREST TO OTHER JUDGES: YES/NO
(3)
REVISED
In
the matter between:
NAZEER
NOORMOHAMED
Plaintiff/Applicant
and
WEALTHY
JT BROTHERS (PTY) LTD
Defendant/Respondent
JUDGMENT
J.F.
GROBLER, AJ
[1]
This is an application for summary judgment. I will
hereinafter refer to the
Applicant
in the summary judgment application as the Plaintiff and to the
Respondent as the Defendant.
[2]
The Plaintiff issued Summons against the Defendant for the
payment of the purchase price (i.e. for a liquidated amount of money)
of immovable property in terms of a Deed of Sale and Addendum
thereto, respectively attached to the Particulars of Claim as
Annexures "A"
and “
B”.
[3]
The Defendant entered appearance to defend and filed a Plea,
whereupon the Plaintiff applied for summary judgment. The Defendant
filed an opposing affidavit in terms of Rule 32(3)(b) of the Uniform
Rules of Court.
[4]
Rule 32(3)(b) requires of a Defendant to satisfy the Court
that the Defendant has a
bona fide
defence to the Plaintiff’s
action and to disclose fully the nature and grounds of the defence
and the material facts relied
upon therefor.
[5]
The word “
fully”
in the context of Rule 32,
as stated in
Maharaj v. Barclays National Bank Ltd,
1976(1)
SA (AD) on 426 A to E
, connotes that:
“…
While the Defendant
need not deal exhaustively with the facts and the evidence relied
upon to substantiate them, he must at least
disclose his defence and
material facts upon which it is based with sufficient particularity
and completeness to enable the Court
to decide whether the affidavit
discloses a bona fide defence. … At the same time the
Defendant is not expected to formulate
his opposition to the claim
with the precision that would be required of a plea; nor does the
Court examine it by the standards
of pleading. …”
[Authorities omitted]
[6]
The
Maharaj
- matter was of course decided
before the amendment of Rule 32 by GN842 of 31 May 2019. The Rule,
before its amendment, provided
for a Plaintiff to apply for summary
judgment within 15 (fifteen) days of the date of delivery of a Notice
of Intention to Defend.
Plaintiffs in summary judgment applications
before the 2019 amendment, brought the summary judgment applications
without the benefit
of knowing the particulars of the defence that is
being raised by the Defendant against the Plaintiff’s claim.
[7]
In summary judgment applications after the 2019 amendment,
Plaintiffs bring the summary judgment applications with the benefit
of
knowing what the particulars are of defence that is being raised
against the Plaintiffs’ claim. In applications for summary
judgment after the 2019 amendment to Rule 32, Plaintiffs are in terms
of the amended Rule 32(2)(b) required to
inter alia, “…
explain briefly why the defence pleaded does not raise any issue for
trial.”.
[8]
The Plaintiffs’ obligations in terms of the amended Rule
32(2)(b) was described as follows in the matter of
Tumileng
Trading CC v. National Security and Fire (Pty) Ltd
,
2020(6) SA 624(WCC) at paragraphs [21] and [22]
:
“
[21] The requirement
that the Plaintiff’s supporting affidavit should explain
briefly why the pleaded defence ‘does
not raise an issue for
trial’ is of more interest. It cannot be taken literally,
for a plea that did that would be
excipiable, and there is no
indication that the amended summary judgment procedure is intended as
an alternative to the exception
procedure. For the reasons given
later with regard to cases before me, I consider that the amended
rule 32(2)(b) makes sense only
if the word ‘genuinely’ is
read in before the word ‘raise’ so that the pertinent
phrase reads ‘Explain
briefly why the defence as pleaded does
not
genuinely
raise an issue for trial’.
In other words, the Plaintiff is not required to explain that the
plea is excipiable. It is required
to explain why it is contended
that the pleaded defence is a sham. That much is implicit in what the
task team said in paragraph
8.3 of its memorandum. The position would
have been made clearer had the words ‘does not make out a bona
fide defence’
been used. That would have made for a more
clearly discernible connection between the respective requirements of
subrules (2)(b)
and (3)(b). That there be such a connection is
necessary if the amended rule as a whole is to be workable.
[22] What the
amended rule does seem to do is to require of a Plaintiff to consider
very carefully its ability to allege
a belief that the Defendant does
not have a bona fide defence. This is because the Plaintiff’s
supporting affidavit now falls
to be made in the context of the
deponent’s knowledge of the content of a delivered plea. That
provides a plausible reason
for the requirement of something more
than a ‘formulaic’ supporting affidavit from the
Plaintiff. The Plaintiff is
now required to engage with the content
of the plea in order to substantiate its averments that the defence
is not bona fide and
has been raised merely for the purposes of
delay.”
[9]
In summary judgment applications after the 2019 amendment,
Defendants depose to the affidavits resisting the summary judgment
applications
with the benefit of knowing why the Plaintiffs contend
that the defence as pleaded does not raise an issue for trial.
Defendants
are, in my view, required to deal fully with the nature
and grounds of the defence and the material facts relied upon
therefor,
having regard to the Plaintiff’s brief explanation of
why the defence as pleaded does not raise any issue for trial. This
must, following in the wake of the
Maharaj
judgment
referred to above, be done with sufficient particularity and
completeness to enable the Court to decide whether the Defendant’s
affidavit discloses a
bona fide
defence.
[10]
The
Tumileng Trading
-judgment referred to the
contents of the Defendant’s opposing affidavit after the 2019
amendment as follows:
“
[24] …, rule
32(3)(b), which provides for what is required in a Defendant’s
opposing affidavit, remains as it
was before, … . As has
always been the position, the opposing affidavit must ‘disclose
fully the nature and grounds
of the defence and the material facts
relied upon therefor’. The purpose of the opposing affidavit
also remains, as is historically
the case, to demonstrate that the
Defendant ‘has a bona fide defence to the action’. There
is thus no substantive change
in the nature of the ‘burden’,
if that is what it is, placed on a Defendant in terms of the
procedure. However, the
broader form of supporting affidavit that is
contemplated in terms of the amended rule 32(2)(b) will in some cases
require more
of a Defendant in respect of the content of its opposing
affidavit than was the case in the pre-amendment regime, for the
Defendant
will be expected to engage with the Plaintiff’s
averments concerning the pleaded defence. …
[25] The
assessment of whether a defence is bona fide is made with regard to
the manner in which it has been substantiated
in the opposing
affidavit, viz. upon a consideration of the extent to which ‘the
nature and grounds of the defence and the
material facts relied upon
therefor’ have been canvassed by the deponent. That was
the method by which the Court traditionally
tested, insofar as it was
possible on paper, whether the defence described by the Defendant was
‘contrived’, in other
words, not bona fide. And the
amended subrule 32(3)(b) implies that it should continue to be the
indicated method. (If a case gives
rise to a Defendant being able to
cogently rely on ‘technical points’, it was, and remains,
entitled to do so.)
[26] The
traditional import of the requirement that the facts relied upon by a
Defendant be ‘fully’ disclosed
was mentioned earlier in
this judgment. It may be, now that the opposing affidavit falls to be
made after the Defendant’s
plea has been delivered, that more
is required of the Defendant in terms of the amended rules than was
previously demanded. After
all, the qualification by Corbett JA in
Maharaj
supra loc cit, that ‘the Defendant
is not expected to formulate his opposition to the claim with the
precision that would
be required of a plea; nor does the Court
examine it by the standards of pleading’, sounds incongruous
when the Court adjudicating
the summary judgment already has the plea
before it. But if the requirements are indeed more stringent, does it
mean that the intention
behind amendment was to make the procedure
more draconian or drastic than it used to be? I doubt it.”
[11]
On my understanding of the current wording of Rule 32 and the
authorities referred to above, the parties in a summary judgment
application
is required to deal succinctly and clearly with the
issues in dispute and summary judgment should be refused if the Court
concludes
upon a consideration of the papers before the court,
including the Defendant’s affidavit that there is a
bona
fide
defence to the action.
THE
NATURE AND GROUNDS OF THE DEFENCE AND THE MATERIAL FACTS RELIED UPON
BY THE DEFENDANT AND THE PLAINTIFF'S BRIEF EXPLANATION
WHY THE
DEFENCE AS PLEADED DOES NOT RAISE ANY ISSUE FOR TRIAL:
[12]
In the Defendant’s Plea, the Defendant admitted that the
Defendant signed the Deed of Sale and the Addendum attached to the
Particulars of Claim as
Annexures “A” and “B”.
The Defendant, however, referred to the annexure to the Deed of
Sale (i.e an annexure to
Annexure “A”
) and denied
that the Plaintiff is “
the seller”
in terms of the
Deed of Sale, pleading specifically that the Plaintiff “…
is not listed as the seller of the movable property in terms of
the Deed of Sale …”
. The annexure to the Deed of
Sale lists ”Nazprop Property Management” in the table
appearing under the heading “Details
of Seller”.
The Defendant consequently pleaded that the Plaintiff is not
vested with any rights in terms of the Deed of Sale and that he lacks
the necessary
locus standi
to bring the action. In the
alternative to pleading that the Plaintiff is not “
the
seller”
and “
not listed as the seller … in
terms of the Deed of Sale”
, the Defendant alleges that the
Deed of Sale is invalid in that it does not comply with the
requirements of Section 2(1) as read
with Sections (6)(a) and (c) of
the Alienation of Land Act, Act No. 68 of 1981.
[13]
In the Plaintiff’s brief explanation of why the defence
as pleaded does not raise any issue for trial, he stated inter alia
the following:
[13.1] He has personal knowledge
of the negotiations and he signed the Deed of Sale and the Addendum
thereto (
Annexures “A”
and “
B”
to
the Particulars of Claim);
[13.2] He was at the time of the
signing of the Deed of Sale on or about 29 November 2023 and at the
time of the signing of
the Addendum on or about 23 January 2024,
represented by and acting care of Nazprop Property Management;
[13.3] He stated that it is
clear from a mere perusal of the Deed of Sale and the Addendum that
there was a manuscript amendment
and that his name was inserted in
manuscript, duly initialled by both himself and the Defendant, where
the seller is identified
in the Agreement of Sale (
Annexure "A"
to the Particulars of Claim) and the Addendum (
Annexure "B"
to the Particulars of Claim);
[13.4] He explained that
“
Nazprop Property Management”
was merely used as a
forwarding address for himself, but that both the agreement and the
addendum indicate that he is the seller.
[13.5] He was at all material
times and still is in a position to do all that is required to ensure
transfer of the property
to the Defendant subject to the Defendant
making payment of the amount claimed;
[13.6] He tendered performance
(registration of transfer of the property to the Defendant) against
compliance of the terms
of the agreement by the Defendant;
[13.7] He explained that the
agreement is compliant with Section 2(1) of the Alienation of Land
Act as the alienation is contained
in a Deed of Alienation signed
respectively by the Plaintiff and the Defendant;
[13.8] He explained that the
agreement complies with Section 6(1)(a) of the Alienation of Land Act
in that the names and addresses
of both parties appear on the
agreement with their respective residential or business addresses;
[13.9] He explained that Section
6(1)(c) of the Alienation of Land Act does not find application
because he is the seller
and the owner of the land and he does
therefore not need to provide details of any other party.
[14]
In the affidavit resisting Plaintiff’s application for
summary judgment, the Defendant stated the following in compliance
with the requirement to disclose fully the nature and grounds of the
defence and the material facts relied upon therefor as required
in
Rule 32(3)(b):
[14.1] The Defendant alleged
that the Plaintiff’s claim for summary judgment is based on a
liquid document and that
the Plaintiff failed to comply with Rule
32(2)(c) in that it failed to annex the liquid document to the
application for summary
judgment;
[14.2]
The Defendant stated that Nazprop Property Management is identified
as the seller in the Deed of Sale (
Annexure "A"
to
the Particulars of Claim) and that the Plaintiff is stated as being
the representative of Nazprop Property Management;
[14.3] The Defendant again
alleged that the Plaintiff was not vested with any rights In terms of
the Deed of Sale and the
Addendum thereto, that he cannot enforce the
terms of the Deed of Sale and that he consequently lacks the
necessary
locus standi;
[14.4] The Defendant again
repeated the allegation that the Deed of Sale is invalid for a lack
of complying with the requirements
of Section 2(1) as read with
Section 6)(1)(a) and (c) of the Alienation of Land Act;
[14.5] The Defendant stated that
the Plaintiff does not explain who signed the agreement and in what
capacity (paragraphs
18 and 22 of the affidavit resisting summary
judgment);
[14.6] The Defendant stated that
the Plaintiff failed to explain why Nazprop is listed as the seller
and why the prerequisites
of the Act have not been complied with
(paragraph 31 of the affidavit resisting summary judgment).
[15]
In addition to the aforementioned defences, Ms. van Niekerk on
behalf of the Defendant, during the course of argument, also
submitted
that the Plaintiff failed to comply with the peremptory
requirements of Section 19(1) of the Alienation of Land Act.
DISCUSSION:
[16]
I need to consider whether the facts alleged by the Defendant
constitute a good defence in law and whether that defence appears to
be
bona fide.
[17]
The Defendant’s defence primarily rests on an assertion
that the seller is not clearly identified in the Deed of Sale and the
Addendum.
[18]
The Deed of Sale (
Annexure "A"
to the
Particulars of Claim) identifies the seller as “
N.
Noormohamed c/o”
- which Ms. van Niekerk on behalf of the
Defendant conceded can only be interpreted as being an abbreviation
for the words “care
of” - “
From: Nazprop
Property Management
(The Seller)
”. The insertion of
“
N. Noormohamed c/o”
was made in manuscript and
initialled by both the Plaintiff and the Defendant’s
representative.
[19]
The Addendum (
Annexure "B"
to the Particulars
of Claim) contains the same manuscript amendment. The words “
Nazeer
Mohamed c/o
” was inserted in manuscript immediately above
the words ”
Nazprop Property Management
(Hereinafter
referred to as The Seller)
”. The manuscript amendment was
again duly initialled by the parties.
[20]
Having been made aware of the particulars of the Defendant’s
defence as set out in the Plea, the Plaintiff in my view succeeded
in
explaining satisfactorily that he was identified as the seller by the
manuscript amendments inserted in both the Deed of Sale
(
Annexure
"A"
) and the Addendum (
Annexure "B"
).
The Plaintiff furthermore confirmed that he is the owner of the
property (paragraph 5.7.3 of the affidavit supporting the
summary
judgment application) and he tendered registration of transfer of the
property to the Defendant against compliance of the
terms of the
agreement by the Defendant.
[21]
The Defendant did not address the Plaintiff’s
explanation relating to the manuscript insertions in both the Deed of
Sale and
the Addendum in the affidavit resisting the summary judgment
application. One would have expected the Defendant to clearly address
the manuscript amendments in the opposing affidavit if the Defendant
truly was uncertain about the identity of the seller in the
transaction. If the Defendant was uncertain about the identity of the
seller at the time of signing the Deed of Sale (on or about
29
November 2023) and the Addendum (on or about 23 January 2024), one
would have expected the Defendant to state / explain why
the
manuscript amendments were made and why he maintains that the seller
is not clearly identified. The Defendant did not substantiate
the
defence raised in the plea by stating necessary material facts.
[22]
I am accordingly unable to find that the Defendant’s
defence relating to an uncertainty about the identity of the seller
constitutes
a good defence in law and I am unable to find that the
defence raised appears to be
bona fide.
[23]
The Defendant’s defence relating to the non-compliance
with the specified provisions of the Alienation of Land Act remains
to be considered.
[24]
Section 2(1) of the Alienation of Land Act is found in
“
Chapter I of the Act (Formalities in Respect of Deeds of
Alienation) (ss2 – 3)
” and provides as follows:
“
2. Formalities in
Respect of Alienation of Land
(1)
No
alienation of land after the commencement of this section shall,
subject to the provisions of section 28, be of any force or
effect
unless it is contained in a deed of alienation signed by the parties
thereto or by their agents acting on their written
authority.”
[25]
The “deed of alienation” was signed by the
Plaintiff and the duly authorised representative of the Defendant. As
stated
above, the Defendant admitted that the Defendant signed the
Deed of Sale as well as the Annexure (paragraph 3 of the Defendant’s
Plea).
[26]
I accordingly find that the deed of alienation complies with
the provisions of Section 2(1) of the Alienation of Land Act.
[27]
The Defendant’s reliance on Section 6(a) and (c) and
Section 19(1) of the Alienation of Land Act is misplaced. Section 6
and
Section 19 of the Alienation of Land Act falls in Chapter II of
the Act with the heading: “
Sale of Land on Instalments”
(ss4 – 25)
”. Upon a simple reading of the
provisions of Chapter II, it applies only to a sale of land on
instalments.
[28]
Section 6(1)(a) and (c) provide as follows:
“
6. Contents of
Contract
(1)
A contract
shall contain:
(a)
The names
of the purchaser and the seller and their residential or business
addresses in the Republic;
(b)
…
.
(c)
If the
seller is not the owner of the land, the name and address of that
owner;”
[29]
The definition of “
contract”
in Section 1
of the Alienation of Land Act is as follows:
“ ‘
Contract’
(a)
Means a
deed of alienation under which land is sold against payment by the
purchaser to, or to any person on behalf of, the seller
of an amount
of money in more than two instalments over a period exceeding one
year;
(b)
Includes
any agreement or agreements which together have the same import,
whatever form the agreement or agreements may take;”
[30]
The Deed of Sale and the Addendum does not make provision for
payment by the purchaser of an amount in money in more than two
instalments
over a period exceeding one year. I accordingly find that
Chapter II of the Alienation of Land Act is not applicable to the
Deed
of Sale and the Annexure.
[31]
In support of the aforementioned finding and the Defendant’s
reliance on Section 19 of the Alienation of Land Act, it suffices
to
refer to
Merry Hill (Pty) Ltd v. Engelbrecht,
2008(2)
SA 544 (SCA), paragraph [13]
where the following was stated:
“
[13] In considering
the meaning of s19(2)(c), this Court therefore has the benefit of
well-reasoned judgments supporting
both points of view, as well as
the contributions by academic authors referred to in those cases. Let
me start with a proposition
which appears to be beyond contention,
namely that the purpose of ch2 of the Act, which includes s19, is to
afford protection,
in addition to what the contract may provide, to a
particular type of purchaser – a purchaser who pays by
instalments –
of a particular type of land – land used or
intended to be used mainly for residential purposes. In this sense,
ch2, like
its predecessor, the Sale of Land on Instalments Act, 72 of
1971 can be described as a typical piece of consumer protection
legislation.
…”
[32]
I am accordingly unable to find that the Defendant’s
reliance on Section 6(1)(a) and (c) and Section 19(1) of the
Alienation
of Land Act constitute a good defence in law.
HAVING
REGARD TO ALL OF THE ABOVE, SUMMARY JUDGMENT IS GRANTED IN THE
FOLLOWING TERMS:
1. The Defendant is ordered to
pay to the Plaintiff the amount of R3,500,786.00;
2. The Defendant is ordered to
pay interest
a tempore morae
from the date of Summons to date
of final payment;
3. The Plaintiff is ordered,
upon payment of the amount of R3,500,786.00, to take all necessary
steps to pass transfer of
the property, Erf 1[…] C[…],
8[…] L[…] Road, Centurion, to the Defendant;
4. The Defendant is ordered to
pay the Plaintiff’s costs of suit, costs of counsel on Scale B.
SIGNED
AT PRETORIA ON THIS THE 27
th
DAY OF JUNE 2025.
J.F.
GROBLER AJ
ACTING
JUDGE OF THE GAUTENG DIVISION, PRETORIA
Date
of hearing:
24 April 2025
Date
of Judgment:
27 June 2025
For
the Plaintiff:
Adv. J. Mouton
Instructed
by:
Sharief & Associates Inc
On
behalf of the Defendants:
Adv. Van Niekerk
On
instructions of:
Padayachee Attorneys
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