Case Law[2025] ZAGPPHC 1061South Africa
Phaahla v National Council for Correctional Service and Others (2023/011042) [2025] ZAGPPHC 1061 (3 October 2025)
Judgment
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# South Africa: North Gauteng High Court, Pretoria
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## Phaahla v National Council for Correctional Service and Others (2023/011042) [2025] ZAGPPHC 1061 (3 October 2025)
Phaahla v National Council for Correctional Service and Others (2023/011042) [2025] ZAGPPHC 1061 (3 October 2025)
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sino date 3 October 2025
IN THE HIGH COURT OF
SOUTH AFRICA
GAUTENG DIVISION,
PRETORIA
CASE NO: 2023-011042
DEL
ETE
WHICHEVER IS NOT APPLICABLE
(1)
REPORTABLE:
YES
(2)
OF INTEREST TO OTHER JUDGES:
YES
(3)
REVISED.
In the matter between:
OUPA CHIPANE
PHAAHLA
Applicant
And
NATIONAL COUNCIL
FOR CORRECTIONAL SERVICE
First Respondent
THE MINISTER OF
CORRECTIONAL SERVICE
Second Respondent
THE CORRECTIONAL
SUPERVISION AND PAROLE SERVICE
Third Respondent
JUDGMENT
TD SENEKE, AJ
INTRODUCTION
1.
The Applicant brought an application
seeking the following orders:
“
1.
The first and second Respondents’ decision taken on the 23
rd
of December 2024 and approved by the second Respondent, the Minister,
on the 09
th
of January 2025 is to be reviewed and set aside on the grounds of
irrationality, unlawfulness and arbitrary in terms of PAJA and
the
Constitution.
2. The
Respondents to be ordered to release me on parole on condition that l
continue to attend the programs listed
in their further profile while
on parole within 15 (Fifteen) days of the order.
3.
The Respondents to pay the costs of this application on Attorney and
Client scale.”
[1]
BACKGROUND
2.
The Applicant was part of a group of
individuals who committed armed robbery of a cash carrying vehicle on
17 December 1997. There
were 18 individuals who were involved in the
armed robbery.
3.
When the cash carrying vehicle (cash
vehicle) approached Marble Hall, Limpopo, the Applicant’s group
of robbers used a truck
to collide head on with the cash vehicle. The
head on collision with the cash vehicle resulted in the death of six
security guards.
4.
Some of the members of the group of 18, who
were hiding in the bushes nearby, approached the cash vehicle and
took the money therefrom.
They all drove to Jane Furse, Sekhukhune
district, Limpopo province, where they divided the money amongst
themselves. The estimated
amount that they robbed from the cash
vehicle is R10 000 000.00 (Ten Million Rand). They divided
the money equally and
each of them received an amount of R450 000.00.
5.
Upon the arrest of the shop owner where the
truck that was used to collide head on with the cash vehicle was
parked, the Applicant
and his accomplices were subsequently arrested.
The shop owner gave the names of the group of individuals who were
involved in
the armed robbery of the cash vehicle.
6.
The
Applicant was subjected to a court trial for six years and ten
months. He did not plead guilty to the case as he believed that
the
state did not have enough evidence to convict him.
[2]
7.
The
group of 15 individuals including the Applicant were convicted of
crimes ranging from aggravated robbery, six counts of murder,
four
counts of attempted murder on 25 September 2004 and sentenced to six
life sentences on 5 October 2004.
[3]
8.
Since 2020,
the Applicant has
applied on several occasions to be placed on parole but all his
applications have been declined by the various
Ministers responsible
for Correctional Services. Various reasons were advanced by the
different Ministers for their decisions.
The Applicant asserts that
each time different reasons were found to refuse him parole. Indeed,
he says that the goalposts were
moved each time he applied to be
placed on parole. It is appropriate to refer below to the various
applications for parole that
the Applicant made to successive
Ministers responsible for Correctional Services.
9.
On 17 April 2020, the Applicant applied to be placed on
parole. The Correctional Supervision and Parole Board (CSPB)
recommended
that he be placed on parole after receiving
recommendations from the Case Management Committee (CMC).
10.
The
Applicant brought an application to compel the Minister to make a
decision to act on recommendations made by the CMC and the
CSPB that
the Applicant be released on parole.
[4]
11.
The application referred
to CSPB decision of 17 April 2020. The
Applicant states as follows:
“
5.6. In a
recent 702 Radio interview, the Minister, without mincing his words,
said, he does not have time to deal with our Parole
applications
sitting on his desk as he has more commitments and other work to do
in Government. However, though such is appreciated
as he is the
Minister, that cannot be allowed at my expenses. I will present the
clip of such interview during the hearing of this
application for
Court to take cognizance thereof and to be assisted.
5.7. It has been
almost 2 (two) years and months, since the recommendations were made,
and nothing has been done, and having
regard to his public view on
how he deals with lifer-parole applications, his focus is on other so
called “important work”
he does as the Minister, without
regard to our rights.
5.8. It does not
make any sense that, I should be kept in prison, simply because
someone is busy with his other important
work. He must make decision
whether to release me or not, and if not, I could be able to exercise
my right to Review his Decision.
5.9. This delay
is unnecessary, and it amounts to further detention, and indirectly
denies me the benefits of the previous
legislation.
5.10. I do understand
that, I do not have right to Parole, but, consideration and decision
thereof I am entitled to, and he is deliberately
denying me such
entitlement, he must make decision immediately, and if not, nothing
prevent this court to make appropriate order,
which in Casu, is to
release me, on condition set out on by Parole Board, on its
Recommendations.”
[5]
12.
On 21 September 2022, the National Council for Correctional
Services (NCCS) declined to recommend the Applicant for a parole. The
Minister of Justice and Correctional approved the recommendation of
the NCCS to decline parole on 12 December 2022.
13.
The NCCS indicated that the matter should be placed before the
Council in 24 months. The NCCS went on to say that the offender is
urged to improve his situation as follows:
“
1. The
offender should undergo individual psychotherapy to address his
offending behaviour, lack of control and victim empathy.
2. A risk
assessment by a non-treating Clinical Psychologist / Criminologist
should be conducted.
3.
Attempts should be made to find details of all victims so that VOD
can be done with all of them. All efforts to be
properly
documented.”
[6]
14.
Strangely, while the NCCS mentioned the three items that the
Applicant should comply with, it stated that “
the above do
not constitute reasons for the denial of parole
”.
15.
This strange comment
raises pertinent questions as to the reasons why
parole was not recommended if the three items do not constitute
reasons for the
denial of parole. The only conclusion is that parole
was not recommended notwithstanding that there was no reason to deny
the parole.
If there are no reasons to deny the Applicant parole, why
is the re-consideration of the Applicant’s parole deferred for
a further period of 24 months. If there are no reasons to deny
parole, why did the NCCS decline to recommend parole.
16.
A further question
is why did the Minister support the recommendation
of the NCCS in circumstances where there are no reasons to decline
recommendation
for parole.
17.
In light of the NCCS
recommendation not to recommend parole dated 21
September 2022 and the approval of the NCCS recommendation by the
Minister on 12
December 2022, the Applicant brought an application
for review in 2023 (the 2023 review).
18.
In the 2023 review,
the Applicant sought orders as follows:
“
1. That
the decision of the Minister of Justice and Correctional Service
(Respondent) taken on the December 2022, to refuse
to release me on
Parole and directing me to undergo for further profile for 24
(Twenty-Four) months (two years), be Reviewed as
such decision is
irrational, unlawful and ultra-vires to his powers entrusted in terms
of Correctional Service Act 8 of 1959, and
further that, the period
of 24 (twenty-four) months (two years) is unreasonable.
2. The
Minister to pay the costs of this application, an Attorneys and
client scale.”
[7]
19.
On 23 May
2023, the Applicant brought an application to compel the Minister to
dispatch the records of his decision to refuse the
Applicant parole
to the Registrar of the Court.
[8]
20.
The
Minister dispatched the record on 23 September 2023. The matter to
compel the Minister to provide the record was already set
down for 5
October 2023. Accordingly, the Minister had to pay the costs in terms
of the Court Order.
[9]
21.
In the Court Order
of 26 June 2024, the NCCS was joined as a second
Respondent.
22.
On 25 October 2024,
the Applicant brought an urgent application for
the following orders:
“
2.
The first Respondent (NCCS) to consider the Applicant for a parole
and communicate its decision to the third
Respondent (The Minister of
Correctional Service) within 30 (Thirty) days of this order.
3.
Thereafter, the Minister to consider the decision of the second
Respondent and communicate his decision
to me within 60 days of this
order and should parole or day parole refused, to provide his written
reason together with decision.
4.
The first and second Respondents to pay the costs of this application
on attorneys and client scale jointly
and severally the one paying
the other is absolved.”
[10]
23.
On 8
November 2024, the Court granted an order that the first Respondent
is to consider the Applicant for a parole on or before
4 December
2024. That the second Respondent is to consider the decision of the
first Respondent within 60 days from the date of
the Order and should
parole or day parole be refused, to provide his written reasons
together with decision within 60 days from
the date of the Order.
[11]
24.
On 27 August 2024,
the Applicant appeared before the CSPB. The CSPB
recommended that parole be granted to him.
25.
The CMC
considered the parole application on 31 July 2024. The CMC
recommended placement on parole. The CMC report was considered
by the
CSPB when it reached its decision to recommend parole for the
Applicant.
[12]
26.
On 23
December 2024, the NCCS issued its recommendation. The NCCS stated
that parole is not recommended at this stage.
[13]
27.
The NCCS listed four
aspects that the Applicant was required to
improve on:
“
1. To
attend individual psychotherapy to address his superficiality, poor
insight, greed, inability to show genuine victim
empathy and violence
propensity.
2. A risk
assessment by a non-treating Psychologist should be conducted
indicating the risk level and tools used, if
any.
3. To
attend the Substance Abuse Treatment Programme with the Social
Worker.
4. To
attend the Moral Regeneration, Relapse Prevention and Resilience
Enhancement Programmes.”
[14]
28.
Curiously and strangely,
the NCCS remarked that compliance with the
above will not guarantee the offender placement on parole. In the
same vein as the remarks
which were made in 2022 when the NCCS
considered his parole after the CSPB had recommended the Applicant
for parole, this strange
remark by the NCCS is disconcerting and
disturbing. It signals that the NCSS will not approach the
matter in an objective
and fair minded way in line with the policies
and guidelines of the Department of Correctional Services when
considering the case
of the Applicant.
29.
On 9 January 2025,
the Minister supported the recommendation of the
NCCS which declined to recommend the Applicant for parole.
30.
On 11 March
2025, the Minister issued his decision on the Applicant. The decision
is repeated in this judgment in the exact words
that were used by the
Minister.
[15]
31.
The Minister stated
the following:
“
1.
After carefully considering all the information in the Offender’s
profile, the reports from various professionals,
as well as the
recommendations of the CSPB and NCCS. I have found the following:
1.1. The
offender doesn’t completely acknowledge the wrongfulness of his
criminal behaviour as he regards the crime
he committed as an
“accident”. This makes his acknowledgement superficial.
Thus, he poses the risk of reoffending.
1.2. He was
impatient during psychotherapy sessions. This indicated his
intolerance of the rehabilitation interventions.
1.3. He has poor
understanding of the impact of the index crime to the victim and
society at large. He further fails to express
genuine victim empathy.
1.4. Process
during therapy: the closing psychotherapy report dated 31 January
2024 highlighted the following:
a.
He was impatient during the session. While he acknowledged that many
people died during the crime he tended
to see the crime as an
“accident”. He distances himself from the crime which
makes his acknowledgement superficial.
He has not fully internalised
the value and benefits of rehabilitation interventions.
b.
Victim empathy: It was difficult to express his remorse as he never
knew them personally. This shows
that he has a poor understanding of
the gravity of the crime, its impact on direct and indirect victims,
and the society at large.
1.5. The risk
assessment report is dated 23 July 2024 states that “His risk
for reoffending falls within the moderate
to low range”. The
Offender needs to bring down the risk of reoffending to a low level.
2.
In light of the above, I therefore recommend that he be offered the
following interventions to assist
him in his rehabilitation process
and to improve his situation:
2.1. He must
attend individual psychotherapy to address his superficiality, poor
insight, greed, inability to show genuine
victim empathy and violence
propensity.
2.2. A risk
assessment by a non-treating Psychologist should be conducted
indicating the risk level and tools used, if any.
2.3. He must
attend the Substance Abuse Treatment Programme with the Social
Worker.
2.4. He must
attend the Moral Regeneration, Relapse Prevention and Resilience
Enhancement Programmes.”
[16]
Application for review
(2025)
32.
On 3 February 2025,
the Applicant brought an application for the
following orders:
“
1.
The first and second Respondents’ decision taken on the 23
rd
of December 2024 and approved by the second Respondent, the Minister,
on the 09
th
of January 2025 is to be reviewed and set aside on the grounds of
irrationality, unlawfulness and arbitrary in terms of PAJA and
the
Constitution.
2. The
Respondents to be ordered to release me on parole on condition that l
continue to attend the programs listed
in their further profile while
on parole within 15 (Fifteen) days of the order.
3.
The Respondents to pay the costs of this application on Attorney and
Client scale.”
[17]
33.
On 25 March
2025, the Applicant filed a supplementary affidavit to supplement his
grounds of review after he was furnished with
a record of decision by
the Minister. In the supplementary affidavit, the Applicant dealt
with the reports and their findings,
the report relied upon by the
Respondents in refusing parole and the reason for the decision.
[18]
34.
On 5 March
2025, the Respondents filed their answering affidavit which was
attested to by the Minister of Correctional Services.
[19]
35.
On 9 May
2025, the Applicant filed his replying affidavit.
[20]
Legal Principles
36.
This matter
was dealt with in the Constitutional Court judgment which was brought
by the Applicant in the seminal judgment of
Phaahla
v Minister of Justice and Correctional Services and Another
.
[21]
37.
In paragraph 7 of
the judgment, the following is stated:
“
From 1 March
1994 until 1 October 2004, inmates serving life sentences were
required to serve a minimum period of 20 years in prison
before they
became eligible for parole. However, in terms of section 22A of the
1959 Prisons Act, introduced by an amendment in
1993, inmates could
earn credits for good behaviour. These credits translated into days
served, with the effect that the date for
consideration for parole
for those inmates was moved earlier. The effect of this was that
inmates sentenced to life incarceration
between 1 March 1994 and 1
October 2004 became eligible for parole after having served a minimum
period of 13 years and four months
of their life sentence.”
38.
In paragraph 10 of
the judgment, the following is stated:
“
The applicant
was convicted on 25 September 2004 and sentenced to life imprisonment
on 5 October 2004. Because he was sentenced
four days after the
commencement of the new parole regime, he must serve a minimum of 25
years before he becomes eligible for consideration
for parole. Had
the applicant been sentenced a few days earlier, he only would have
had to serve 20 years of his sentence before
he could be considered
for release on parole. Aggrieved by this, the applicant launched an
application in the High Court of South
Africa, Gauteng Division,
Pretoria (High Court) challenging the constitutionality of sections
73(6)(b)(iv) and 136(1) of the 1998
Act on the basis that these
sections infringed his right to the benefit of the least severe of
the prescribed punishments in terms
of section 35(3)(n) of the
Constitution, and his right to equality under section 9 of the
Constitution.”
39.
In paragraph 5 of
the order, the Constitutional Court stated:
“
Parliament
must, within 24 months from the date of this order, amend section
136(1) of the Correctional Services Act to apply parole
regimes on
the basis of date of commission of an offence, pending which the
section shall read as follows:
“
Any person
serving a sentence of incarceration for an offence committed before
the commencement of Chapters 4, 6 and 7 of the Correctional
Services
Act is subject to the provisions of the Correctional Services Act 8
of 1959, relating to his or her placement under community
corrections, and is to be considered for such release and placement
by the Correctional Supervision and Parole Board in terms of
the
policy and guidelines applied by the former Parole Boards prior to
the commencement of those chapters.””
40.
In
terms of section
136
of the
CSA
the parole regime applicable to the applicant is one that was
provided for in the Correctional Services Act
[22]
of
1959 (the 1959 Act). In terms of section 65(2) of the 1959 Act the
Minister has the power to place on parole any prisoner to
whom the
parole regime under the 1959 Act applies. Those are prisoners who
were sentenced prior to 1 October 2004.
[23]
41.
This dictum from the Constitutional Court
judgment of
Walus v Minister of Justice and Correctional
Services and Others
(
Walus
),
has
application to the current matter in light of the order in
Phaahla
case (Constitutional Court). The applicable principle is no longer
the date of the sentencing but the date of the commission of
the
crime.
42.
Section
136(1), (2) and (3) of the CSA
reads:
“
(1)
Any person serving a sentence of incarceration immediately before the
commencement of Chapters IV, VI and VII is
subject to the provisions
of the Correctional Services Act, 1959 (Act 8 of 1959), relating to
his or her placement under community
corrections, and is to be
considered for such release and placement by the Correctional
Supervision and Parole Board in terms of
the policy and guidelines
applied by the former Parole Boards prior to the commencement of
those Chapters.
(2)
When considering the release and placement of a sentenced offender
who is serving a determinate sentence of
incarceration as
contemplated in subsection (1), such sentenced offender must be
allocated the maximum number of credits in
terms of section 22A of
the Correctional Services Act, 1959 (Act 8 of 1959).
(3)(a) Any
sentenced offender serving a sentence of life incarceration
immediately before the commencement of Chapters IV,
VI and VII is
entitled to be considered for day parole and parole after he or she
has served 20 years of the sentence.
(b)
The case of a sentenced offender contemplated in paragraph (a) must
be submitted to the National Council which
must make a recommendation
to the Minister regarding the placement of the sentenced offender
under day parole or parole.
(c)
If the recommendation of the National Council is favourable, the
Minister may order that the sentenced offender
be placed under day
parole or parole, as the case may be.”
43.
The
Constitutional Court in
Walus
case stated that, it will be seen from section 136(3)(a) of the CSA
that a prisoner who was serving a life imprisonment sentence
immediately before Chapters IV, VI and VII commenced is required to
serve a period of 20 years of imprisonment before he or she
can be
considered for parole. As a result of the judgment in the matter of
Van
Wyk
[24]
in the Gauteng Division of the High Court the then Minister of
Correctional Services issued a policy document which provided that
prisoners who had been sentenced before 1 October 2004 would
become eligible for consideration for parole after serving a
minimum
of 13 years and four months. The applicant was one of such prisoners.
The applicant completed 13 years and four months
of imprisonment in
2007. However, as a result of Presidential
amnesties
that he received, he obtained certain credits which reduced the
minimum period he had to serve before he could be considered for
placement on parole by a whole year. The result was that the
applicant became eligible to be considered for placement on parole
in
2005. That is after serving 12 years and four months’
imprisonment.
[25]
44.
The
Constitutional Court in
Walus
case stated that, the policy referred to in section 136(1) of the
CSA, which applied to the applicant, is
contained
in the CSPB’s Manual. Chapter VI(1A)(18) of the CSPB’s
Manual relates in part to the function of the parole system
and reads
as follows:
[26]
“
(a)
The placement of prisoners with a good prognosis as soon as possible
after reaching their consideration dates, taking
the necessary
penalisation into account.
(b)
The protection of the community takes place by means of prevention,
rehabilitation, control and supervision
of parolees. Consequently,
parole measures must be aimed at the prevention and help in the
community by means of the social re-integration
of the parolee by
different degrees of supervision and control.
(c)
The concept of placement on parole is based on the supposition that
it is a just and rational manner of giving
prisoners the opportunity
to serve the remainder of their sentence from within the community.
Prisoners who are
paroled under maximum supervision and who want to settle in areas
that cannot be monitored may not be paroled.
Alternatively, placement
on day parole is considered.”
[27]
(Emphasis
added.)
45.
It is to be
noted from (a) in this quotation that the Department’s policy
is that the placement of a prisoner on parole should
be as soon as
possible after the date from which such prisoner becomes eligible for
consideration for parole.
[28]
46.
The
criteria that must be used to determine whether a prisoner should be
placed on parole are provided for in Chapter VI(1A)(19)
of the CSPB
Manual. In the introduction in Chapter VI(1A)(19) the following
appears in part:
[29]
“
(i)
The criteria for selection for placement on parole is not meant to be
used as the ultimate model. It should
rather be seen as a
predisposition according to which the Parole Board may serve the
interests of the community on the one hand
and those of the prisoner
on the other hand to the best of their ability and in a responsible
manner.
(ii)
Thus
the primary issue is that it should be attempted to evaluate
prisoners fairly and justly for parole, to submit well-considered
recommendations and to effectuate the highest possible form of
professionalism.”
[30]
(Emphasis added).
47.
In this
excerpt the policy makes it clear that the evaluation of a prisoner
for parole must be done “
fairly
and justly
”.
(Emphasis added.)
[31]
48.
Chapter IV
of the CSA deals with sentenced prisoners. This chapter covers
sections 36 to 45. The heading to section 36 reads:
“Objective
of implementation of sentence of imprisonment.” Section 36 of
the CSA reads:
[32]
“
With due regard
to the fact that the deprivation of liberty serves the purposes of
punishment, the implementation of a sentence
of imprisonment has the
objective of enabling the sentenced prisoner to lead a socially
responsible and crime-free life in the
future.” (Emphasis
added.)
49.
Section 36
seems to me to provide a statutory basis for the proposition that an
important objective of imprisonment in our correctional
facilities
(prisons) is aimed at rehabilitating the prisoner so that he or she
can lead a crime-free life after being released
from prison and
rejoining society. It is important to point out that the Minister
accepts that the reports including the social
worker’s report
in respect of the applicant are to the effect that the risk of him
re-offending if he is released is low.
Indeed, his disciplinary
record inside prison over more than 25 years supports this. There is
no complaint that over so many years
the applicant has ever had any
incidents of ill-discipline. By all accounts he seems to have been an
exemplary prisoner.
[33]
50.
Section 37
bears the heading “General principles”. Section 37(2)
reads:
[34]
“
In addition to
providing a regime which meets the minimum requirements of this Act,
the Department must seek to provide amenities
which will create an
environment in which sentenced prisoners will be able to live with
dignity and develop the ability to lead
a socially responsible and
crime-free life”
. (Emphasis added.)
51.
The
latter part of this provision also reflects the reformative objective
of imprisonment under the CSA.
[35]
52.
Chapter
VII of the CSA deals with: “Release from Correctional Centre
and Placement under Correctional Supervision and on Day
Parole and
Parole”. The sections that fall under Chapter VII are sections
73 to 82. The heading to section 73 reads: “Length
and form of
sentences”. Section 73(1) reads:
[36]
“
73(1) Subject
to the provisions of this Act—
(a)
a sentenced prisoner remains in prison for the full period of
sentence; and
(b)
an offender sentenced to life incarceration remains in a
correctional centre for the rest of his or her life.”
53.
Section
73(1) of the CSA makes it plain that, subject to the provisions of
the CSA, a sentenced prisoner serves the full period
of his or her
sentence. This means that, unless a prisoner is released from prison
in terms of some or other provision of the CSA,
he or she must serve
a term of life imprisonment if he or she has been sentenced to life
imprisonment or he or she must serve the
full determinate term of
imprisonment fixed by the court.
[37]
54.
Section
73(4) reads:
[38]
“
In accordance
with the provisions of this Chapter a prisoner may be placed under
correctional supervision or on day parole or on
parole before the
expiration of his or her term of incarceration.”
55.
The
release of a prisoner on parole is provided for in the CSA. Section
73(4) authorises the placement of a prisoner on parole before
the
expiry of his or her term of imprisonment.
[39]
56.
Section
73(5) reads:
[40]
“
(5)(a) A
sentenced offender may be placed under correctional supervision, on
day parole, parole or medical parole—
(i)
on a date determined by the Correctional Supervision and
Parole Board; or
(ii)
in the case of an offender sentenced to life incarceration, on
a date to be determined by the Minister.
(b)
Such placement is subject to the provisions of Chapter IV and such
offender accepting the conditions for placement.”
57.
It is to be
noted that section 73(5)(a)(i) envisages a date for the placement of
a prisoner on day parole or on parole being a date
determined by the
Correctional Supervision and CSPB except in the case of a prisoner
who has been sentenced to life imprisonment
in which case it is
contemplated that the date would be determined by the Minister.
[41]
58.
Insofar as
it may be relevant to the placement on parole of a prisoner who had
been sentenced to life imprisonment, section 73(6)
reads as
follows:
[42]
“
(6)(a) Subject
to the provisions of paragraph (b), a sentenced offender serving a
determinate sentence or cumulative sentences of
more than 24 months
may not be placed on day parole or parole until such sentenced
offender has served either the stipulated non-parole
period, or if no
non-parole period was stipulated, half of the sentence, but day
parole or parole must be considered whenever a
sentenced offender has
served 25 years of a sentence or cumulative sentences.
(aA) Subject to
the provisions of paragraph (b), an offender serving a determinate
sentence or cumulative sentences of not
more than 24 months may not
be placed on parole or day parole until such offender has served
either the stipulated non-parole period,
or if no non-parole period
was stipulated, a quarter of the sentence.
(b)
A person who has been sentenced to-
(i)
periodical incarceration must be detained periodically in a
correctional centre as prescribed by regulation;
. . .
(iv) life
incarceration may not be placed on day parole or parole until he or
she has served at least 25 years of the
sentence; or
. . .
(vi) any
term of incarceration, excluding persons declared dangerous criminals
in terms of section 286A of the Criminal Procedure
Act, may be
placed on day parole or parole on reaching the age of 65 years
provided that he or she has served at least 15 years
of such
sentence.”
59.
Section 75
of the CSA deals with the powers, functions and duties of CSPB. Only
section 75(1) is important for purposes of this
judgment. It
reads:
[43]
“
(1)
A Correctional Supervision and Parole Board, having considered the
report on any sentenced offender serving a determinate
sentence of
more than 24 months submitted to it by the Case Management Committee
in terms of section 42 and in the light of any
other information or
argument, may
(a)
subject to the provisions of paragraphs (b) and (c) and subsection
(1A) place a sentenced offender under correctional
supervision or day
parole or grant parole or medical parole and, subject to the
provisions of section 52, set the conditions of
community corrections
imposed on the sentenced offender;
(b)
in the case of any sentenced offender having been declared a
dangerous criminal in terms of section 286A of
the Criminal Procedure
Act, make recommendations to the court on the granting or the
placement under correctional supervision,
day parole, parole or
medical parole and on the period for and, subject to the provisions
of section 52, the conditions of community
corrections imposed on the
sentenced offender; and
(c)
in respect of any sentenced offender serving a sentence of life
incarceration, make recommendations to the
Minister on granting of
day parole, parole or medical parole, and, subject to the provisions
of section 52, the conditions of community
corrections to be imposed
on such an offender.”
60.
It is clear
that in respect of prisoners sentenced to life imprisonment the power
of the CSPB is to make recommendations to the
Minister on the
granting of parole. That is provided for in section 75(1)(c). That
provision must be read with section 78.
[44]
Section 78(1) to (4) reads:
“
(1)
Having considered the record of proceedings of the Correctional
Supervision and Parole Board and its recommendations
in the case of a
prisoner sentenced to life imprisonment, the court may, subject to
the provisions of section 73(6) (b)(iv),
grant parole or day
parole or prescribe the conditions of community corrections in terms
of section 52.
(2)
If the court refuses to grant parole or day parole in terms of
subsection (1), it may make recommendations
in respect of treatment,
development and support of the prisoner which may contribute to
improving the likelihood of future placement
on parole or day parole.
(3)
Where a Correctional Supervision and Parole Board acting in terms of
section 73 recommends, in the case
of a person sentenced to life
imprisonment, that parole or day parole be withdrawn or that the
conditions of community corrections
imposed on such a person be
amended, the court must consider and make a decision upon the
recommendation.
(4)
Where the court refuses or withdraws parole or day parole the matter
must be reconsidered by the court within
two years.”
Factors Taken into
Consideration
61.
In his answering
affidavit, the Minister set out the reasons for his
decision under the heading: Reasons for my decision, dated 9 January
2025:
“
21. My
signature and/or confirmation of the NCCS recommendations signified
my adoption and concurrence with the recommendations
made.
22. In
simple terms, I concurred with the NCCS’s observations and
recommendations after reviewing the reports
of various professionals,
including social workers and psychologists.
23.
According to various reports by professionals (e.g., social workers,
psychologists), the Applicant exhibits the
following character
problems that must be addressed to ensure successful reintegration
into society and prevent recidivism:
23.1. He is
superficial; poor sighted; greedy;
23.2. He lacks the
ability to show genuine victim empathy;
23.3. He has a
tendency to act aggressively;
23.4. He has not fully
dealt with his substance abuse issues.
24. For
instance, amongst others, according to the Psychological Closing
Therapy Report dated 31 January 2024, the Applicant
“Seems able
to take responsibility for his actions but sometimes distances
himself from the “accident” therefore
we cannot
completely rule out some superficiality in his admission”. A
copy of the Psychological Closing Therapy Report dated
31 January
2024 is annexed hereto marked Annexure “AA2”.
25. The
Applicant’s profile or record that served before me at the time
demonstrate that I did not just rubberstamp
the recommendation placed
before me by the NCCS, but I considered it and came to the conclusion
that other conditions had not yet
been adequately addressed. This is
all an indication that I applied my mind when I made the impugned
decision and nothing can be
gainsaid that I took it arbitrarily or
capriciously, as contemplated in section 6(2)(e)(vi) of PAJA.
26. The
Applicant may not like or agree with the outcome of the
decision-making process, nor the weight attributed to
certain
documents or factors, but that is not the enquiry to be entertained
in the present application.
27. In
essence, I applied all the criteria including considering the
interest of the community and/or the state, and
in doing so, struck a
reasonable equilibrium, resulting in the interests of the
community/justice outweighing the remaining considerations.”
[45]
62.
The Minister has
added further reasons in his answering affidavit.
This appear in paragraph 23.3 as “
he has a tendency to act
aggressively
”. In paragraph 3.4, the Minster stated that,
“
he has not dealt with his substance abuse issue
”.
Rationality
63.
The Applicant has
attacked the Minister’s decision to place him
on parole on many grounds in support of his contention that the
decision must
be reviewed and set aside on the grounds of
irrationality, unlawfulness and arbitrariness in terms of PAJA and
the Constitution.
The Applicant contends that the decision was
irrational because there is no logic and sense and was not supported
by any objective
material evidence contrary to what is contained in
his parole file. The applicant also stated that PAJA and Constitution
requires
that the decision of an administrative nature such as this
one of the Respondents must be rational and based on sound reasons.
64.
In attacking the
Minister’s decision as irrational, the
Applicant relied on amongst others, the fact that:
“
6.3. Amongst
other programs I have done and successfully completed all these years
include but not limited to those programs listed
in their latest
impugned decision. The records and reports attest to that and are in
possession of the Respondents, thereof, I
challenge the Respondents
to dispute that I have done these programs and provide evidence.
6.4. I first
appeared before the Parole Board in July 2020 and the Board after
considering all the reports including both
the Psychotherapy and Risk
assessments recommended me for parole. However, the Respondents
Reviewed the Parole Board’s decision
and denied me Parole and
gave me a further profile of 24 (Twenty Four) months to attend these
programs including to repeat the
psychotherapy and Risk assessment.
6.5. I can
confirm that those programs, including Psychotherapy and Risk
assessment and Social Worker Report completed them
successfully and
in those 24 (Twenty Four) months period, the Respondent never
approached and indicated whether there are additional
programs over
and above those, that needs to be attended to be able to release me
on parole.
6.6. The
Respondents after the 24 (Twenty Four) months further profile dragged
their feet to reconsider my parole application.
l then took them to
court to compel them. Attached herein is a copy of the Court order
marked “OP2”.
6.9. I am not
sure which objective material did the Respondents consider and
consulted. There appears to be no dispute or
contention that all the
submitted relevant reports are questionable. They are accepted if not
accepted if not then l challenge
the Respondents to point which
reports is disputed and on what grounds. In fact to say point blank,
there are no reports in my
file that is averse or against the
granting of parole.
6.10. The Respondents
failed to be well guided by those positive reports.
6.11. The Minister
clearly rubber-stamped the irrational decision of the NCCS.
6.12. I have been
already profiled 2 (Two) times, then the question is how many times
should I be profiled.
6.13. The decision
does not indicate that, based on objective assessments and evidence,
I am likely to re-offend and substance abuse.
6.14. I really do not
understand the purpose to repeat these programs. There must be a
purpose to serve to repeat the programs.”
[46]
65.
The Minister stated
that:
“
62. As I
have previously stated, the reasoning I have provided in this
affidavit demonstrates that I achieved a reasonable
equilibrium
between the relevant competing factors by denying releasing the
Applicant on parole.
63.
Although the Respondents do not dispute that the CMC and CSPB
compiled a report that was submitted to the NCCS in
order for the
applicant to be considered for parole, this does not entitle the
applicant to be released on parole without the NCCS
and the
Minister’s consideration.
64. The
NCCS is conferred with a discretion to decide whether or not to
release a prisoner on parole. It is therefore
within the discretion
of the NCCS to grant or not to grant an offender a parole after
considering all available information.
65. The
granting of parole is not a right that an applicant can claim;
rather, it is a privilege. This is due to the
fact that, in
accordance with section 73(1)(a) of the Correctional Services Act,
supra, a sentenced offender is required to remain
in a correctional
facility for the entirety of their sentence, subject to the above
provisions.”
[47]
Analysis of the
decision of the Minister
66.
The Minister states
that he considered all the information in the
offender’s profile, the reports from various professionals as
well as the recommendations
of the CSPB and NCCS.
67.
The decision of the
Minister was primarily based on the single report
of Sukhdeo dated 31 January 2024 and to the limited extent the report
of Buthelezi
dated 23 July 2024.
68.
The Minister dealt
with the report of Sukhdeo in a piecemeal and
nitpicking manner to suit his predetermined decision.
69.
The reference to
accident is clarified in the supplementary affidavit
of the Applicant at paragraphs 4.16.5 and 4.16.6 and 4.16.7. The use
of the
word accident relates to the fact that the killing of the six
victims happened in the context where the motor vehicles were used
to
collide with the cash vehicle to facilitate the armed robbery.
70.
This aspect
was dealt with in the matter of
Walus
as
follows
:
[48]
“
One
can put what I have said in the preceding paragraph in a different
way. That is that, if more than 26 years after the applicant
was
sentenced for the crime he committed, it was appropriate for the
Minister not to release the applicant on parole in 2020 because
of
the nature of the crime, the seriousness thereof and the Court’s
sentencing remarks, why would it be appropriate for the
Minister to
release him one or two or three or five years thereafter? These three
factors are immutable. They will not change one
or two or three or
five years later. This the Minister has not explained,
notwithstanding the fact that it cried out for an explanation
because
the applicant clearly put it in issue. Therefore, this Court must
vitiate the Minister’s decision. If it were not
to do so, it
would in effect be giving its approval to the proposition that in
future it would be appropriate for the Minister
to deny the applicant
parole even when he may have served 30 or 35 or even 40 years of
imprisonment. That, simply on the basis
of the nature of the crime,
the seriousness thereof and the trial court’s and Supreme Court
of Appeal’s sentencing
remarks despite the fact that the
applicant has complied with all other requirements for him to be
placed on parole which the Minister
concedes. The Minister’s
decision is not rationally connected to the purpose of the power
conferred upon him. His decision
is, therefore, irrational and it
falls to be reviewed and set aside.”
71.
The Minister says
that by describing the criminal act that led to
killing of six people as an accident, this makes the Applicant
superficial and
that he poses the risk of re-offending.
72.
This is not borne
by the various reports in respect of his
application for parole. In paragraph 1.5 of his decision, the
Minister relied on the report
of Buthelezi dated 23 July 2024, that
stated that the Applicant’s risk for re-offending falls within
the moderate to low
range.
73.
Paragraph 1.5 of
the Minister’s decision contradicts paragraph
1.1 of his decision. Paragraph 1.5 is based on the expert’s
report. On
the other hand, paragraph 1.1 insofar as the Minister
states that the Applicant poses the risk of re-offending is based on
his
own personal view which is not supported by facts.
74.
The report of Sukhdeo
in fact contradicts the decision of the
Minister. Sukhdeo indicates that the Applicant stated that if parole
is granted, he will
use his mechanical skills in finding work. He may
be too optimistic in his endeavours due to his age
BUT
it is
important to note that there is a low chance that he might resort to
offending behaviour in future due to his accomplices
being in his
seventies.
75.
Sukhdeo recommended
that stringent release conditions to reduce the
Applicant’s risk for re-offending.
76.
The Minister referred
to the fact that the Applicant was impatient
during psychotherapy sessions. He further states that this indicated
that the Applicant
is intolerant of the rehabilitation intervention.
77.
If regard
is had to Sukhdeo’s report at paragraph 5, which should be read
in its totality to understand its context, the Applicant’s
impatience related to the fact that through his efforts, the
Constitutional Court made a favourable judgment for prisoners like
him in the Phaahla Judgment. Two of his accomplices, Kwaka and
Mokwape, were released on parole. Kwaka was released on 5 May 2023
while Mokwape was released on 30 April 2024. These two individuals
were convicted for the same crime on 5 October 2004 and received
the
same sentences.
[49]
The
Minister, by denying parole to the Applicant, is treating him
unfairly and unjustly. As one would expect that the Minister
would
apply consistency in dealing with situations that are similar in all
respects.
78.
He justifiably felt
aggrieved and impatient. In the preceding
paragraphs, I have outlined how the Department of NCCS and the
Minister have delayed
his consideration for parole. After he was
recommended for parole by the CSPB on 17 April 2020, it took the NCCS
more than two
years to consider the recommendation of the CSPB. The
NCCS made a recommendation to deny him parole. However, the NCCS
strangely
said, the steps that he must undertake to improve his
situation did not constitute reasons to deny him parole. The Minister
supported
this strange recommendation. The NCCS kicked his matter to
touch for 24 months (to use the sport parlance).
79.
The Applicant had
to bring an application to compel the Minister to
consider the CSPB recommendation to grant him parole. He also brought
a review
application (2023) and an urgent application in 2024. His
impatience was perfectly justified as he was being treated unfairly
by
the Correctional Service system. To put it bluntly, he was being
victimised for no apparent reasons.
80.
The Minister states
that the Applicant has poor understanding of the
impact of the index crime to the victim and society at large. The
Minister states
that the Applicant further fails to express genuine
victim empathy.
81.
This is the
personal view of the Minister which is not supported by facts and
expert evidence. Buthelezi stated in her report that
the Applicant
admitted to the index offences and took responsibility for the crimes
that he has committed. He presented as remorseful
for his victims
during the assessment.
[50]
82.
The
applicant wrote a letter of remorse on 7 February 2024.
[51]
83.
Bopape stated
that:
“
Mr
Phaahla is aware that his criminal behaviour impacted negatively in
his life and he is working hard to change his behaviour.
He
acknowledges guilt of the crime that he is incarcerated for and he is
taking full responsibility for his actions.
”
[52]
84.
Phakathi
stated that:
“
Based
on the assessment and integration of the information listed above Mr
Phaahla does not display any major unresolved criminogenic
needs,
rather he displays protective factors which could reduce his risk of
re-offending. He took full responsibility of the crimes
he committed;
he also showed remorse for his victims. His previous offences remain
considered risk as it was reported a source
of motivation in his past
behaviour. However, many of his risk decreasing factors appear to
offset his risk for violence. When
considering his level of insight
Mr Phaahla could potentially contribute meaningfully to the
community. Mr Phaahla appeared to
have developed sufficient
desistance factors to moderate against re-offending and may be
suitably considered for parole
.”
[53]
85.
Govender
stated that:
“
Progress
during treatment: It was noted that Mr Phaahla was able to identify
potential risk factors. He took responsibility for
the crime that he
committed. He communicated a sense of remorse for the victims and
regret for his actions. He specifically identified
the following
factors that he believed contributed to his offending behaviour: “bad
company”, greed/wanting to live
a lifestyle that is beyond his
means; difficulty managing stress, anger, and feelings of
frustration; and the need for immediate
gratification. He was also
able to consider factors that may indicate to him when he is at risk
of committing a crime, such as
thinking about crime, having negative
thoughts, moving towards bad company, giving in to pressure from
peers and not taking advice
.”
[54]
86.
The above reports
have dealt with aspects such as the risk of
re-offending, poor insight and violence propensity.
87.
The Applicant is
a model prisoner who does not have a disciplinary
record for misconduct.
88.
With regard to the
recommendation that the Applicant must attend the
intervention programs under paragraph 2 of the Minister’s
decision, I intend
to deal with them individually hereunder.
89.
With regard to 2.1,
the expert reports of Phakathi, Buthelezi,
Bopape, Sukhdeo and Govender have satisfactorily addressed this
aspect. The report of
the Unit Manager and Workshop trainer have put
a feather on his cap. They have given the Applicant good character
evidence which
is relevant in this instance to a person who has been
confined to prison for close to 28 years.
90.
The Unit Manager
recommended the following:
“
Offender Oupa
Chipane Paahla registration no: (986 161 11) is a good example of
what correctional behaviour is and proof of the
effective impact of
the rehabilitation programmes we offer within our correctional centre
respectively. He definitely manifests
positive signs of being
rehabilitated as indicated by his involvement in correctional and
rehabilitation programmes.
Date of sentence:
2000/10/05 and decision further profile closing stage after:
2024/12/12. He is also involved in production workshop
as Motor
industry section since 12
th
of November 2016 to date.
Offender Oupa Chipane Paahla registration no: (986 161 11). He has a
positive relationship with his family
which will also facilitate his
re-integration process outside as they regularly visit him. This
makes his support system to be
stable and sustainable.
Offender shows remorse
or regret as not having disciplinary offence for the cycle of twenty
years incarcerated.
It is highly
recommended that he be given a second chance to be re-integrated into
the community and as he will contribute positively
to the society at
large.”
[55]
91.
The workshop supervisor
stated that:
“
Oupa Phaahla
registration no 98 616 111 has been admitted under my supervision
from 16 October 2016 to Date. Ever since his arrival,
he does his job
with pride and dedication. He is professional and multi skilled in
his job performances. He finishes the assigned
tasks on time. He
received the Artisan certificate in 2021
He also plays a
pivotal role in assisting, developing and empowering fellow inmates
with knowledge and skills acquired during training.
His behaviour
towards fellow inmates and members is unquestionable irrespective of
race, religion and belief. He follows instructions
and orders as
commanded.”
[56]
92.
With regards to 2.2,
the Applicant has already been subjected to two
risk assessment. On 5 October 2004, Phakathi conducted a risk
assessment report.
Her report is at page 50-29 to 50-34. Under
reasons for the referral, she stated that the aim of this report is
to conduct a psychological
evaluation to provide an indication of
risk factors that could contribute to re-offending. This report
provided an extremely favourable
assessment of the Applicant.
93.
The Phakathi report
was produced in 2004, more than 20 years ago.
This report should have been used to consider Applicant’s
parole in 2017 when
he became eligible. The policies of the
department requires that an offender must be considered for parole as
early as possible.
94.
It appears from the
conduct of the Minister and the NCCS that this
expert report was simply ignored, put aside and forgotten as it did
not suit their
predetermined outcome.
95.
I am saying so because
the NCCS recommendation of 2022 did not seem
to take Phakathi’s report into account in declining to
recommend the Applicant
for parole.
96.
In item 2 of the
2022 NCCS recommendation, it is stated that a risk
assessment by non-treating clinical psychologist / criminologist
should be conducted.
97.
The NCCS does not
say anything about the Phakathi report that was
already in place. It does not say whether the Phakathi report was
defective, and
if so, in what respect it was defective.
98.
The second assessment
was done on 13 May 2024 by Buthelezi. Among the
purpose of the assessment was to determine what the Applicant’s
potential
risk for re-offending is. Buthelezi concluded that based on
the assessment and integration of the information listed above, the
Applicant does not display any major unresolved criminogenic needs
and his risk of re-offending falls within the moderate to low
range.
99.
As in the case of
Phakathi report, the NCCS did not seem to consider
the report of Buthelezi in its recommendation of 23 December 2024.
100.
If the NCCS had regard to the Phakathi report
of 2004 and the
Buthelezi report of 2024, why is it referring the Applicant to
undertake further risk assessment. The NCCS has
not indicated whether
these reports are defective or inadequate. NCCS has not indicated in
any manner what further risk assessment
would achieve.
101.
The clear intentions of the Minister and
NCCS is undisguised in the
NCCS report of 2024. That undisguised intention is clearly spelled
out as follows, “
compliance with the above will not
guarantee the offender placement on parole
.” In clear
terms, this statement is intended to convey a message that the
Applicant must contend himself with being sent
from pillar to post in
circumstances where both NCCS and the Minister have already
predetermined the issue.
102.
The Minister is required to consider the
parole of the Applicant
expeditiously and must be fair and just in considering the placement
of the Applicant on parole.
103.
With regard to 2.3, that the Applicant must
attend the Substance
Abuse Treatment programme with the Social Worker. In his answering
affidavit, the Minister went further to
state that the Applicant has
not dealt with his substance abuse issues.
104.
In this respect, Phakathi dealt with the
issue of substance abuse as
follows: “
Mr Phaahla has a history of drug and alcohol
abuse, he reported that he started using substances when he was 13
years old, however,
he reported that he quit in 1984 because it made
him sick
.”
105.
In Bopape report of 2024, the Applicant
indicated that he has stopped
taking alcohol and smoking cigarette and dagga in the year 1985.
Since then he does not smoke cigarettes
and he has no history of drug
use.
106.
In Bopape report, the Applicant has indicated
that he has attended
drug awareness on 6 June 2006. In Phakathi’s report, she also
states that the Applicant has indicated
that he has attended a drug
awareness program while being incarcerated. The Buthelezi report also
mirrors that of Phakathi in exonerating
the Applicant from drug use.
107.
Bopape stated the following:
“
He
also attended drug awareness in 6 June 2006 whereby he was introduced
to substance abuse and relapse prevention program. The
aim of the
program was to broaden his knowledge and understanding of substance
usage, abuse and dependency in order to enable him
to develop a
lifestyle free of substance abuse/usage and to gain insight into the
negative effects of substances to life. The impact
of the program is
that, it made him benefit in a sense that he is now got skills on how
to refrain from relapsing into bad behaviour
and substance after
rehabilitated.”
[57]
108.
As the Applicant has not used and abused
substances since 1984 or
1985, it is irrational for the Minister to recommend that he must
attend programmes to deal with his substance
abuse problem.
109.
The Minister has not provided any tangible
and substantive reasons
for this malicious, outlandish, illogical and unsound recommendation.
Frankly, this borders on the Minister
being spiteful. The Minister is
clearly acting prejudicially and unconstitutionally in this instance.
110.
With regards to 2.4, that the Applicant
must attend the Moral
Regeneration Release Prevention and Resilience Enhancement
Programmes.
111.
The
Applicant attended the moral regeneration programme and was awarded
the certificate on 2 August 2024.
[58]
112.
In the
Replacement Assessment Tool, the Applicant has listed all the
programmes that he has successfully attended and completed.
[59]
In the CSPB parole report, the Applicant also listed the programmes
that he has attended under the section that deal with
rehabilitation.
[60]
This was
in respect of the 17 April 2020 parole recommendation by the CSPB.
Also on the CMC report of 31 July 2024, the programmes
that he has
attended are listed under the offending behaviour addressed.
[61]
The CSPB report in respect of the 27 August 2024 recommendations for
parole, mentions the programmes that the Applicant has attended
under
offending behaviour addressed.
[62]
113.
There is no purpose that would be served
by subjecting the Applicant
to further programmes. The Applicant has demonstrated that he has
attended all these superfluous programmes
already.
114.
It is irrational for the Minister to expect
the Applicant to keep on
attending programmes which have already been completed. I must bear
in mind that the NCCS and the Minister
have indicated that attendance
of these programmes and compliance thereto will not guarantee the
Applicant placement on parole.
115.
This has indeed come to pass. The Applicant
has been attending these
programmes since 2004. More than 20 years later, the Minister and the
NCCS are still not satisfied that
he can be placed on parole
notwithstanding the recommendation of the CSPB on 17 April 2020 and
27 August 2024. What is apparent
in this case and as it was the case
with
Walus
, is that the Minister and the NCCS have no
intention of placing the Applicant on parole.
116.
When dealing with this aspect, the Constitutional
Court indicated as
quoted in paragraph 70 that in circumstances where there are no basis
to deny placement of an offender on parole,
that decision is
irrational.
117.
In this case, I want to quote the letter
from the Unit Manager:
“
Offender Oupa
Chipane Phaahla registration no: (986 161 11) was Proves his
willingness to change and contribute positively to the
community upon
his release was knows exactly why he is given a second chance as he
remained considerate towards his reason of being
incarcerated; he
behaves very well and respects both fellow offenders and
officials.”
[63]
118.
I find that the decision of the Minister
is irrational. Rationality
is defined as follows:
“
This means in
essence that a decision must be supported by the evidence and
information before the administrator as well as the
reasons given for
it. It must also be objectively capable of furthering the purpose for
which the power was given and for which
the decision was purportedly
taken. The question to be asked is the following: 'Is there a
rational objective basis justifying
the conclusion made by the
administrative decision-maker between the material property available
to him and the conclusion he or
she eventually arrived at?”
[64]
119.
In
Pharmaceutical
Manufacturers,
[65]
the Constitutional Court said about the standard of rationality:
“
It is a
requirement of the rule of law that the exercise of public power by
the Executive and other functionaries should not be
arbitrary.
Decisions must be rationally related to the purpose for which the
power was given, otherwise they are in effect arbitrary
and
inconsistent with this requirement. It follows that in order to pass
constitutional scrutiny the exercise of public power by
the Executive
and other functionaries must, at least, comply with this requirement.
If it does not, it falls short of the standards
demanded by our
Constitution for such action.”
120.
The Constitutional Court went on to point
out: “
The question
whether a decision is rationally related to the purpose for which the
power was given calls for an objective enquiry
”.
121.
Indeed, the Constitutional Court said later
in the same case: “What
the Constitution requires is that public power vested in the
executive and other functionaries be
exercised in an objectively
rational manner”.
122.
Finally, the Constitutional Court went on
to say about rationality:
“
Rationality in
this sense is a minimum threshold requirement applicable to the
exercise of all public power by members of the Executive
and other
functionaries. Action that fails to pass this threshold is
inconsistent with the requirements of our Constitution, and
therefore
unlawful. The setting of this standard does not mean that the courts
can or should substitute their opinions as to what
is appropriate,
for the opinions of those in whom the power has been vested. As long
as the purpose sought to be achieved by the
exercise of public power
is within the authority of the functionary, and as long as the
functionary’s decision, viewed objectively,
is rational, a
court cannot interfere with the decision simply because it disagrees
with it, or considers that the power was exercised
inappropriately.”
123.
In the result, I confirm the order that
was made on 5 September 2025.
124.
In terms of PAJA, the Court is empowered
to make an order not to
remit this matter to the Minister. I have dealt with the exceptional
circumstances which justify the Court
taking a decision not to remit
the matter back to the Minister of these programmes and compliance
thereto would not guarantee the
offender placement on parole.
125.
The Applicant was supposed to have been
considered for placement on
parole in 2017. The Applicant’s parole was only considered in
April 2020, three years after he
was supposed to have been considered
for parole. The CSPB’s recommendation for the Applicant to be
placed on parole on 17
April 2020 was only considered by the NCCS on
21 September 2022 when the NCCS declined to recommend the Applicant
for parole despite
not having plausible reasons.
126.
The Applicant had to bring an application
to compel the Minister to
consider his parole as recommended by the CSPB on 17 April 2020. The
Applicant had to bring an application
for a review to compel the
Minister to consider him for parole in 2023. Further, the Applicant
had to bring an urgent application
to compel the Minister to consider
his parole in October 2024.
127.
The CSPB recommended the Applicant for parole
in August 2024. The
NCCS on 23 December 2024 again declined to recommend the Applicant
for parole. The Minister approved the recommendation
of the NCCS not
to place the Applicant under parole on 9 January 2025. In the NCCS
recommendations of 21 September 2022 and December
2024, the Applicant
was required to attend a psychotherapy and risk assessment session.
These programmes were already complied
with at the time the NCCS
dealt with the Applicant’s recommendation for parole by the
CSPB.
128.
With respect to the 21 September 2022 NCCS’s
report requiring
the Applicant to attend the Victim Offender Dialogue (VOD), this was
already done on 26 November 2020. With regard
to the requirement that
the Applicant should attend the substance abuse programme with the
social worker (as contained in the NCCS
report of December 2024),
this was already done on 6 June 2006. With respect to the requirement
to attend the moral regeneration,
relapse prevention and resilience
enhancement programmes, this was done on 6 June 2006 and 2 August
2024.
129.
The NCCS and the Minister have indicated
in the report of 23 December
2024 and 9 January 2025, that attendance of these programmes and
compliance thereto will not guarantee
the Applicant placement on
parole. It is almost 8 years since the Applicant became eligible to
be considered for parole yet
to date it does not appear as if both
the NCCS and the Minister will consider the placement of the
Applicant in a fair and just
manner as required by Chapter VI(1A)(19)
of the Parole Board Manual which requires that the evaluation of a
prisoner for parole
must be done “
fairly and justly
”.
The Parole Board Manual Chapter VI(1A)(18) requires that the
placement of a prisoner on parole should be done as soon as
possible
after the date from which such prisoner becomes eligible for
consideration for parole.
In the result, I make the
following order:
1.
I confirm the
order that I made in terms of the draft order dated 4 September 2025
which is uploaded under 078-4 to 078-5
TD SENEKE AJ
Acting Judge of the High
Court
Gauteng Division,
Pretoria
Appearances
For Applicant
: Advocate D.B
Melaphi
Instructed by
: M.E Makgopa
Attorneys
For Respondent
: Advocate R Ramuhala
Instructed by
: State
Attorney,
Pretoria
[1]
Caseline 62-2 to 62-3
[2]
Bopape
Report dated 8 March 2024, Caseline 50-5 to 50-21
[3]
CSPB Decision dated 17 April 2020, Caseline 67-261 to 67-267
[4]
Caseline 01-23 to 01-36
[5]
Caseline 01-33 to 01-34
[6]
Caseline 67-257
[7]
Caseline 01-7 to 01-8
[8]
Caseline 08-2 to 08-5
[9]
Caseline 18-1 to 18-2
[10]
Notice
of Motion,
Caseline
35-2 to 35-5
[11]
Court Order, Caseline 45-3 to 45-4
[12]
CMC Report, Caseline 67-26 to 67-31
[13]
NCCS
Report, Caseline 80-5
[14]
Caseline 80-5
[15]
Minister’s decision, Caseline 47-18 to 47-19
[16]
Caseline
47-18 to 47-19
[17]
Caseline 62-2 to 62-5
[18]
Supplementary affidavit, Caseline 69-1 to 69-17
[19]
Answering
affidavit, Caseline 70-1 to 70-38
[20]
Replying
affidavit, Caseline 71-1 to 71-24
[21]
(CCT44/18)
[2019] ZACC 18
;
2019 (2) SACR 88
(CC);
2019 (7) BCLR 795
(CC) (3 May
2019) (
Phaahla
)
[22]
8
of 1959.
[23]
Walus
v Minister of Justice and Correctional Services
(CCT
221/21)
[2022] ZACC 39
;
2023 (2) BCLR 224
(CC);
2023 (2) SA 473
(CC);
2023 (1) SACR 447
(CC) (21 November 2022)
[24]
Van
Wyk v Minister of Correctional Services
2012
(1) SACR 159 (GNP).
[25]
Walus
,
para 42
[26]
Walus
,
para 43
[27]
Chapter
VI(1A)(18) of the CSPB’s Manual.
[28]
Walus
,
para 43
[29]
Walus
,
para 44
[30]
Chapter
VI(1A)(19) of the CSPB’s Manual.
[31]
Walus
,
para 44
[32]
Walus
,
para 46
[33]
Walus
,
para 47
[34]
Walus
,
para 48
[35]
Walus
,
para 48
[36]
Walus
,
para 49
[37]
Walus
,
para 49
[38]
Walus
,
para 50
[39]
Walus
,
para 50
[40]
Walus
,
para 51
[41]
Walus
,
para 51
[42]
Walus
,
para 52
[43]
Walus
,
para 54
[44]
Walus
,
para 55
[45]
Caseline 70-8 to 70-9
[46]
Caseline 63-5 to 63-7
[47]
Caseline 70-21
[48]
Walus
,
para 82
[49]
Caseline 67-9 and Caseline 67-27 to 67-28
[50]
Buthelezi report, Caseline 50-28
[51]
Caseline 50-64
[52]
Caseline 50-21
[53]
Caseline 50-32
[54]
Caseline 50-36
[55]
Caseline 50-2
[56]
Caseline 50-4
[57]
Caseline 50-19
[58]
Certificate of moral regeneration, Caseline 67-181
[59]
Caseline 67-216 to 67-217 under E Care, Development and Correctional
Programmes
[60]
Caseline 67-267
[61]
Caseline 67-29
[62]
Caseline 67-11
[63]
Caseline 50-1
[64]
See Hoexter: Administrative Law in South Africa, 2nd Ed, p340;
Carephone (Pty) Ltd v Marcus N.O.
1999 (3) SA 304
(LAC) at para 37.
[65]
Pharmaceutical
Manufacturers Association of South Africa: In re Ex Parte President
of the Republic of South Africa
[2000] ZACC 1
;
2000 (2) SA 674
(CC);
2000 (3) BCLR 241
(CC).
sino noindex
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