Case Law[2024] ZAGPPHC 992South Africa
BTTM v NKM (054684/2024) [2024] ZAGPPHC 992 (1 October 2024)
High Court of South Africa (Gauteng Division, Pretoria)
1 October 2024
Judgment
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# South Africa: North Gauteng High Court, Pretoria
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## BTTM v NKM (054684/2024) [2024] ZAGPPHC 992 (1 October 2024)
BTTM v NKM (054684/2024) [2024] ZAGPPHC 992 (1 October 2024)
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sino date 1 October 2024
IN
THE HIGH COURT OF SOUTH AFRICA
(GAUTENG DIVISION:
PRETORIA)
Date: 1 October 2024
Case number:
054684/2024
(1)
REPORTABLE: NO
(2)
OF INTEREST TO OTHER JUDGES: NO
(3)
REVISED
DATE 1 OCTOBER 2024
SIGNATURE
In
the matter between:
B T T
M
APPLICANT
And
N K
M
RESPONDENT
JUDGMENT
MINNAAR AJ,
[1]
The parties were married to each other on
12 January 2007, in community of property, and the marriage still
subsists. On or about
17 May 2024, the applicant instituted divorce
proceedings seeking an order dissolving the bond of marriage and
division of the
joint estate. The respondent delivered a plea. The
plea shows that the parties agree that the marriage bond should be
dissolved
and the joint estate be divided.
[2]
The applicant approached the Family Court
on an urgent basis for the following relief:
a.
That the parties' joint estate be divided
immediately in equal shares as provided for in
Section 20
of the
Matrimonial Property Act, No 88 of 1984
, as amended.
b.
That Mr Bekker be appointed as receiver or
liquidator of the parties’ joint estate, with the powers and
mandate provided to
him as envisaged in the mandate attached to the
founding papers.
c.
In the alternative to the above, an order
that a decree of divorce is granted with the relief ancillary to the
divorce action.
d.
In the event of opposition to the
application, the respondent be ordered to pay the costs of the
application on the scale as between
attorney and client,
alternatively on the scale as between party and party, including the
costs consequent to the employment of
senior counsel.
Section 20 of the
Matrimonial Property Act, No 88 of 1984 (hereinafter referred to as
“Section 20”):
[3]
Section 20 provides:
“
20
Power of court to order division of joint estate
(1)
A court may on the application of a
spouse, if it is satisfied that the interest of that spouse in the
joint estate is being or
will probably be seriously prejudiced by the
conduct or proposed conduct of the other spouse, and that other
persons will not be
prejudiced thereby, order the immediate division
of the joint estate in equal shares or on such other basis as the
court may deem
just.
(2) A court making an
order under subsection (1) may order that the community of property
be replaced by another matrimonial property
system, subject to such
conditions as it may deem fit.”
[4]
Division of the joint estate is a natural
consequence of the dissolution of a marriage in community of
property. To seek such a
division before the dissolution of the
marriage is a drastic step. There must be strict compliance with the
provisions of Section
20. Extraordinary relief of this nature is not
just for the taking and due consideration should be given before a
court is approached.
[5]
Before an order in terms of Section 20 can
be issued, the following requirements are to be met:
a.
The interest of the applicant in the joint
estate are being, or will probably, be seriously prejudiced by the
conduct or intended
conduct of the respondent.
b.
The guilty/delinquent spouse will not be
prejudiced thereby.
c.
There are proper and substantive grounds
for such an application.
d.
The applicant must set out the nature and
extent of the prejudice being or about to be caused by the
respondent, in other words,
material evidence of the actual disposal
of the assets or diminution of the undivided half share of the joint
estate must be set
out in full to enable the court to assess whether
the urgency to grant the relief is real, potential or imminent and
capable of
being carried out by the delinquent spouse.
e.
The applicant must set out fully the nature
and extent of the assets and liabilities of the joint estate and
indicate their value
or obtain a valuation thereof. This need not be
done with mathematical precision but it will be enough to give the
court an idea
of the size of the value of the assets for it is
obvious that any tampering with the assets of the joint estate will
invariably
have an impact on the liabilities that are in the interest
of the creditors.
f.
The
applicant must indicate practical and workable solutions and set out
the nature of the relief sought concisely and to furnish
full and
proper facts to enable the court to exercise its discretion
judicially.
[1]
[6]
The respondent is the sole member of
Go-Sedimogile Construction and Projects CC (“the CC”).
The respondent’s interest
in the CC forms part of the parties’
joint estate. The CC operates in the logistics and transport of coal.
The CC owns various
horses and trailers and other vehicles and same
is being used in the day-to-day running of the CC.
[7]
According to the applicant, the respondent
has embarked on a mission to cause the applicant irreparable harm and
damage as the respondent
has decided to sell or alienate assets of
their joint estate, specifically to the applicant’s detriment
and prejudice.
[8]
In terms of the founding affidavit, the
purported alienation the applicant is relying on relates to the
respondent’s outreach
to Pearson & Ferguson (Pty) Ltd,
being represented by Mr. Clint Mokgwathi (“Mr Mokgwathi”).
It is the case of the
applicant that the respondent and Mr Mokgwathi
prepared a draft sales and purchase agreement, in terms of which
Pearson & Ferguson
(Pty) Ltd, intends to purchase certain trucks
and trailers from the CC. Reference is made to emails exchanged
between the respondent
and Mr Mokgwathi. The alleged draft sales and
purchase agreement is not attached to the applicant’s
application.
[9]
According to the applicant, the respondent
has also secretly decided to syphon an amount of approximately
R1 200 000.00.
This amount was allegedly retained in the
respondent’s personal bank account. The applicant alleged that
this money is being
utilised to build a home on a property that
belongs to the respondent’s mother.
[10]
In the answering affidavit, the respondent
provided a full explanation as to the dealings with Mr Mokgwathi. It
is the respondent’s
case that no sale as alleged by the
applicant materialised.
[11]
In amplification, the respondent states
that in the nature of the business the CC is conducting, it will
follow that vehicles in
the fleet will have to be sold to enable to
reliability of the fleet and to comply with the requirements of the
contracts that
the CC are bound to.
[12]
The respondent pertinently denies that she
is alienating any assets of the CC. In paragraph 32 of the answering
affidavit, the respondent
challenges the applicant to refer to any
other asset(s) the respondent has sold or is in the process of
selling. The applicant
fails to counter this allegation and nothing
is presented on the challenge raised.
[13]
As to the allegation that she had syphoned
money to her mother, it is the respondent’s case that the money
is for the construction
of the Church Mission House of which the
applicant is aware and has agreed to. The parties’ contribution
to the church and
their social responsibilities is not a secret
between them. This is not something that came out of the blue as the
applicant wants
this court to believe.
[14]
The
onus to succeed with Section 20 rests solely with the applicant. The
applicant dismally failed to shed this onus in his founding
papers.
It is trite that an applicant needs to make out a prima facie case in
his or her founding affidavit.
In
casu,
the
applicant’s attempt to bolster his case in the replying
affidavit is an exercise in futility.
[2]
[15]
The applicant failed to provide any
material evidence of the actual disposal of assets. This court is not
convinced that assets
are being sold, or might be sold to the
detriment of the joint estate.
[16]
The applicant further failed to present
convincing evidence that the applicant’s interests in the joint
estate are being,
or will probably, be seriously prejudiced by the
respondent’s conduct, or intended conduct.
[17]
The applicant is also completely silent on
the prejudice that the respondent might suffer. Contrary to the
alleged prejudice the
applicant might suffer, to order the
dissolution of the joint estate, will severely prejudice the
respondent as it would have a
detrimental impact on her capability to
earn an income through the CC.
[18]
The court is further kept in the dark on
the crucial requirement that the applicant must fully set out the
nature and extent of
the joint estate’s assets and liabilities.
This court cannot order dissolution of the joint estate if the court
is not appraised
of facts relating to what the joint estate
comprises.
[19]
Save to state that the CC owns some horses,
trailers and motor vehicles, the applicant dismally fails to explain
the nature and
extent of the joint estate’s assets and
liabilities. To state that the CC owns some vehicles does not
suffice.
[20]
From the answering affidavit, it is evident
that some of the vehicles were purchased with financial assistance
from Standard Bank
and Toyota Finance and that the credit agreements
are still in place. Why the applicant could not have provided details
of the
liabilities of the joint estate remains a mystery.
[21]
Equally so, save to state that the
applicant has shares in some legal entities and that these entities
own some vehicles,
the applicant is completely silent regarding
the assets and liabilities of these entities. The applicant does not
even attempt
to indicate the value of the assets or to state what
steps he took to obtain such valuation.
[22]
No evidence is presented of the liabilities
of the joint estate and the scope of these liabilities. As such the
court is not appraised
of any other persons that might be affected by
the immediate division of the joint estate and what possible
prejudice such other
persons can suffer.
[23]
The application is flawed with
shortcomings. There are no proper and substantive grounds to warrant
the order sought. The applicant
has failed to furnish full and proper
facts to enable this court to exercise its discretion judicially. It
follows that the application
cannot succeed.
Urgency:
[24]
Rule 6(12)(b) of the Uniform Rules of Court
is clear: In every affidavit or petition filed in support of any
urgent application,
the applicant shall set forth explicitly the
circumstances which he avers render the matter urgent and the reasons
why he claims
that he could not be afforded substantial redress at a
hearing in due course.
[25]
The
applicant failed to meet these requirements. Mere lip service to the
requirements of urgency is insufficient.
[3]
[26]
The applicant’s urgency is premised
on the purported sale of assets and the letter by the applicant’s
attorney, dated
14 August 2024, in terms of which the respondent is
requested to provide an undertaking not to sell any assets that form
part of
the joint estate.
[27]
The respondent’s attorney immediately
responded stating that the respondent does not know of any assets
being sold. A request
was made for more details to place the
respondent in a better position to respond to the allegations.
[28]
On 15 August 2024, the applicant’s
attorney responded. In this letter, the applicant’s attorney
states that the respondent
knows exactly what assets she offered to
third parties. With this response, and instead of providing clarity
on what assets are
allegedly being sold, or are intended to be sold,
the applicant left the respondent guessing. A final demand was sought
for an
undertaking that no assets, that form part of the joint
estate, will be sold.
[29]
No assets are being sold, and the
applicant’s attempt to create urgency by threatening, and
vague, letters of demand, is of
no assistance to create urgency. All
that the letters achieved was to create self-made urgency for the
applicant.
[30]
It follows, that the application is not
urgent. Instead, it is an opportunistic abuse of the process of this
court.
Application to strike
out:
[31]
On Thursday 5 September 2024, the
respondent delivered an application to strike out certain matter from
the founding- and replying
affidavit. It is the case of the
respondent that she is being prejudiced by the applicant’s
inclusion of inadmissible hearsay
evidence in the founding affidavit
and impermissible matter in the replying affidavit (new matter,
alternatively, departure together
with inadmissible hearsay).
[32]
The applicant elected not to respond to
this application.
[33]
The hearsay complaint deals with the
applicant’s reliance on what transpired between the respondent
and Mr Mokgwathi. It further
relates to what has been stated by Me
Khumo Mogotlhong as to the CC’s intention to continue with its
business and communications
by the respondent’s personal
assistant Lesego.
[34]
Section 3(1) of the Law of Evidence
Amendment 45 of 1988 deals with hearsay evidence. The general
rule is that hearsay evidence
shall not be admitted as evidence.
Section 3(1)(a) to (c) deals with the exceptions to this general
exclusion.
[35]
On the date of the hearing, a confirmatory
affidavit by Mr Mokgwathi was handed up in court with an explanation
provided by counsel
that it was impossible to timeously obtain a
confirmatory affidavit by Mr Mokgwathi as it was difficult to get
hold of him. No
explanation in this regard is provided in either the
founding or the replying affidavit or in the confirmatory affidavit.
This
confirmatory affidavit is not allowed into the record.
[36]
No attempts were made to obtain
confirmatory affidavits from Me Mokgotlhong and Lesego. In the
replying affidavit, reference is
made to dealings between Dean from
Truck Busters and the respondent. Once again, no attempt was made to
obtain and present a confirmatory
affidavit from Dean.
[37]
In relying on the evidence of Mr Mokgwathi,
Me Mokgotlhong, Lesego and Dean, the applicant failed to meet any of
the requirements
of
Section 3(1)(a)
to (c) of the
Law of Evidence
Amendment Act 45 of 1988
.
[38]
It follows that any reliance by the
applicant on the evidence by Mr Mokgwathi, Me Mokgotlhong, Lesego and
Dean constitute inadmissible
hearsay and is thus struck out.
[39]
The respondent’s complaint of new
matter being introduced in the replying affidavit relates to Me
Mokgotlhong and Dean. The
new matter relates to events that occurred
after the founding affidavit was deposed. Any prejudice that the new
matter could cause
to the respondent is catered for in the dismissal
of the application. It further follows that this new matter should be
struck
as it contains inadmissible hearsay.
Costs:
[40]
The application was brought in haste whilst
not being urgent and failed to meet the requirements of
Section 20.
The application is ill-conceived, opportunistic and an abuse of the
process of this court.
[41]
The respondent seeks costs on the scale as
between attorney and client. There is no reason to deprive the
respondent of such costs.
ORDER:
Consequently, I make the
following order:
1.
The application is dismissed.
2.
The following are found to be inadmissible
hearsay and are struck from the founding affidavit:
a.
Paragraph 26;
b.
Paragraph 27;
c.
Paragraph 29;
d.
Annexure “L”;
e.
Annexure “M”;
f.
Annexure “N”
3.
The following are found to be inadmissible
hearsay and are struck from the replying affidavit:
a.
Paragraphs 20.3 to 21.6;
b.
Paragraphs 32.5 to 32.6;
c.
Paragraph 58;
d.
Paragraph 65.4;
e.
Paragraph 73;
f.
Annexure “RA3”;
g.
Annexure “RA13”;
h.
Annexure “RA16”.
4.
The applicant is to pay the costs of the
application, inclusive of the costs of the application to strike out,
on the scale as between
attorney and client.
Minnaar AJ
Acting Judge of the High
Court
Gauteng
Division, Pretoria
Heard
on:
10
September 2024
For
the applicant:
Adv F
W Botes SC
Instructed
by:
Arthur
Channon Attorneys Inc
For
the respondent:
Adv L
Matsiela
Instructed
by
Mokhetle
Attorneys Inc
Date
of Judgment:
1
October 2024
[1]
AB v JB
[2009] ZAGPPHC 185 (21 April 2009) at par 9 and 10
[2]
Poseidon
Ships Agencies (Pty) Ltd v African Coaling and Exporting Co (Durban)
(Pty) Ltd
1980 (1) SA 313
(D) at 316A
[3]
Luna
Meubel Vervaardigers (Edms) Bpk v Makin
1977
(4) SA 135
(W) at par 137E
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