Case Law[2023] ZAGPPHC 671South Africa
Open Heaven Community Radio v Independent Communications Authority of South Africa and Others (38665/2022) [2023] ZAGPPHC 671 (19 July 2023)
High Court of South Africa (Gauteng Division, Pretoria)
19 July 2023
Judgment
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## Open Heaven Community Radio v Independent Communications Authority of South Africa and Others (38665/2022) [2023] ZAGPPHC 671 (19 July 2023)
Open Heaven Community Radio v Independent Communications Authority of South Africa and Others (38665/2022) [2023] ZAGPPHC 671 (19 July 2023)
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sino date 19 July 2023
IN
THE HIGH COURT OF SOUTH AFRICA
(GAUTENG
DIVISION, PRETORIA)
REPUBLIC
OF SOUTH AFRICA
Case
Number:
38665/2022
(1)
REPORTABLE: NO
(2)
OF INTEREST TO OTHER JUDGES: NO
(3)
REVISED: NO
DATE:
19 July 2023
SIGNATURE:
JANSE VAN NIEUWENHUIZEN J
In
the matter between:
OPEN HEAVEN COMMUNITY
RADIO
Applicant
and
INDEPENDENT
COMMUNICATIONS AUTHORITY
OF SOUTH AFRICA
First
Respondent
DR CHARLEY LEWIS
N.O.
Second
Respondent
NKETHELENI
GIDI
Third
Respondent
JUDGMENT
JANSE VAN
NIEUWENHUIZEN J:
[1]
The applicant, a community radio station, claims an order in the
following terms:
“
1.
A declarator that the applicant’s Class Broadcasting Licence/s
(
No. Class/Com/R183/Sep/12)
is
valid for a term of SEVEN YEARS from the effective date and its terms
of validity will expire on 11 September 2024;
2.
The respondents’ instruction to the applicant embodied in a
letter dated
11 July 2022 to cease broadcasting on 11 September 2022
be declared unlawful, reviewed and set aside;
3.
Alternative
to para 1 and 2 above, the respondents’
decision to refuse to process the applicant’s notice of renewal
of its Class
Broadcasting Service Licence/s (
No.
Class/Com/R183/Sep/12)
be reviewed and set aside in terms of PAJA
or the principle of legality;
4.
The applicant’s notice of renewal be remitted back to the
respondents to
process on terms imposed by this Court.”
BACKGROUND
[2]
Broadcasting services in South Africa are regulated in terms of the
Electronic Communications
Act, 36 of 2005 (“the Act”) and
the regulations promulgated in terms of the Act.
[3]
The legislation provides certainty and ensures a transparent and
orderly environment
in which service providers provide services to
the public. In order to achieve the objects of the Act, ICASA was
established in
terms of
section 3
of the
Independent Communications
Authority of South Africa Act, 13 of 2000
to
inter alia
perform
the duties imposed by the Act and regulations.
[4]
The Act makes provision for two types of licences, to wit: individual
licences and
class licences.
[5]
A service provider that wishes to provide class broadcasting services
must, in terms
of section 17 of the Act, submit a registration notice
in the manner prescribed by the Act. The applicant duly submitted a
registration
notice, and a licence was issued to the applicant on 12
September 2012.
[6]
The validity period of a licence is prescribed by The Standard Terms
and Conditions
Regulations for Class Licences, 2010 (Notice 525 of
2010 published on 14 June 2010) (“the Regulations”). In
terms of
regulation 4, the validity period of the applicant’s
licence was five years from the effective date and expired on 12
September
2017.
[7]
In terms of section 19(2) of the Act, a licensee seeking to renew its
class licence
must, in writing and not less than 60 days prior to the
expiry date, notify ICASA of its intention to continue to provide
services.
The applicant submitted a written notification as
contemplated in section 19(2) to ICASA and on 26 May 2017 the
applicant received
a licence with the effective date of 12 September
2017. The expiry date of the licence was, in accordance with
regulation 4 of
the regulations, 11 September 2022.
[8]
In the result, the applicant had to submit a notification to ICASA in
terms of section
19(2) on or before 11 March 2022. The applicant,
however, incurred certain regulatory difficulties, in that it did not
have a fully
functioning board to oversee the running of its affairs
since November 2021. In order to rectify the problem, the applicant
had
tele-conference meetings with ICASA’s broadcasting unit on
15 November 2021 and on 3 March 2022. The purpose of the meetings
was
to assist the applicant to hold an annual general meeting (AGM) for
the purpose of electing a new and properly constituted
board.
[9]
During the meeting on 3 March 2022, it was agreed that an AGM will be
convened for
26 March 2022 and that the applicant will thereafter
submit a written notice for the renewal of its licence.
[10]
Notwithstanding the aforesaid agreement and on 23 March 2022, ICASA
informed the applicant that,
due to its non-compliance with the
provisions of section 19(2) of the Act, it had to cease providing
broadcasting services on 12
September 2022.
[11]
The applicant proceeded to hold its AGM on 26 March 2022. On 28 March
2022 Teboho Malefane, a
broadcasting compliance officer of ICASA,
sent an email to the applicant requesting the minutes of the AGM and
certain further
documents.
[12]
On 30 March 2022, the applicant filed its notice in terms of section
19(2) with ICASA. ICASA,
however, refused to process the notice on
the grounds that it was out of time. On 15 June 2022, the applicant
submitted a request
for the condonation of the late filing of the
renewal of its licence. On 11 July 2022 ICASA informed the applicant
that it is bound
to the provisions of the Act and that it does not
have the necessary legislative or regulatory powers to condone the
applicant’s
non-compliance with section 19(2) of the Act.
[13]
The applicant did not agree with ICASA’s interpretation of the
Act and issued this application.
The application comprised of a Part
A, in terms of which the applicant claimed urgent interim relief
pending the finalisation of
Part B, being the relief presently before
court.
[14]
At the time, the relief claimed in Part B of the application was
confined to the review of ICASA’s
decision not to process the
applicant’s renewal notice.
[15]
Upon receipt of the rule 53 record, the applicant filed an amended
notice of motion and included
the declaratory relief pertaining to
the validity period of the licence.
[16]
In view of the aforesaid background, the relief claimed by the
applicant will be discussed
infra
.
DISCUSSION
Validity period of
licence
[17]
The declaratory relief claimed by the applicant in respect of the
validity period of its licence
is premised on amendments to the
Regulations that were published in Government Gazette No 33428, under
Notice 131 of 2021 on 25
March 2021. Regulation 4 amended the
validity period for the type of licence issued to the applicant to
seven years from the “
effective date”.
[18]
“
Effective date”
is defined in Regulation 2.2 as
“
the date specified in the licence which may be a past,
present or future date from the date of signature.”
[19]
In view of the amended Regulations, the applicant contends that its
licence only expires on 11
September 2024.
[20]
ICASA disagrees and submitted that the amended regulations are not
retrospective and do not apply to
the validity period of the
applicant’s licence.
[21]
In considering the opposing views in respect of the retrospective
operation of the new regulations,
it is apposite to have regard to
the rules of interpretation of statues. The rules were recently
succinctly summarised by the Constitutional
Court in
Road Traffic
Management Corporation v Waymark Infotech (Pty) Ltd
2019 (5) SA
29
(CC), to wit:
“
[29] The
principles of statutory interpretation are by now well settled. In
Endumeni the Supreme Court of Appeal authoritatively
restated the
proper approach to statutory interpretation. The Supreme Court of
Appeal explained that statutory interpretation is
the objective
process of attributing meaning to words used in legislation. This
process, it emphasised, entails a simultaneous
consideration of —
(a)the language used
in the light of the ordinary rules of grammar and syntax;
(b) the context in
which the provision appears; and
(c) the apparent
purpose to which it is directed.
[30] What this court
said in Cool Ideas in the context of statutory interpretation is
particularly apposite. It said:
'A fundamental tenet
of statutory interpretation is that the words in a statute must be
given their ordinary grammatical meaning,
unless to do so would
result in an absurdity. There are three important interrelated riders
to this general principle, namely:
(a)that
statutory provisions should always be interpreted purposively;
(b)the relevant
statutory provision must be properly contextualised; and
©all statutes
must be construed consistently with the Constitution, that is, where
reasonably possible, legislative provisions
ought to be interpreted
to preserve their constitutional validity. This proviso to the
general principle is closely related to
the purposive approach
referred to in (a).’ [Footnotes omitted.]
[31] Where a provision
is ambiguous, its possible meanings must be weighed against each
other, given these factors. For example,
a meaning that frustrates
the apparent purpose of the statute or leads to unbusinesslike
results is not to be preferred. Neither
is one that unduly strains
the ordinary, clear meaning of words. That text, context and purpose
must always be considered at the
same time when interpreting
legislation has been affirmed on various occasions by this court.
[32] Allied to these
factors, courts must also interpret legislation to promote the
spirit, purport, and objects of the Bill of
Rights. Again, courts
should not unduly strain the reasonable meaning of words when doing
so. But this obligation entails understanding
statutes to ‘lay
the foundations for a democratic and open society, improve the
quality of life for all and build a
united and democratic South
Africa’.”
(footnotes omitted)
[22] The
new Regulations do not expressly state whether regulation 4 is
applicable to existing licences
or whether it is only applicable to
licences that are applied for after 25 March 2021.
[23]
Bearing the principles enunciated in
Unitrans
in mind, it is
apposite to have regard to the legislative context in terms of which
class licences are granted.
[24]
Section 16 pertains to class licences and provide,
inter alia
,
as follows:
“
(3)
The Authority must maintain a registrar of all class licences
containing the information set out
in subsection (5).
(5)
The Authority must at least once annually update and publish the list
of class licensees
in the Gazette, indicating for each class-
“
(a) the name of the
accepted registrant;
(b) the nature of the
service that the registrant proposes to provide; and
(c)
the
licence conditions applicable to the class licence.
”
(own
emphasis)
[25] As
set out
supra
, section 17 makes provision for the granting of
class licences. Section 17(3) states that upon the granting of a
class licence
ICASA must update its internal records by including the
information referred to in section 16(5)
supra
.
[26] The
licence issued to a licensee reflects the information prescribed by
section 16(5) and 17(3).
In
casu,
the applicant’s
licence provides the details of the licence under the following
headings: “
1. Licensee; 2. Licence Period; 3. Licence Area;
4. Community; 5. Programming; 6. Contact details; 7. Notices and
Addresses; 8.
Promise of Performance.”
[27] The
licence period reads as follows:
“
2. LICENCE PERIOD
2.1 The effective date of the
Licence is 12 September 2017.
2.2 The Licence
shall
expire
on 11 September 2022.”
(own underlining)
[28]
Section 17(6), furthermore, stipulates that a licensee must ensure
that the information contained
in the register referred to in section
16(3) remains accurate during the “
term”
of the
licence.
[29]
From the aforesaid, it is clear that the terms and conditions of a
class licence, including its
duration, are determined, and published
on the date when the licence is granted and remain applicable for the
duration of the licence.
[30] The
Act does not provide for the amendment of the terms and conditions of
a licence during its
period of validity.
[31] An
automatic amendment of the period of a licence, as contended for by
the applicant, would be
in direct conflict with the express
provisions of section 16 and 17 of the Act.
[32]
Furthermore, section 19(2) that provides for the renewal of a class
licence six months prior
to the
expiration
of the licence is
predicated on the expiry date in the licence itself. To hold that
licences are automatically extended by the
provisions of the new
regulations, would cause uncertainty, and cause administrative havoc
in the implementation of the Act.
[33]
Lastly, it is trite that there is a presumption against the
retrospective operation of a statute.
In
Workmen’s
Compensation Commissioner v Jooste
1997 (4) 418 (SCA) the court
stated the following at 424 F-H:
“
There is at common law a
prima facie rule of construction that a statute (or any amendment or
legislatively authorised alteration
thereto) shall not be interpreted
as having retrospective effect (National Iranian Tanker Co v MV
Pericles GC
1995
(1) SA 475
(A)
at
483H; Protea International (Pty) Ltd v Peat Marwick Mitchell & Co
1990
(2) SA 566 (A)
at
G 570B--C). The presumption against retrospectivity arising from this
rule may be rebutted, either expressly or by necessary
implication,
by provisions or indications to the contrary in the enactment under
consideration (Lek v Estate Agents Board
1978
(3) SA 160 (C)
at
169F--G). In an appropriate case the language of the enactment, far
from rebutting the presumption, may fortify it.”
[34]
Having regard to the correct interpretation of the new regulations, I
agree with ICASA that the
presumption is applicable in
casu
.
[35] In
the result, the relief claimed by the applicant in prayers 1 and 2
stands to be dismissed.
Condonation
[36]
Section 11 of the Act provides for the renewal of individual licences
and section 11(9) provides
that ICASA may on good cause shown, accept
for filing, an application for renewal that is not submitted in time.
The term “
on good cause shown”
would of necessity
entail an application for condonation for the late filing of the
application.
[37]
Section 19 does not contain a similar provision and ICASA is correct
in its submission that it
does not have the legislative authority or
power to grant condonation for the late filing of an application for
the renewal of
a class licence.
[38] The
applicant agrees that section 19 does not confer a discretion on
ICASA to accept a renewal
notice filed by a licensee outside the
stipulated time frame of six months. In the result, ICASA is not
empowered by the Act to
consider the applicant’s request for
condonation contained in its letter of 15 June 2022.
[39] The
applicant, however, submits that a discretion may be express or
implied and that upon a proper
consideration of the Act, the court
should find that the Act confers an implied discretion on ICASA to
accept notices that were
filed late.
[40]
Once such finding is made, the refusal by ICASA to accept the
applicant’s renewal notice
constitutes unlawful administrative
action and stands to be set aside.
[41] In
support of its aforesaid submission the applicant relies,
inter
alia,
on
Millenium Waste Management (Pty) Ltd v
Chairperson Tender Board: Limpopo Province and Others
2008 (2) SA
481
(SCA). In
Millenium Waste,
the court considered the
process followed by the Department of Health and Social Development,
Limpopo in the awarding of a tender.
The process is governed by the
North Transvaal Tender Board Act, 2 of 1994. The Department
advertised an invitation to interested
parties to tender for the
removal, treatment and disposal of medical waste.
Millenium Waste
submitted a tender, but its tender was disqualified for failure
to comply with the terms of the tender, to wit, it failed to sign
a
form titled ‘declaration of interest’.
[42]
Millenium Waste
took the decision on review and in defending
its decision to disqualify
Millenium Waste
’s tender, the
Department submitted that the terms of the tender documents relating
to administrative compliance was couched
in peremptory language which
expressly stated that non-compliance would result in
disqualification. Relying on the definition of
‘an acceptable
tender’ in the
Preferential Procurement Policy Framework Act, 5
of 2000
, the Department submitted that
Millenium Waste
’s
tender did not constitute an acceptable tender and was correctly
disqualified.
[43] The
court did not uphold the Department’s contentions and stated
the following in para
[16] and [17]:
“
[16] I cannot
accept the department's argument. On the assumption that there was a
valid delegation of power from the tender board
to Dr C Manzini and
further to the tender committee, the answer to the question of
authority lies in reg 5(c), which empowers the
tender board to accept
tenders even if they fail to comply with tender requirements. In
these circumstances reliance on the Pepper
Bay Fishing case was
misplaced. In that case the issue was whether the chief director to
whom the power to grant fishing licences
was delegated, had authority
to condone procedural defects in applications for fishing rights
submitted to him. On the enquiry
relating to the chief director's
powers Brand JA said (para 31):
As a general principle
an administrative authority has no inherent power to condone failure
to comply with a peremptory requirement.
It only has such power if it
has been afforded the discretion to do so. . . .The Chief Director
derives all his (delegated) powers
and authority from the enactment
constituted by the general notice. If the general notice therefore
affords him no discretion,
he has none. The question whether he had a
discretion is therefore entirely dependent on a proper construction
of the general notice.
With this I agree and
wish to add that in the present case the tender committee was
afforded the necessary discretion by reg 5(c).
Therefore, it erred in
thinking that it did not possess such power.
[17] Moreover, our law
permits condonation of non-compliance with peremptory requirements in
cases where condonation is not incompatible
with public interest and
if such condonation is granted by the body in whose benefit the
provision was enacted (SA Eagle Co
Ltd v Bavuma)…”
(footnotes omitted)
[44]
In
SA Eagle Co Ltd v Bavuma
1985 (3) SA 42
(A), the court
stated at 49 H – 50 B that:
“
This rule has
frequently been applied by our Courts in holding that statutory
protection (often in the form of limitation of actions)
afforded
local authorities and Government departments is capable of waiver
when the protection is not intended for the benefit
of the public but
for the benefit of the local authority or Government department
itself. So, for example, it was held in
Steenkamp v Peri-Urban Areas
Health Committee
1946 TPD 424
at 429 that the protection afforded by
s 172
of Ord 17 of 1939, which provided that all actions against a
local authority shall be brought within six months of the time when
the cause of action arose, was not intended for the benefit of the
public or the ratepayers but for the protection of the local
authority itself, and could therefore be waived. See also
Durban Corporation v Lewis
1942 NPD 24
at 41; McDonald v Enslin
1960
(2) SA 314
(O)
at 317A
- C and Bay Loan Investment (Pty) Ltd v Bay View (Pty) Ltd
1971
(4) SA 538 (C)
at
540A.”
[45] The
question then arises for who’s benefit the six months’
time limit in
section 19(2)
was intended? ICASA, without providing
any reasons, simply submitted that the time limit in
section 19(2)
was not enacted for its benefit. A time limit is in the ordinary
cause inserted for the benefit of the authority that must consider
an
application or claim.
[46] One
such example is
section 3
of the Institution of Legal Proceedings
against Certain Organs of State Act, 40 of 2002. The section provides
that no legal proceedings
for the recovery of a debt may be
instituted against an organ of state, unless notice is given of the
intended legal proceedings,
within six months from the date on which
the debt became due. The rationale being, that due to the magnitude
of state operations,
the notice enables the organ of state to
investigate and gather information and evidence, whilst the
information and evidence is
still readily available. The time limit
in section 3 was, therefore, clearly enacted for the benefit of the
state. The aforesaid
is borne out by the fact that an organ of state
may elect to condone non-compliance with the time-limit.
[47] It
is only when an organ of state does not condone the late filing of
the notice and elects to
rely thereon, that a creditor has to apply
to court, in terms of section 3(4), for condonation.
[48] The
most probable reason for the six months’ time limit in section
19(2), is to afford
ICASA sufficient time to process an application
for renewal. To hold otherwise would entail that the legislature
arbitrarily and
for no reason at all, enacted the time limit.
[49] In
the result, I am satisfied that ICASA may, in its discretion, waive
the six-month time limit.
[50] The
question then arises whether ICASA’s decision was, in view of
the express provisions
of section 19, wrong. In my view, it was not.
ICASA’s legislative powers are contained in the Act. ICASA does
not have the
legislative power to interpret the Act. That power falls
within the domain of the courts.
[51] In
the result, none of the grounds for review in the
Promotion of
Administrative Justice Act, 3 of 2000
, have been satisfied and I do
not deem the review of the decision as the correct legal remedy in
the circumstances.
[52]
Having regard to the interest of justice, the fairness to the parties
and the need for legal
certainty, this court will, however, be
failing in its duty in not granting appropriate relief.
[53] I
am of the view, that an order declaring that ICASA has the necessary
legislative power to,
in its discretion, condone the late filing of a
notice for the renewal of a class licence in terms of
section 19(2)
,
will be just and equitable in the circumstances. Such order will
achieve the actual purpose for the relief sought by the applicant,
to
wit; a consideration of its request for condonation for the late
filing of the notice contemplated in section 19(2) of the Act.
[See:
Ex parte V N Naidoo
1943
NDP 269]
COSTS
[54] The
applicant submitted that, should this court refuse the application,
it is immunized from
an adverse cost order, because it came to court
to enforce its constitutional rights against an organ of state. In
support for
the aforesaid submission, the applicant relies on
Biowatch Trust v Registrar Genetic Resources and Others
2009
(6) SA 232
(CC). In
Biowatch,
the Constitutional Court held at
para [16] that: “
The primary consideration in constitutional
litigation must be the way in which costs orders would hinder or
promote the advancement
of constitutional justice.”
[55] The
issues in
casu do
not fall under the auspices of “
the
advancement of constitutional justice”
and do not justify a
deviation from the general principle that a successful party is
entitled to its costs.
[56]
ICASA was substantially successful in its opposition of the
application and is entitled to a
cost order in its favour.
ORDER
The following order is
issued:
1.
It is declared that the first respondent has the
legislative power to consider an application for condonation for the
non-compliance
with the time limit contained in
section 19(2)
of the
Electronic Communications Act, 36 of 2005
.
2.
The applicant’s request for condonation
contained in its letter dated 11 June 2022 is remitted to the first
respondent for
consideration.
3.
The applicant is ordered to pay the costs of the
application.
N. JANSE VAN
NIEUWENHUIZEN
JUDGE OF THE HIGH
COURT OF SOUTH AFRICA
GAUTENG DIVISION,
PRETORIA
DATE
HEARD:
15
May 2023
DATE
DELIVERED:
19
July 2023
APPEARANCES
For
the Applicant:
Advocate
M Nguta
Advocate
B Zungu
Instructed
by:
Tsotetsi
Attorneys
For
the Respondents:
Advocate
K Tsatsawane SC
Advocate
K Lefaladi
Instructed
by:
HM
Chaane Attorneys Inc
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