Case Law[2022] ZAGPPHC 306South Africa
Stark N.O v Aphiri t/a Aphiri Attorneys (6651/2018) [2022] ZAGPPHC 306 (29 April 2022)
Headnotes
judgment was launched by the applicant which application the respondent failed to oppose. Summary
Judgment
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# South Africa: North Gauteng High Court, Pretoria
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## Stark N.O v Aphiri t/a Aphiri Attorneys (6651/2018) [2022] ZAGPPHC 306 (29 April 2022)
Stark N.O v Aphiri t/a Aphiri Attorneys (6651/2018) [2022] ZAGPPHC 306 (29 April 2022)
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sino date 29 April 2022
IN
THE HIGH COURT OF SOUTH AFRICA
GAUTENG
DIVISION, PRETORIA
CASE
NO: 6651/2018
REPORTABLE:
OF
INTEREST TO OTHER JUDGES:
REVISED
In
the matter between:
MICHELLE
STARK N.O
Respondent/Plaintiff
and
JOHN
TSIETSI APHIRI t/a APHIRI ATTORNEYS
Applicant/Defendant
JUDGMENT
MADIBA
AJ
[1]
The applicant is applying for an order rescinding the default
judgment granted by
the above Honourable Court on 15 May 2018. The
application is brought in terms of Rule 42 of the Uniform Rules of
the Court alternatively
applicant contends that the common law is
applicable in the application.
The
application is opposed on the basis that: - the applicant has failed
to show good cause for the rescission and that the application
was
not made
bona fide
. It is contended that the applicant failed
to comply with the provisions of Rule 42 and no
bona fide
defences have been raised by the applicant.
Background
facts
[2]
The respondent was appointed by Mr. Oupa Daniël Sepeng as his
attorney and was
instructed to institute a claim against the Road
Accident Fund. During May 2012 the Road Accident Fund conceded the
merits and
a costs order was granted in favour of Mr. Sepeng. The
costs in the sum of R49 654,65 were paid to the respondent.
The
outstanding issue of quantum was also settled during the trial. The
Road Accident Fund paid R982 885,00 to the respondent
as per the
court order. It was one of the terms of the court order that the
respondent was to create an
inter vivos
trust and the monies
so received from the Road Accident Fund were to be kept in an
interest bearing account to be opened by the
trustee. Accordingly,
the applicant in this matter, Michelle Stark N.O., was appointed a
trustee and issued with a letter of authority
by the Master of the
High Court.
The
Road Accident Fund paid a further amount of R203 917,97 being
for taxed costs to the respondent. The respondent failed
to pay all
the monies from the Road Accident Fund to the trust as ordered by the
court. An amount of R407 322,93 was ultimately
paid by the
respondent and he failed to properly account and pay the remainder of
the monies in his possession to the trust.
On
investigations, the respondent’s trust account reflected a
balance of R2 561,34.
The
applicant issued summons against the respondent alleging that the
monies retained by the respondent were due and payable to
the trust.
In
the premises the applicant (plaintiff) claimed payment of R545 189,69
alternatively R1 052 512,12 and further alternatively
the
capital amount of R982 885,00 and interests emanating from the
aforementioned amounts.
In
claim 2, the applicant claimed R255 532,98 as interest
a
tempore morae
including costs of suit.
The
action by the applicant (plaintiff) was defended by the respondent
(defendant). An application for summary judgment was launched
by the
applicant which application the respondent failed to oppose. Summary
judgment was granted on the 15
th
of May 2018 and the
following orders were made: -
Claim
1
1.
Payment of the sum of
R545 189,69.
2.
Interest on the sum of
R545 189,69 at the rate of 10 % per annum
a
tempore morae.
3.
Costs of suit on the
scale as between attorney and client.
Claim 2
1.
Payment of the sum of
R255 532,98.
2.
Interest on the sum of
R255 532,98 at the rate of 10 % per annum
a
tempore morae
.
3.
Costs of suit on the
scale as between attorney and client.
Claim 3
1.
Payment of the sum of
R138 436,58 being for legal costs and costs and expenses
incurred by the plaintiff up to 26 September
2017.
2.
Interest on the sum of
R138 436,58 at the rate of 10 % per annum
a
tempore morae
.
3.
Costs of suit on the
scale as between attorney and client.
The
applicant disputed the authority of Tim du Toit Attorneys to act on
behalf of Oupa Daniel Sepeng and served a Rule 7 (1) notice.
[3]
A warrant of execution was issued against the movable property of
respondent. The
respondent’s personal bank accounts were frozen
resulting in him applying for the rescission of the default judgment.
The
relief sought by the applicant
inter alia
include
condonation and rescission of judgment. Condonation is sought as the
applicant’s application was filed seventeen months
after the
summary judgment application was instituted.
AD
CONDONATION
The
applicant failed to oppose summary judgment application served on his
attorneys on the 13 March 2018. During 15 May 2018 summary
judgment
was granted against the applicant. According to the applicant, he
became aware of an order for summary judgment against
him, when the
Sheriff attempted to execute a warrant of execution against the
applicant’s movable property during October
2018. The
application for rescission of judgment was instituted by the
respondent on the 28 October 2019 which application became
opposed.
The
grounds for condonation are premised on the following grounds:
a)
That the respondent became extremely depressed
when he became aware of the summary judgment order against him, as he
believed that
the amount owed was correctly calculated by the curator
of his legal practice. The outstanding amount owed to the trust
according
to the applicant was the sum of R30 357.11 and not as
reflected in the summary judgment order.
b)
That the notice for summary judgment served did
not contain a court date.
c)
The respondent has no
locus
standi
to institute legal action against the
applicant.
The
applicant submitted that if summary judgment is not rescinded, it
will unjustly enrich the respondent and impoverish the applicant
and
the Attorneys Fidelity Fund. According to the applicant, he has a
constitutional right to state his case as he has
bona fide
defence with prospects of success.
The
respondent’s view is that the applicant has being dilatory and
delaying in launching the application for rescission. It
took the
applicant a period of seventeen months to institute the rescission
which timeframe, the respondent submitted is unreasonable.
It was
further submitted that the application failed to identify what
condonation is sought, in respect of which error nor does
it identify
the judgment in respect of which rescission is based on. The
respondent’s contention is that the relief sought
by the
applicant is unworkable and that the application for condonation be
dismissed with costs.
An
application for condonation for the late filing of respondent’s
answering affidavit was launched by the respondent. The
respondent
avers that the non – compliance of the rules was occasioned by
the following reasons: -
That
the respondent delayed in obtaining and compiling the requisite
information to be able to fully respond to the applicant’s
averments. The late filing of the answering affidavit is not
prejudicial to the applicant and that the respondent will be greatly
disadvantaged if the late filing of the answering affidavit is not
condoned. It is contended that the
audi alteram partem
rule
obviates that the interest of justice demands that the condonation be
granted in this matter. The condonation application
by the respondent
is not opposed.
A
Court may condone non – compliance of the rules where an
applicant demonstrates that a valid and justifiable reason exists
why
non – compliance should be condoned.
The
Court held in
Federated Employers Fire and General Insurance
Co Ltd and Another v McKenzie
1969 (3) SA 360
(A
)
at 362 F – H that:
“
In
considering petitions for condonation under Rule 13, the factors
usually weighed by the Court include the degree of non-compliance,
the explanation therefor, the importance of the case, the prospects
of success, the respondent’s interest in the finality
of his
judgment, the convenience of the Court and the avoidance of
unnecessary delay in the administration of justice …”
It
is indeed so that there are instances when both the applicant and
respondent failed to comply with the rules of Court with no
sufficient and reasonable explanation provided. An applicant is to
provide an explanation of his default sufficiently fully to
enable
the Court to understand how it really came about and to access his
conduct and motive. The burden lies with the applicant
to prove good
cause for the relief he seeks.
I
am of the view that it is both in the interest of the parties and
more importantly in the interest of justice that the rescission
and
condonation applications by both parties be entertained holistically
as piecemeal approach is not appropriate under the circumstances.
Our
Courts have confirmed that the standard for considering an
application for condonation is in the interest of justice. See
Brummer v Gorfil Brothers Investments (Pty) Ltd and Others
[2000] ZACC 3
;
2000 (2) SA 837
CC par [3];
Grootboom
v National Prosecuting Authority and Another
2014
(2) SA 68
CC par [22] and [23]
. It was held in
Byron
v Duke Inc
2002 (5) SA 483
(SCA)
that
the non – compliance with the rules were not so flagrant and
gross that merely because of them the application for condonation
should be dismissed.
I
therefore find that both the applicant and respondent will suffer no
prejudice as there has to be clarity on the issues contended
by both
parties in this application. The non – compliance of the rules
is not so flagrant and gross to warrant the dismissal
of the
condonation applications.
In
the premises I make the following order: -
a)
That applicant’s condonation application is
granted.
b)
The late filing of the respondent’s
answering affidavit is condoned.
c)
No order as to costs.
Respondent’s
Rule 30 Application
The
respondent contended that the applicant failed to serve its replying
affidavit. Reference to the said replying affidavit only
surfaced in
the applicant’s heads of argument. The respondent brought it to
the attention of the applicant that no replying
affidavit was ever
served. The applicant did however deliver its replying affidavit
through an email address,
stoffberg@timdutoit.co.za
on the 22
September 2020 and not on the 22 September 2021 as alleged by the
applicant. The respondent submitted that its email address
is
kstoffberg@timdutoit.co.za
and not as
indicated in the applicant’s email purportedly sent to the
respondent.
It
is contended that the mistakes highlighted above constitute irregular
step and since the applicant failed to apply for condonation
and
withdrew the replying affidavit, it should be struck out. Rule 30 (1)
of the Uniform Rules provides that any party which an
irregular or
improper step has been taken may apply to Court to set it aside.
The
application in terms of Rule 30 may be sought if the applicant by
written notice afforded its opponent an opportunity to remove
the
cause of complaint within 10 days and thereafter delivers an
application at the expiry date of those 10 days. Since the
application
to set aside an irregular proceeding or step is an
interlocutory application, Rule 6 (11) finds application. It is
telling that
the respondent did not request the applicant in the form
of notice to comply with Rue 30 (2) and Rule 30A (1). In any event
the
applicant on own accord realising that its replying affidavit did
not reach the intended recipient, rectified the situation by sending
its affidavit to the respondent.
In
my view the irregularities complained of are mere technicalities and
at best amount to typographical errors which are of no consequence
to
the issues at hand in this matter.
The
purpose of the Rules of Court is to ensure a fair hearing and to seek
inexpensive and expeditious finalisation of matters before
the Court.
In
Eke v Parsons
2016 (3) SA 37
(CC)
at par 39 the Court held that rules
exist for the courts and not the courts for the rules and that rules
should not be observed
for their own sake.
The
court in
PFE International Inc (BVI) and Others v Industrial
Development Corporation of South Africa Ltd
2013
(1) SA CC
held that:
“
Since
the rules are made for courts to facilitate the adjudication of
cases, the superior courts enjoy the power to regulate their
processes, taking into account the interests of justice. It is this
power that makes every superior court the master of its
own
process. It enables a superior court to lay down a process to be
followed in particular cases, even if that process deviates
from what
its rules prescribe. Consistent with that power, this Court may in
the interests of justice depart from its own rules.”
The
Court may in any event condone such an omission by the applicant
under the present circumstances.
I
find that it is in the interest of justice that the late filing of
the replying affidavit and non – compliance of the rules
be
condoned.
Consequently,
I make the following order: -
That
the non – compliance of the rules and the late filing of the
replying affidavit is condoned.
[4]
The issues to be determined are whether the applicant has satisfied
the requirements
for an order for rescission in terms of Rule 42. In
the alternative whether the requirements as per the common law have
been met
by the applicant.
Applicable
legal principles
[5]
The applicant avers that the default judgment was erroneously sought
and granted as
he has good defences to the respondent’s claim.
Rule
42 of the Rules of Court
[6]
Rule 42(1) provides as follows: -
“
The
court may in addition to any other powers it may have, mero motu or
upon application of any party affected, rescind or vary:
(a)
An order or
judgment erroneously sought or erroneously granted in the absence of
any party affected thereby;
(b)
An order or
judgment in which there is an ambiguity or a patent error or omission
but only to the effect of such ambiguity, error
or omission;
(c)
An order or
judgment granted as a result of a mistake common to the parties.”
In
Monama and Another v Nedbank Limited
41092/16 [2020] ZAGPPHC 70
at 18 and 19 the Court referred to
Rule 42 (1) (a) as follows:
“
Generally
speaking a judgment is erroneously granted if there existed at the
time of its issue, a fact of which the Court was unaware,
which would
have precluded the granting of the judgment and which would have
induced the Court, if aware of it, not to grant the
judgment. An
order is also erroneously granted if there was an irregularity in the
proceedings or if it was not legally competent
for the Court to have
made such order.”
See
also
Bakoven
Ltd v GJ Howes (Pty) Ltd
1992
(2) SA 466
(ECD) at 471 E – 1
.
In
terms of Rule 42(1) the applicant needs not show good cause. It is
expected of the applicant to show that the order or judgment
was
erroneously sought or erroneously granted to persuade the court to
vary or rescind the particular order.
Common
law
[7]
The application for rescission of judgment in terms of the common law
may be brought
on the following grounds: -
(1)
fraud;
(2)
iustus
error;
(3)
discovery of new documents only in exceptional circumstances;
(4)
in the instance where default judgment was granted by default.
All
what the applicant has to show for the judgment or order to be set
aside is that: -
(1)
There must be a
reasonable explanation for the default;
(2)
The applicant must show
that the application was made
bona
fide; and
(3)
The applicant must show
that he has a
bona
fide
defence which
prima facie
has
some prospect of success. See
Chetty
v Law Society, Transvaal
1985
(2) SA 756
at 764 I – 765 E
.
Applicant’s
contentions
[8]
The applicant argues that he was not served with the dated notice of
set-down of the
summary judgment application i.e. the notice did not
indicate the date of hearing in contravention of Rule 32 (2). The
applicant
submitted that the respondent did not dispute that an
undated notice of service of set-down for the summary judgment was
initially
served.
The
applicant’s view is that the power of attorney filed by the
respondent is defective in the following respects: -
(i)
That the power of
attorney was signed after the issuing of the summons;
(ii)
It is not supported by
a minuted resolution of the trust;
(iii)
That the power of
attorney fails to state the identity of the applicant and the course
of action to be pursued against him;
(iv)
The power of attorney
does not state that the signatory has authority to sign documents on
behalf of the trust.
It
is contended that since the defects existed before the summons was
issued the said summons is accordingly a nullity. According
to the
applicant, the respondent failed to comply with the requirements of
the trust deed:
i)
In that no resolution
was passed by the trustee authorising the respondent to act on behalf
of the trust.
ii)
That the respondent
neglected to appoint co – trustees to enable the trust to have
legal capacity to be able to pass a resolution
to institute legal
action.
iii)
In the absence of a
minuted resolution reached by unanimity of three trustees, the
respondent as a sole trustee cannot institute
any legal action on
behalf of the trust.
The
applicant contends that the power of attorney filed by the
respondent, in support of the summary judgment and the answering
affidavits be declared null and void as the respondent had no
authority to represent the trust.
It
is submitted that the defective power of attorney nullifies the
summons and affidavits attested to by the respondent. In the
alternative, applicant contends that his application for rescission
is based on common law in that he has a
bona fide
defence to
claims instituted by the respondent.
The
amounts as claimed by the respondent are disputed. The applicant
stated that he effected payment to the trust in the sum of
R579 523.93 from the capital amount of R982 855.00. That he
is entitled to deduct his attorney and client costs in the
amount of
R373 004.96. The amount due and payable to the trust is
therefore R30 357.12 and not as stipulated in the particulars
of
claim. It is contended that the summary judgment granted be rescinded
and alternatively be varied for the sum of R30 357.12.
Respondent’s
Argument
[9]
It is argued by the respondent that the applicant was supposed to
have filed his opposing
affidavit on receipt of the notice for
summary judgment that did not contain the date of hearing and not
simply do nothing to resist
the summary judgment application. In an
instance of an irregularity, as averred by the applicant that the
notice for summary judgment
was undated, he was expected to invoke
the provisions of Rule 30 which the applicant failed to do.
The
respondent contended that the grounds raised by the applicant in his
argument that the power of attorney filed by the respondent
is
defective are meritless. That the power of attorney was subsequently
dated after summons was issued, is of no consequence. The
respondent
submitted that when the applicant challenged the respondent’s
locus standi
, the respondent had the requisite authority.
The
respondent further argued that the law does not require a power of
attorney to be supported by a minuted resolution by Oupa
Daniel
Sepeng’s Trust. In any event, the respondent averred that in
its heading, the said power of attorney does identify
the applicant
and refers to the action to be pursued against the applicant.
It
is argued by the respondent that the applicant failed to satisfy the
requirement for setting aside an order or judgment in terms
of common
law. According to the respondent, the application does not disclose a
reasonable and acceptable explanation for failure
to file the
opposing affidavit. That he failed to take appropriate steps to
protect his interests when a notice for summary judgment
was served.
The respondent submitted that the explanation by the applicant is
vague and does not explain why it took seventeen
months to apply for
rescission of judgment. It is the respondent’s view that the
application is meritless and should be dismissed.
Analysis
[10]
The applicant avers that the order it seeks to rescind was granted
erroneously. It is contended
by the applicant that the Court erred in
not considering that the summary judgment application served on the
applicant did not
contain a date for hearing.
What
the applicant does not dispute is that indeed he was made aware of
the summary judgment order against him during October 2018.
Instead
of taking appropriate steps to attack the summary judgment, applicant
simply ignored the order as he allegedly became extremely
despondent
and depressed. There is nothing before the Court to support the said
averment.
The
applicant is a qualified attorney well versed with the rules of
Court. Despite a warrant of execution issued against him during
21
March 2019 he blatantly ignored it and failed to protect his
interests. It was only during April to July 2019 when the applicant’s
personal bank accounts were frozen that he decided to launch a
rescission application. The unsubstantiated allegation that he become
helpless and suffered depression is not sustainable.
All
what the respondent had to do at the very least on receipt of the
summary judgment application, was to depose to an affidavit
in
resisting the summary application including a Rule 30 application as
it is alleged that the summary judgment application with
no date of
hearing amounted to an irregularity.
In
his heads of argument, applicant referred to several court decisions
in support of his contention that the court erroneously
granted the
order under the circumstances where the applicant was not served with
the notice of the hearing and that the application
was irregular.
Cases referred to amongst others, are
T
opol
and Others v LS Group Management Services. (Pty) Ltd
1988
(1) SA 639
(W
)
;
De Beers N.O v
North Central Local Council and Others (Umhlatuzana Civic Association
Intervening
)
2002 SA 429
CC
.
In
my view the cited cases and the present matter are distinguishable.
For instance, in
Topol and Others
(supra)
the defaulting parties were not aware of the proceedings against them
as no notice was served on them. In
casu
the reality is that
the applicant was served with the summary judgment application and
failed to oppose it.
For
the applicant to allege irregularities contained in the summary
judgment only in his heads of argument is of no moment. It is
indeed
so that it is not incumbent upon the applicants to show good cause or
sufficient cause. The rescission of judgment or order
is not there
for the taking. It is not enough for the applicant to simply allege
that the judgment was erroneously granted without
complying with the
requisite Rule 42 or the threshold for common law requirements.
I
find that the applicant was aware of the summary judgment application
as it was served upon him and the steps required of him
to avoid the
default. The applicant deliberately failed and omitted to take the
necessary steps to resist the summary judgment
while aware of the
legal consequences if he fails to oppose the application.
The
applicant contended that the respondent filed a defective power of
attorney and took the following points among others, that
the power
of attorney was signed after the summons was issued and that it is
not supported by a minuted resolution of the trust.
That the power of
attorney does not state the party to be sued and the course of action
to be pursued. The applicant’s view
is that the summons is null
and void.
It
is noteworthy that the Rule 7 was served on the respondent during the
8 March 2018 disputing the authority of the respondent’s
legal
representatives to act on behalf of the respondent. The respondent
duly complied with the request and filed a power of attorney
on the
12 March 2018.
Suffice
to quote the provisions of Rule 7.1: -
“
Subject
to the provisions of sub - rules 2 and 3 a power of attorney need not
be filed, but the authority of anyone acting on behalf
of a party may
within 10 days after it has come to the notice of a party that such a
person is so acting, or with the leave of
the Court or good cause
shown at any time before judgment be disputed, whereafter, such a
person may no longer act unless he satisfies
the Court that he is
authorised so to act, and to enable him to do so the Court may
postpone the hearing of the action or the application.”
In
Johannesburg City Council v Elesander Investments (Pty) Ltd
1979 (3) SA 1273
(T)
the court held that:
“
the
concept of representation within the rules involves no more than an
investigation into the state of affairs relating to authority
as at
the time when the challenged attorney seeks to satisfy the Court on
that score.”
The
Court held further that no investigation into the validity of past
acts in the context of authority to act was required. The
Court in
approving the decision in the Johannesburg City Council supra, held
in
Marais v
City of Cape Town
1997
(3) SA CPD 1097 at 1099 A – D
as follows: -
“
the
rule is concerned with the representation of the parties and with
nothing else. It was designed to dispense with the necessity
of an
attorney obtaining a power of attorney to act, and to provide for a
procedure whereby an attorney can be challenged to satisfy
the Court
that he is authorised to act for the party. The rule contemplates
that a challenge of authority can be met by proof of
such authority
(which need not be in a form of a power of attorney). And all that is
required is that the Court must be satisfied
that the authority
exists at the time when proof of it is proffered. We can find nothing
in the rule to suggest that a magistrate
is obliged or even entitled,
to investigate the validity of past acts in the context of the
authority to act. When an attorney’s
authority is challenged,
he may not act further until he satisfies the Court that he is
authorised to do so, but the effect of
the Rule does not go beyond
that, the Rule does not require him either expressly or by
implication, to satisfy the Court that he
had authority at any
particular point of time in the past. The concept of representation
as dealt with in the Rules involves no
more than an investigation
into the state of affairs relating to authority as at the time when
the challenged attorney seeks to
satisfy the Court on that score.”
Realising
after being notified of the unsigned power of attorney, the
respondent rectified the omission within four days and a properly
signed power of attorney was duly served on the applicant.
When
the applicant challenged the irregularity on the power of attorney,
such an irregularity had been rectified. According to the
authorities
in
Johannesburg City Council and Marais v City of Cape Town
,
the Court had to be satisfied that the authority exists at the time
when a challenge is invoked. The respondent is therefore not
required
to satisfy the Court that he had authority at any particular point in
time in the past. The argument that the irregularity
preceded the
issuing of the summons has no basis in law and fact. The applicant
repeatedly argues that the respondent papers are
irregular but failed
to take appropriate remedies available to him in terms of Rule 30. It
is not sufficient for the applicant
to only pay lip service to
irregularity allegedly committed by the respondent without taking
necessary steps in terms of the Rule
30.
With
respect
Carlkim (Pty) Ltd and Others v Shaffer and Others
1986 (3) SA 619
N
relied upon by the applicant in
support of applicant’s averment that a defective power of
attorney will nullify the summons
is quoted out of context and is of
no assistance to the applicant. In
Carlkim (Pty) Ltd and
Others
the defendants resorted to Rule 30 proceedings as
the power of attorney omitted to state the parties to be sued and the
cause of
action to be pursued.
The
power of attorney was duly amended and the defect was cured.
In
casu
the applicant failed to institute Rule 30 proceedings and by
the time he challenged the defective power of attorney, it was
already
rectified.
Careful
reading of the respondent’s power of attorney reveals who the
applicant is and disclosed the cause of action to be
pursued. See
Firstrand Bank Ltd v Louis Johannes Coetzee and 10 Others
Case No 82452/2019
. The contention that the
power of attorney has to be supported by a minuted resolution by the
trust and further that the authority
to sign documents has not been
obtained, has no factual and legal basis as it is not a requirement
in law.
I
find that the contentions by the applicant aforementioned cannot be
justified. I am of the view that the irregularities as alleged
cannot
be regarded as having the consequences of setting aside the summary
judgment order granted. The contention that the respondent
lacked
locus standi
as he was not authorised to act on behalf of the
trust as alleged and that the he failed to comply with the trusts
deed, cannot
be supported. The respondent was issued with a letter of
authority by the Master of the High Court to represent and act on
behalf
of Oupa Daniel Sepeng
inter vivos
trust. I find that he
had the necessary
locus standi
to institute legal proceedings
on behalf of the trust.
Compliance
with Rule 42 (1) and common law requirements
[11]
In terms of Rule 42 (1) the Court may in addition to any other powers
it may have
, mero motu
upon application of any party affected,
rescind or vary an order or judgment erroneously sought or
erroneously granted in the absence
of any party affected thereby.
Contrary
to the applicant’s averment that the summary judgment was
granted erroneously in his absence as he had no knowledge
of when the
application was to be heard, is rejected. Although the judgment was
granted in the absence of the applicant, he was
notified of the
summary judgment application against him. I hold that the default by
the applicant was rather wilful and of his
own choices. Despite the
applicant realising that the summary judgment was irregular, he
deliberately failed to institute Rule
30 proceedings, resist the
summary judgment and avoid the order to be granted in his absence.
My
view is that the applicant failed to disclose any ground to suggest
that the order was erroneously sought or erroneously granted
in
compliance with Rule 42 (1).
Rescission
under common law
[12]
The first requirement is that there must be a reasonable explanation
for the default. The applicant’s
explanation that when he
became aware of the order he “felt helpless, despondent and
depressed” is not reasonable under
the circumstances. The
applicant had full knowledge of the summary judgment order and it
took seventeen months for him to launch
a rescission application.
It
is indeed so that Rule 42 (1) and common law do not prescribe a
timeframe within which an application for rescission should be
brought. What is expected of the applicant seeking relief to rescind
an order is that it should be sought within a reasonable time
after
the order was granted.
In
Cipla Medpro Pty Ltd v H Lundbeck A/S and Another
Case Number 89/5576
(unreported) the Court held that the
delays of eighteen months and thirteen months were sufficient to
dismiss the rescission application
concerned on the basis of delay.
There
is no reasonable explanation clarifying what actually transpired
within the seventeen months taken to launch the rescission
application. I am not satisfied that the application was instituted
within a reasonable time.
The
applicant had to show that the application was made
bona fide
.
It is apparent from the reading of the applicant’s papers, that
there was no attempt to address the aforementioned requirement.
Accordingly, the applicant falls short in showing that the
application is made
bona fide.
The only inference to be drawn
under the circumstances is that the application was brought with the
intention to delay the conclusion
of the matter.
The
final requirement is that the applicant must show that he has a
bona
fide
defence which
prima facie
has some prospect of
success. See
Nadioo and Another v Matlala NO and Others
2012
(1) SA 145
GNP
at 152 H – I.
According
to the applicant the amount due and payable to the trust is the sum
of R30 357.12 and not as contained in the particulars
of claim.
He averred that the amount claimed by the respondent are erroneously
calculated. However, in his replying affidavit the
applicant contends
that he actually owes the respondent an additional R334 143.76.
The
facts as alleged by the applicant do not support a cause of action
for a common law rescission. The probabilities do not favour
the
applicant in attempting to give a reasonable and acceptable
explanation for its default. in the circumstances the applicant
did
not succeed in establishing a
bona fide
defence with a
prospect of success.
I
find that the summary judgment granted is legally competent and that
there are no irregularities in the proceedings which could
have
precluded the Court granting the judgment. Consequently, the Court
did not erroneously grant the summary judgment order.
Costs
[13]
The respondent has requested a cost order against the applicant based
on his application in terms
of Rule 42 (1) and alternatively the
common law.
The
issue whether to award costs is primarily based on the basic rules
namely:
i)
The award of costs is a
matter of judicial discretion by the Court;
ii)
That the successful
party should as a general rule, be awarded costs.
The
Court in
Ferreira v Levin Vryenhoek v Powell
[1996] ZACC 27
;
1996 (2) SA 621
CC
at 624 said the following:
“
The
award of costs unless expressly otherwise enacted, is in the
discretion of the Court. The facts of each and every case are to
be
considered by the Court when exercising its discretion and has to be
fair and just to all the parties.”
Considering
the facts in this application, the costs in favour of the respondent
are therefore warranted.
ORDER:
(a)
The application for
rescission of judgment is dismissed.
(b)
The applicant is
ordered to pay the costs of this application on the scale as between
party and party.
S.S.
MADIBA
ACTING
JUDGE OF THE HIGH COURT
GAUTENG
DIVISION, PRETORIA
HEARD
ON
:
7 MARCH 2022
FOR
THE APPLICANT
:
MR. V. MABE
INSTRUCTED
BY
:
VICTOR MABE INC.
ATTORNEYS
FOR
THE RESPONDENT
:
ADV. C.P. WESLEY
INSTRUCTED
BY
:
TIM DU TOIT &
CO INCORPORATED
DATE
OF JUDGMENT :
29 APRIL 2022
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