Case Law[2023] ZAWCHC 149South Africa
Levi and Another v Blankitny and Another (2611/2022) [2023] ZAWCHC 149 (13 June 2023)
Headnotes
by the reasonable or average person to whom the communications had been published.[2] The remaining communications sent by the respondents to Levi and his family are abusive and clearly constitute harassment.
Judgment
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# South Africa: Western Cape High Court, Cape Town
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## Levi and Another v Blankitny and Another (2611/2022) [2023] ZAWCHC 149 (13 June 2023)
Levi and Another v Blankitny and Another (2611/2022) [2023] ZAWCHC 149 (13 June 2023)
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sino date 13 June 2023
IN THE HIGH COURT OF
SOUTH AFRICA
(WESTERN CAPE HIGH
COURT, CAPE TOWN)
Case No: 2611/2022
In the matter between:
OMRI
YEDID LEVI
First
Applicant
BIANCA
MAUREEN ARNSMEYER
Second
Applicant
versus
ZVI
BANKITNY
First
Respondent
ASAF
BLANKITNY
Second
Respondent
JUDGMENT DELIVERED
ELECTRONICALLY ON 13 JUNE 2023
ADHIKARI, AJ
[1]
The
first applicant (‘Levi’) and the second respondent
(‘Asaf’) have known each other since they were 16 years
of age, and were close childhood friends.
[2]
During
2015 Levi and the first respondent (‘Zvi’), Asaf’s
father, started a company known as Byl Diamonds (Pty)
Ltd (‘Byl
Diamonds’), based in Cape Town, which traded in polished
diamonds and sold manufactured jewellery.
[3]
By 2019
the business relationship between Zvi and Levi started to
deteriorate. The onset of the Covid-19 pandemic appears
to have
been the proverbial straw that broke the camel’s back and by
August 2020 their business relationship had completely
broken
down.
[4]
Consequently,
Zvi and Levi sought to terminate their business relationship by
entering into a settlement agreement during April 2021.
However, the settlement agreement did not resolve all of the disputes
between Zvi and Levi, and it is the ongoing conflict between
the
parties that resulted in the incidents which gave rise to these
proceedings.
[5]
The
applicants contend that the respondents attended at the business
premises of Byl Diamonds, and at an unnamed coffee shop in
Greenpoint
during April 2021 and engaged in verbal and physical
altercations with Levi as well as with certain staff members
of Byl
Diamonds. The respondents dispute these allegations.
[6]
In
addition, the applicants contend that in the period between
April 2021 and August 2021, the respondents engaged in
a
campaign of harassment and intimidation by sending threatening and
abusive communications via email and WhatsApp to Levi, the
second
applicant (‘Arnsmeyer’),
[1]
Levi’s family in Israel, and to the accountants of Byl
Diamonds. The applicants further contend that Asaf posted a
message on the Property24 website, addressed to Arnsmeyer who works
in the property industry, identifying Levi as Arnsmeyer’s
husband and accusing Arnsmeyer of wearing jewellery stolen by Levi.
[7]
The
respondents do not dispute sending and publishing the offending
communications, nor is the content of the offending communications
in
dispute. The respondents, however, state that the
communications were sent and published because they (the respondents)
were angry at having been, in their view, defrauded by Levi.
[8]
It
is not in dispute that in the offending communications the
respondents,
inter alia
,
wished ill on Arnsmeyer’s pregnancy, referred to Levi,
Arnsmeyer and their children in crude and derogatory terms,
threatened
Levi and Arnsmeyer, and accused Levi and Arnsmeyer of
theft and dishonesty. The respondents further threatened to
contact
Levi’s clients (presumably to convey their allegations
of dishonesty and theft to Levi’s clients).
[9]
The
communications published by the respondents accusing Levi and his
family of dishonesty and theft are
prima
facie
defamatory in that such communications are likely to injure the good
esteem in which Levi is held by the reasonable or average
person to
whom the communications had been published.
[2]
The remaining communications sent by the respondents to Levi and his
family are abusive and clearly constitute harassment.
[10]
The respondents admit to having been
extremely upset by what they regarded as the dishonest conduct of
Levi, however, the manner
in which they chose to express their anger
is inappropriate in any society that respects human dignity.
[11]
Unsurprisingly, on 26 August 2021
the applicants’ attorneys, Friedrich Incorporated (‘Friedrich
Inc.’)
addressed correspondence to the respondents in which
they demanded on behalf of the applicants, a written undertaking that
the
respondents would refrain from engaging in further abusive and
defamatory conduct directed at the applicants (‘the
cease-and-desist
letter’).
[12]
There was no response to the
cease-and-desist letter. Consequently, the applicants on
14 February 2022 applied to
this court, as a matter of
urgency, for a rule nisi operating as an interim interdict
restraining the respondents from:
[11.1]
Committing any act which may be prejudicial to the applicants,
including,
inter alia
, harassment, intimidation, threatening,
and making derogatory comments;
[11.2]
Sending any communications including text messages, WhatsApp
messages, and emails, which may be prejudicial
to the applicants,
including
inter alia
, harassment, intimidation, threatening,
and making derogatory comments;
[11.3]
Posting on any public domain and/or social media platform, any
statements which may be prejudicial
to the applicants, including
i
nter alia
, harassment, intimidation, threatening, and making
derogatory comments;
[11.4]
Instructing any other person/s to harass, intimidate, threaten, and
make derogatory comments in respect
of the applicants;
[11.5]
Entering the applicants’ place of employment;
[11.6]
Writing to or communicating with the applicants in any manner
whatsoever save through an attorney;
and
[11.7]
Writing to or communicating with any other person about or in
connection with the applicants, save
through an attorney.
[13]
As the respondents are resident in Israel,
the applicants sought the leave of the court to sue the respondents
by way of edictal
citation for interdictory relief.
[14]
This court, on 13 June 2022,
granted the applicants leave to sue the respondents by way of edictal
citation and to serve
the application by electronic mail on Zvi at
his personal email address, and on the respondents’ care of
their attorneys
in Israel, Altshuler Law Firm and Notary
(‘Altshuler’).
[15]
The application and the order of
13 June 2022 (‘the edictal citation order’)
were served on Altshuler, who
on 19 June 2022 directed
correspondence to Friedrich Inc. advising that Altshuler was not
‘
authorized to accept any
documents in this case on behalf of
[the respondents]’.
[16]
The application and the edictal citation
order were served on Zvi at his personal email address on
20 September 2022.
[17]
The application came before the unopposed
motion court on 13 October 2022 and a rule nisi, returnable
on 30 November 2022,
coupled with an interim interdict, was
issued.
[18]
The application again came before the
unopposed motion court on 30 November 2022. On that
date the respondents’
legal representatives appeared and
indicated that the respondents sought to oppose the confirmation of
the rule nisi. Consequently,
the matter was postponed by
agreement between the parties to the semi-urgent roll for hearing on
11 May 2023, and the
parties agreed to a timetable
regulating the further conduct of the matter.
[19]
Zvi’s answering affidavit was served
on 2 February 2023, together with Asaf’s confirmatory
affidavit.
The applicants filed their replying affidavit on
6 March 2023.
[20]
The respondents oppose the confirmation of
the rule nisi and raise the following points
in
limine
:
[18.1] The edictal
citation order ought not to have been granted;
[18.2] The
application and interim order were not served on the respondents; and
[18.3] The court
lacks the jurisdiction to grant an interdict against the respondents
as they are
perigrini
.
[21]
On the merits, the respondents raise the
following defences:
[19.1] The
applicants delayed unreasonably in instituting proceedings against
the respondents;
[19.2] The order
sought by the applicants is too wide;
[19.3] The
applicants have failed to prove that they are suffering harm (whether
imminent or ongoing); and
[19.4] The
applicants have alternative remedies, in the form of the Protection
from Harassment Act 17 of 2011 (‘the
Protection from Harassment
Act’) and the laying of criminal charges.
[22]
I turn now to deal with the preliminary
points raised by the respondents.
## The edictal citation
order:
The edictal citation
order:
[23]
The respondents contend that the edictal
citation order ought not to have been granted because:
[21.1] The
applicants were aware of the respondents’ address in Israel;
[21.2] The
applicants failed to disclose to the court that Altshuler had advised
Friedrich Inc. that they did not hold instructions
to accept service
of the application on behalf of the respondents;
[21.3] Although the
application for leave to sue by edictal citation referenced service
in terms of Article 5 of the
Convention on the Service Abroad of
Judicial and Extrajudicial Documents in Civil or Commercial Matters
(‘the Hague
Convention’), service on the respondents
did not comply with the provisions of The Hague Convention; and
[21.4] The edictal
citation order does not accord with the notice of motion in the
application for leave to sue by way of
edictal citation.
[24]
Rule 5(1) of the Uniform Rules of
Court provides that ‘[s]
ave by
leave of the court no process or document whereby proceedings are
instituted shall be served outside the Republic.’
It
is trite that edictal citation is ordered when a respondent is
outside of the country. Further, the court has a wide
discretion
to order that service takes place in any manner that is
likely to bring the proceedings concerned to the notice of the party
to
be served.
[25]
As the application for edictal citation is
not before me, it is not open to me to pronounce on the
appropriateness of that order.
I am constrained to accept that
the court was satisfied that it was appropriate to grant the
applicants leave to institute these
proceedings by edictal citation,
and that the manner of service that the court ultimately ordered
would likely bring the proceedings
to the respondents’ notice.
That ought to be the end of the matter.
[26]
However, one further aspect bears mention.
[27]
The respondents’ contention that the
applicants failed to draw the attention of the court hearing the
edictal citation application
to the fact that Altshuler had advised
that they did not hold instructions to accept service on behalf of
the respondents is misplaced.
The edictal citation order was
granted on 13 June 2022, whereas the letter from Altshuler
indicating that they did not
hold instructions to accept service was
sent on 19 June 2022, after service had been effected on
them via email in terms
of the edictal citation order.
[28]
Mr Nowitz for the respondents
correctly accepted in argument that it is not open to this court to
revisit the edictal citation
order, however, he urged the court to
take the respondents’ contention that the edictal citation
order ought not to have
been granted in the first place, into account
in determining whether to grant a final interdict.
[29]
This submission too is misplaced. It
is not open to me to pronounce on whether the edictal citation order
ought to have been
granted in circumstances where that application is
not before me, even for the narrow purpose postulated by Mr Nowitz.
Further, the issue that is before me is whether the applicants have
made out a case for the granting of a final interdict.
The
manner in which the application was served on the respondents has no
bearing on that question, as the respondents are before
this court
and have delivered comprehensive answering papers opposing the relief
sought. Consequently, little purpose would
be served in
reconsidering the edictal citation proceedings, even if it were open
to me to do so.
## Service on the
Respondents:
Service on the
Respondents:
[30]
The respondents’ contention that the
application and the rule nisi were not served on them is difficult to
comprehend.
[31]
The respondents’ legal
representatives appeared before the court on 30 November 2022,
being the return date of the
rule nisi granted on 13 October 2022.
Further, a notice of opposition was delivered on behalf of both
respondents
and the respondents filed comprehensive answering
affidavits responding to the allegations in the founding papers.
Mr Nowitz
confirmed at the hearing that he appeared on behalf of
both respondents. In addition, the applicants’ service
affidavit
confirms that the application and the rule nisi were served
on the respondents.
[32]
Given that the respondents were in a
position to instruct their legal representatives to oppose the relief
sought and to prepare
answering affidavits responding in detail to
the merits of the application, there can be no question that the
substance of the
application came to the attention of the respondents
and that they were able to mount a defence. Quite how this
would have
been possible if the respondents were not served with the
application remains unexplained.
[33]
In the circumstances there is no merit to
the contention that the application and the rule nisi were not served
on the respondents.
## Jurisdiction
Jurisdiction
[34]
The respondents contend that this court
lacks the requisite jurisdiction to grant the interdict sought by the
applicants because
the respondents are
perigrini
of this court, and the applicants have not attached the respondents’
assets to confirm and/or found jurisdiction.
[35]
It
is trite that jurisdiction is the power of a court to adjudicate
upon, determine and dispose of a matter. A court has
jurisdiction when, within its territory, it has sufficient authority
over a defendant to be able to enforce its orders. Put
differently, the court must have the power not only to take
cognisance of a suit, but also to give effect to its judgment.
[3]
[36]
The law on jurisdiction in regard to
interdicts may be summarised as follows:
[33.1] First, if
the respondent is an
incola,
the court may assume jurisdiction
to grant an interdict irrespective of whether the act in question is
to be performed or restrained
outside the court’s area of
jurisdiction.
[33.2] Second, if
the respondent is a
peregrine
, it is essential for reasons of
effectiveness, that the act to be performed or restrained be within
the court’s area of jurisdiction.
[37]
In addition to the aforementioned
principles, regard must be had to import of s 21(1) of the
Superior Courts Act 10 of 2013
(‘the
Superior Courts Act&rsquo
;),
which provides that
a
Division of the High Court has jurisdiction over ‘
all
persons residing or being in, and in relation to all causes arising …
within its area of jurisdiction.’
[38]
In
Cordient
Trading CC v Daimler Chrysler Financial Services (Pty) Ltd,
[4]
the SCA confirmed that the phrase
'causes
arising within its area of jurisdiction'
in
s 19(1)
of the now repealed Supreme Court Act 59 of 1959
(‘the Supreme Court Act’) meant an action or legal
proceeding which
had duly originated within the court's area of
jurisdiction.
[39]
The SCA in
Cordient
Trading
stated as follows:
‘
For
present purposes the jurisdiction of the Court a quo must be
determined with regard to the requirement of 'causes arising'.
In the
past, these words were construed to mean proceedings over which a
High Court has jurisdiction under the common law …
Plainly, what is meant
in the above interpretation is that 'causes arising' does not refer
to causes of action but to all factors
giving rise to jurisdiction
under the common law.’
[40]
The
interpretation given by the courts to s 19(1)
[5]
of the Supreme Court Act remains of relevance in that the section was
substantially identical in wording to
s 21(1)
of the
Superior
Courts Act
>.
[41]
In
Zokufa
v
Compuscan (Credit Bureau)
[6]
the
court concluded, with reference to
Kibe
v Mphoko and Another
,
[7]
Mtshali
v Mtambo and Another
[8]
and
Ex parte
Hay Management Consultants (Pty) Ltd
,
[9]
that on the accepted interpretation of
s 19(1)
and on general
principle, a court will have jurisdiction to grant an interdict if
the jurisdictional connecting facts
[10]
supporting the requirements for the interdict are present within the
court’s area of jurisdiction.
[11]
[42]
Consequently,
the next enquiry that this court is called upon to undertake is to
establish the facts arising in this application
supporting the three
requirements for a final interdict (being a clear right; a threat to
or a breach of such right; and the absence
of an adequate alternative
remedy)
[12]
and whether such
facts originated or exist within the territorial area of jurisdiction
of this court.
[43]
The
Constitution provides that our democratic state is founded on,
inter
alia
,
human dignity, the advancement of human rights and freedoms and the
supremacy of the Constitution and the rule of law. Section 10
of the Constitution provides that everybody has inherent dignity and
the right to have their dignity respected and protected.
The
infringement of another’s dignity not a trivial matter.
[13]
It is trite that the right to dignity, which includes the right to a
good reputation, is a fundamental human right and any
infringement
thereon is unlawful, in the absence of an appropriate justification.
[44]
As I have alluded to earlier in this
judgment, the content of the communications and publications directed
at the applicants is
not denied by the respondents, nor do they deny
sending the offending communications to the applicants or publishing
the offending
statements in the public domain. Further, the
respondents did not seek to justify their conduct, save to state that
they
acted in anger.
[45]
The applicants have a constitutional right
to live free from the conduct complained of. I am persuaded
that the applicants
have established a clear right not to be
subjected to harassment, verbal abuse, insults, and defamatory
statements.
[46]
The applicants live and work within the
jurisdiction of this court. They seek, in these proceedings, to
enforce their constitutionally
guaranteed rights to dignity (which
includes reputation), privacy, freedom and security of person
(including the right to live
free from harassment). These
rights vest in the applicants where they reside, being within the
jurisdiction of this court.
[47]
The respondents contend that the offending
communications were all sent from Israel, and that consequently
Israel is where the breach
of the applicants’ rights took place
and only an Israeli court has jurisdiction to grant the relief sought
by the applicants.
These contentions do not withstand
scrutiny.
[48]
Generally,
a breach of a right occurs at the place where the right vests.
The act of setting the breach in motion may occur
somewhere else, but
the breach takes place where the right vests.
[14]
Mr Nowitz correctly accepted in argument that this is indeed the
position.
[49]
In this regard
s 23
of the
Electronic
Communications and Transactions Act, 25 of 2002
is instructive,
providing as it does that a data message must be regarded as having
been received from the addressee’s usual
place of business or
residence.
[50]
Further,
in
Kibe
it was held that where the respondent is a
peregrinus
,
the court has jurisdiction ‘
...in
the case of a prohibitory interdict, if the act against which an
interdict is claimed is about to be done in such area’
.
[15]
It is abundantly clear that the applicants seek to interdict the
infringement of their rights which infringement takes place
where
they reside, being within the jurisdiction of this court.
[51]
Thus, the breach of the applicants’
rights took place in Cape Town where where the applicants rights vest
and where the offending
communications were received and published.
[52]
Mr Nowitz contended that the court
nonetheless lacked the requisite jurisdiction to grant the relief
sought because the doctrine
of effectiveness is not satisfied in this
matter. In particular, it was contended on behalf of the
respondents that any order
that this court grants could not
effectively be enforced by this court given that the respondents
reside outside its territorial
jurisdiction.
[53]
While this court may lack the jurisdiction
to entertain contempt proceedings in the event that the respondents
were to breach an
interdict granted by the court, the respondents’
argument loses sight of the fact that the Isaeli Foreign
Judgments
Enforcement Law, 1958 provides,
inter
alia
, that a foreign judgment which has
been declared enforceable by an Israeli court has the effect of a
judgment validly given in
Israel.
[54]
It is beyond the scope of this judgment to
determine conclusively whether any orders granted by this court will
in fact be declared
enforceable in Israel in terms of the Foreign
Judgments Enforcement Law, 1958. It is sufficient for present
purposes that
Israeli courts recognise and enforce judgments rendered
in civil proceedings, including interim and final injunctions
(interdicts),
provided that the judgment meets the legal
requirements, including that it is no longer appealable.
Mr Nowitz accepted
in argument that there it was notionally
possible that an order of this court could be declared enforceable in
Israel. Consequently,
there is nothing, in principle, to
prevent the enforcement in Israel of a final interdict granted by
this court.
[55]
Finally,
insofar as the issue of jurisdiction and effectiveness is concerned,
the respondents contend that the applicants cannot
obtain relief in
the absence of having attached the respondents’ assets to found
or confirm jurisdiction. This contention
is misplaced in that
attachment found or confirm jurisdiction is not permissible if the
claim is not a claim sounding in money
or an action
in
rem
for movables.
[16]
[56]
Thus, the principle of effectiveness does
not take the respondents’ jurisdictional challenge any
further.
[57]
The lack of attachment does, however, have
consequences in respect of the court’s jurisdiction to make a
costs order.
I return to this aspect below.
[58]
In the result I find that all the
jurisdictional connecting facts pertaining to the grant of a final
interdict in this matter arose
within the area of jurisdiction of
this court. For these reasons, I find that the jurisdictional
challenge lacks merit.
[59]
I turn now to deal with the merits of the
application.
## Entitlement to final
relief:
Entitlement to final
relief:
[60]
It is trite that the three requirements for
a final interdict are, a clear right; a threat to breach such right
(in the case of
a prohibitory interdict) or a refusal to act in
fulfilment of such right (in the case of a mandatory interdict) and
no other remedy.
[61]
To
determine whether an applicant has a clear right is a matter of
substantive law.
[17]
Whether
that right is clear is a matter of evidence. In order therefore
to establish a clear right, the applicants have to
prove on a balance
of probability, facts which in terms of substantive law establish the
right relied on.
[18]
[62]
In
NCSPCA
v Openshaw
[19]
,
the
SCA reiterated that an interdict is not a remedy for a past invasion
of rights but is concerned with present or future infringements.
According to the SCA, an interdict is appropriate only when future
injury is feared. Where a wrongful act giving rise to
the
injury has already occurred, it must be of a continuing nature or
there must be a reasonable apprehension that it will be repeated.
[63]
The
granting of an interdict is discretionary
[20]
and the remedy of the interdict itself has been described as
unusual.
[21]
The remedy
of an interdict is termed discretionary in the sense that a court may
not grant an interdict in circumstances
where there is an alternative
remedy available to an applicant for an interdict and which may
satisfactorily safeguard the right
sought to be protected. Put
differently, the discretion of the court is bound up with the
question whether the rights of the party
complaining can be protected
by an alternative and ordinary remedy.
[22]
[64]
In
Hotz
v UCT
[23]
the
SCA
held, in relation to the lack of an alternative remedy requisite,
that the existence of another remedy will only preclude the grant
of
an interdict where the proposed alternative will afford the injured
party a remedy that gives similar protection to an interdict
against
the injury that is occurring or is apprehended. The fact that
one of the parties, or even the judge, may think that
the problem
would be better resolved, or can ultimately only be resolved, by
extra-curial means, is not a justification for refusing
to grant an
interdict.
[65]
Once
an applicant has established the three requisite elements for the
grant of an interdict, the scope, if any, for refusing relief
is
limited. There is no general discretion to refuse relief.
[24]
## Clear right
Clear right
[66]
As discussed earlier in the judgment, the
applicants have established a clear right not to be subjected to
harassment, verbal abuse,
insults, and defamatory statements.
## Breach of the
applicants’ rights:
Breach of the
applicants’ rights:
[67]
The respondents do not dispute sending the
offending communications to the applicants or publishing the
offending statements in
the public domain. Consequently, I am
persuaded that the applicants have established a breach of their
rights.
[68]
The
respondents do, however, dispute the applicants’ contentions as
regards the alleged verbal and physical altercations with
Levi at
various meetings that took place in Cape Town during April 2021.
None of the disputes of fact raised by the
respondents insofar as
these events are concerned, can be considered to be bald, fictitious,
implausible, lacking in genuineness,
or so clearly untenable that I
am justified in rejecting the respondents’ version on the
papers.
[25]
No request
was made for a referral of these factual disputes to oral evidence.
Thus, insofar as the disputed facts
are concerned, this matter
falls to be determined on the basis of what is stated in the
respondents’ answering affidavits.
[69]
In light of the factual disputes relating
to the alleged verbal and physical altercations with Levi at the
business premises of
Byl Diamonds, the applicants have not
established a breach or threatened breach of their rights so as to
justify interdicting the
respondents from entering the applicants’
place of employment, being the business premises of Byl Diamonds (as
sought in
paragraph 2.5 of the notice of motion).
[70]
However, on the undisputed facts the
applicants have established breaches of their rights sufficient to
establish a basis for interdicting
the respondents from harassing,
threatening, intimidating the applicants, sending defamatory
communications to the applicants and
publishing defamatory statements
about the applicants.
## Delay and
ongoing/imminent harm
Delay and
ongoing/imminent harm
[71]
The respondents contend that the applicants
delayed unreasonably in instituting proceedings against them and in
particular that
the last incident of harassment took place in
August 2021, whereas these proceedings were instituted only some
six months
later, in February 2022. Allied to this point
is the respondents’ contention that since August 2021 the
respondents
have directed no further communication to the applicants
and thus there is no evidence of ongoing or imminent harm.
[72]
As set out above, on 26 August 2021
the applicants addressed the cease-and-desist letter to the
respondents, seeking an
undertaking from the respondents that the
offending conduct would not continue. The respondents’
answer to these contentions
is telling.
[73]
In the answering affidavit the respondents
state that they did not receive the cease-and-desist letter or the
email to which it
was attached. However, given that the
cease-and-desist letter is attached to the founding affidavit as an
annexure, there
can be no doubt that by the time the answering
affidavit was deposed to, the respondents had the opportunity to
consider the content
of the cease-and-desist letter. Yet, to
date the respondents have failed and/or refused to provide the
requested undertaking.
[74]
The respondents could have obviated the
need for the applicants to institute these proceedings by the simple
expedient of providing
the requested undertaking. If, as the
respondents contend, they did not receive the request for an
undertaking when it was
sent in August 2021, nothing prevented them
from giving the requested undertaking in the answering affidavit.
The respondents’
protestations that the relief sought is
unnecessary and that there is no threat of imminent or ongoing harm
rings hollow in light
of their continued failure and/or refusal to
provide the requested undertaking.
[75]
On
a balance of probabilities, the most probable inference to be
drawn
[26]
from the
respondents’ failure and/or refusal to provide the requested
undertaking is that there is, as the applicants contend,
a continuing
threat that the respondents will persist with their offending conduct
in the absence of an interdict.
[76]
The issue of the delay in the institution
of proceedings in circumstances where there is an ongoing threat of
harm does not detract
from the applicants’ cause of complaint.
The issue of delay may have had relevance to the question of urgency,
however,
as Mr Khoza for the applicants correctly submitted,
urgency is no longer in issue in this matter having been overtaken by
events.
## Alternative
remedies
Alternative
remedies
[77]
The respondents contend that the Protection
from Harassment Act and the laying of criminal charges constitutes an
effective alternative
remedy available to the applicants.
[78]
It is not in dispute that the applicants
sought to obtain a protection order against the respondents and were
informed by the South
African Police Services (‘SAPS’)
that they would not be able to do so as the respondents are no longer
in South Africa.
Given that the respondents reside in Israel
and have stated that they do not intend to return to South Africa,
the Protection
from Harassment Act could not, on any reasonable
interpretation, provide the applicants with similar protection to the
interdictory
relief sought.
[79]
It is further not in dispute that the
applicants were advised by the SAPS that they were entitled to lay
criminal charges against
the respondents and that they have done so.
The respondents contend that this constitutes a suitable alternative
remedy,
and that as a consequence the court ought to dismiss the
application.
[80]
Food
and Allied Worker's Union v Scandia Delicatessen
CC
[27]
is authority for the view that criminal prosecution may be a suitable
alternative remedy in appropriate cases. But, as this
court in
Berg
River Municipality v Zelphi
[28]
noted, that this will not
always be the case. The court in
Berg
River
[29]
stated:
‘
One
would not usually regard a criminal remedy as one which is available
to the harmed individual. It is a public remedy at the
discretion of
the prosecuting authorities. Only if the directorate of public
prosecutions declines to prosecute can the individual
launch a
private prosecution, and I would hesitate to call a private
prosecution an 'ordinary remedy' (they are very rare in this
country). A criminal conviction also does not, in a case like this,
provide 'similar protection': the protection afforded by an
interdict
is the cessation of the unlawful activity; a criminal prosecution
does not achieve anything similar — it punishes
past conduct …
.’
[81]
In
present matter, the criminal sanctions available to the applicants
would involve prosecution for
crimen
injuria
and intimidation.
[30]
Given
that the respondents are outside of South Africa and state in terms
that they do not intend to return, there is little,
if any,
likelihood of the respondents being prosecuted in a South African
court and facing criminal penalties if convicted.
[82]
Further, the applicants are attempting to
restrain the respondents from sending abusive, threatening and
defamatory communications
to them and from publishing defamatory
statements about them in the public domain. Criminal
prosecution is at the discretion
of the State and serves to punish
past misconduct – it does nothing to prevent the ongoing threat
of harm faced by the applicants.
[83]
Consequently, I find that the Protection
from Harassment Act and the ability to lay criminal charges against
the respondents do
not constitute alternative and ordinary remedies
in the circumstances of this matter.
[84]
In the result, the applicants have
established the requirements for the grant of a final interdict.
All that remains is the
question as to whether the relief sought by
the applicants is too widely framed.
## The scope of the relief
sought
The scope of the relief
sought
[85]
The respondents contend that the manner in
which the relief sought by the applicants is formulated would prevent
them from instituting
and pursuing the envisaged arbitration
proceedings against the applicants arising from the fraught business
relationship between
Zvi and Levi, or from laying criminal charges
against the applicants.
[86]
The respondents concerns regarding the
manner in which the relief is formulated are not entirely without
merit. In particular,
the relief sought in respect of any acts,
communications, or statements ‘
which
may be prejudicial to the applicants’
,
if granted, is likely to render the relief over broad and
impermissibly vague. That being said, the applicants have made
out a case for a final interdict and are thus entitled to effective
relief. The manner in which the relief is framed in the
notice
of motion, is not sufficient basis to deny the applicants any
relief. As Mr Khoza correctly submitted, it is
within the
discretion of this court to tailor the relief granted to respond
appropriately to the case made out by the applicants.
[87]
As
regards the issue of costs, it was submitted on behalf of the
applicants that it would be appropriate for no costs order to be
made
in that the respondents are resident outside of the court’s
jurisdiction and the enforcement of any costs order made
would not be
effective or appropriate in the absence of an attachment of the
respondents’ assets. This submission accords
with the
settled authorities on the issue of costs.
[31]
In the result I make
the following order:
1.
The
first and second respondents are interdicted and restrained from
harassing, threatening, or intimidating the applicants, in
any manner
whatsoever including but not limited to:
1.1.
Directing harassing, threatening,
intimidating or defamatory communications to the applicants, by means
of text messages, WhatsApp
messages, emails or any other form of
communication;
1.2.
Instructing any other party to direct,
harassing, threatening, intimidating or defamatory communications to
the applicants, by means
of text messages, WhatsApp messages, emails
or any other form of communication;
1.3.
Publishing defamatory statements about the
applicants in the public domain, including on any social media
platforms; and
1.4.
Instructing any other party to publish
defamatory statements about the applicants in the public domain,
including on any social
media platforms.
2.
The
first and second respondents are interdicted and restrained from
communicating with the applicants save through a legal
representative.
3.
There
shall be no order as to costs.
ADHIKARI,
AJ
APPEARANCES
:
Applicant’s/Plaintiff’s
Counsel:
Adv.
S Khoza
Applicant’s
Attorney:
Friedrich
Incorporated
Respondent’s
Counsel:
Adv.
M Nowitz
Respondent’s
Attorney:
Dirk
Kotze Inc.
[1]
Arnsmeyer is Levi’s wife.
[2]
Le
Roux
at
para [91].
[3]
Barrows
v Benning
(67/11)
[2012] ZASCA 10
(2012) at para [3].
[4]
Cordient
Trading CC v Daimler Chrysler Financial Services (Pty) Ltd
2005
(6) SA 205
(SCA) at para [11].
[5]
Section 19(1) of the Supreme Court Act provided in
relevant part that
a
local or provincial Division of the High Court had jurisdiction over
‘
all
persons residing or being in and in relation to all causes
arising…within its area of jurisdiction’.
[6]
Zokufa
v Compuscan (Credit Bureau)
2011
(1) SA 272
(ECM).
The
applicants and the respondents both relied on
Zokufa
in substantiation of their respective submissions on jurisdiction.
[7]
Kibe
v Mphoko and Another
1958
(1) SA 364 (O).
[8]
Mtshali
v Mtambo and Another
1962
(3) SA 469 (GW).
[9]
Ex
parte Hay Management Consultants (Pty) Ltd
[2000]
2 All SA 592 (W).
[10]
Legal
proceedings are based on facts from which legal inferences may be
drawn. These facts are often referred to as the ‘
jurisdictional
connecting factors’
.
[11]
Zokufa
at
para [62] – [63].
[12]
Setlogelo
v
Setlogelo
1914 AD 221
at 227.
## [13]Isaacs
v Kearns and Another(10280/10)
[2010] ZAWCHC 578 (26 November 2010) at para [8];Matiwane
v Cecil Nathan, Beattie & Co1972
(1) SA 222 (N) at 229C-E.
[13]
Isaacs
v Kearns and Another
(10280/10)
[2010] ZAWCHC 578 (26 November 2010) at para [8];
Matiwane
v Cecil Nathan, Beattie & Co
1972
(1) SA 222 (N) at 229C-E.
[14]
Zokufa
at para [44].
[15]
Kibe
at
367A-B.
## [16]Federation
Internationale de Football Association v Kgopotso Leslie Sedibe &
Another[2021]
4 All SA 321 (SCA).
[16]
Federation
Internationale de Football Association v Kgopotso Leslie Sedibe &
Another
[2021]
4 All SA 321 (SCA).
[17]
Minister
of Law & Order
,
Bophuthatswana
v Committee of the Church Summit of Bophuthatswana
1994 3 SA 89
(BG) at 97–98.
[18]
LAWSA Vol. 11, 2
nd
Ed. 397.
[19]
NCSPCA
v Openshaw
[2008] ZASCA 78
;
2008 (5) SA 339
(SCA) at para
[20]
.
[20]
United
Technical Equipment Co (Pty) Ltd v Johannesburg City Council
1987
(4) SA 343
(T);
Burger
v Rautenbach
1980 (4) SA 650
(C) and
Grundling
v Beyers
1967 (2) SA 131 (W).
[21]
T
ransvaal
Property Investment Co v SA Townships Mining and Finance Corp
1938
TPD 521.
[22]
T
ransvaal
Property Investment Co
at 351.
[23]
Hotz
v UCT
2017
(2) SA 485
(SCA) at para [36].
[24]
Hotz
at
para [20].
[25]
Plascon-Evans
Paints Ltd v Van Riebeeck Paints (Pty) Ltd
[1984] ZASCA 51
;
1984 (3) SA 623
(A) at 634I-635D.
[26]
Cooper
and
Another NNO v Merchant Trade Finance Ltd
2000
(3) SA 1009
(SCA) at para [7]
.
See also
Ocean
Accident and Guarantee Corporation Ltd v Koch
1963
(4) SA 147
(A) at 159B-D.
[27]
Food
and Allied Worker's Union v Scandia Delicatessen
CC
[2001] 3 All SA 342 (A).
## [28]Berg
River Municipality v Zelphi2065 (Pty) Ltd 2013 (4) SA 154 at para [47].
[28]
Berg
River Municipality v Zelphi
2065 (Pty) Ltd 2013 (4) SA 154 at para [47].
[29]
Berg
River
at para [47].
[30]
It is not disputed that the applicants laid criminal charges of
crimen
injuria
and intimidation against both respondents and that these charges are
presently being investigated by the SAPS.
[31]
Mali v
Mali
1982
(4) SA 569
(SE). See also
Kibe
at
367B-C.
sino noindex
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