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# South Africa: Western Cape High Court, Cape Town
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[2022] ZAWCHC 102
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## South African Breweries Proprietary Limited and Others v President of the Republic of South Africa and Another (139/2021)
[2022] ZAWCHC 102; [2022] 3 All SA 514 (WCC) (27 May 2022)
South African Breweries Proprietary Limited and Others v President of the Republic of South Africa and Another (139/2021)
[2022] ZAWCHC 102; [2022] 3 All SA 514 (WCC) (27 May 2022)
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sino date 27 May 2022
IN
THE HIGH COURT OF SOUTH AFRICA
(WESTERN
CAPE DIVISION, CAPE TOWN)
CASE
NO: 139/2021
In
the matter between:
THE
SOUTH AFRICAN BREWERIES PROPRIETARY LIMITED
1
st
Applicant
NTOMBI
MARIA
SIBIYA
2
nd
Applicant
ALISTAIR
HILLARY
SHAPIRO
3
rd
Applicant
SITHEMBISO
REUBEN
MABASO
4
th
Applicant
and
THE
PRESIDENT OF THE REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA
1
st
Respondent
THE
MINISTER OF COOPERATIVE GOVERNANCE AND
TRADITIONAL
AFFAIRS
2
nd
Respondent
CORAM:
ALLIE, NDITA et CLOETE JJ
JUDGMENT
DELIVERED ELECTRONICALLY ON 27 MAY 2022
ALLIE,
J
(CLOETE J concurring, NDITA J
dissenting)
1.
The applicants request the following relief
in the Notice of Motion:
1.1.
It is declared that Regulation 44 and
Regulation 86 promulgated in Government Gazette No 1423 on 29
December 2020 by the Second
Respondent are unlawful and of no force
and effect.
1.2.
Alternatively to paragraph 2 above, the
decision of the Second Respondent to promulgate Regulation 44 and
Regulation 86 in Government
Gazette No 1423 on 29 December 2020 is
hereby reviewed, corrected and set aside.
1.3.
The Respondents are to pay the costs of
this application.
2.
The Applicants’ grounds for bringing
the Application are as follows:
2.1.
Regulations 44 and 86 (“
the
Impugned Regulations”
) are
unlawful because they are
not necessary
to achieve any of the purposes listed in section 27(3) of the
Disaster Management Act 57 of 2002 (“
DMA”
),
namely:
(a)
assisting and protecting the public;
(b)
providing relief to the public;
(c)
protecting property;
(d)
preventing or combating disruption; or
(e)
dealing with the destructive and
other effects of the disaster.
2.2.
The Minister acted
ultra
vires
in making the Impugned
Regulations because the DMA does not grant her the authority to do
so.
2.3.
The Impugned Regulations impermissibly
infringe constitutional rights to dignity, privacy, bodily and
psychological integrity and
freedom to trade.
2.4.
The Impugned Regulations constitute
administrative action and are therefore subject to review under PAJA,
alternatively the principle
of legality.
2.5.
The procedure adopted prior to making the
Impugned Regulations was not fair and regular in that there was no
bilateral engagement,
with
inter alia
,
the applicants, who were not afforded an opportunity to make
representations.
2.6.
The Second Respondent has allegedly not
demonstrated that the Impugned Regulations in fact reduced
significantly the number of trauma
cases and that the Impugned
Regulations are rationally connected to the purported purpose of
saving hospital space and saving lives,
especially since the RBB
report commissioned by First Applicant allegedly shows that there is
no evidence that alcohol consumption
directly causes an increase in
hospital cases and concomitantly, that the alcohol ban causes a
decrease in hospital trauma cases
because other restrictive measures
such as a curfew, limited capacity of persons indoors and provincial
travel restrictions all
contributed to the reduction in trauma cases.
Therefore, the Second Respondent relies on the correlation between
alcohol consumption
and trauma cases whereas she should have
determined precisely the cause of the reduction in trauma cases in
the presence of other
restrictive measures.
2.7.
Although the alcohol ban was repealed in
early February 2021, the issues in dispute are not moot and the Court
ought to consider
them because it concerns the infringement of
constitutional rights.
Mootness
3.
The First Applicant advanced three bases
for the relief sought: (a) its own trade, which was abandoned
during argument before
us with the Applicants reserving the right to
raise it on appeal; (b) its interest in the totality of the
“trade chain”
in beer and other alcoholic beverages; and
(c) the public interest as contemplated in Section 38(d) of the
Constitution, in
that the Impugned Regulations constituted unlawful
impediments to the right to trade, including those in the “trade
chain”
as well as an unlawful infringement of human dignity in
that they sought to limit the choice to drink alcohol. The Second,
Third
and Fourth Applicants all approached Court in their personal
capacities.
4.
The Impugned Regulations have been repealed
and are of no force and effect since 2 February 2021, after they were
substituted on
1 February 2021 by the easing of the restriction of
the full temporary suspension on the sale, dispensing and
transportation of
alcohol.
5.
This application was launched on about 6
January 2021 and persisted with after the repeal of the Impugned
Regulations.
6.
Applicants seek a declaration that the
Impugned Regulations are unconstitutional and
ultra
vires
the powers conferred on Second
Respondent by section 27(3) of the DMA and consequently the Impugned
Regulations are invalid and
of no force and effect, despite them
already having no force and effect since 2 February 2021.
7.
There is no dispute concerning the fact
that the Impugned Regulations have no legal effect any longer. The
practical effect that
a review of the Impugned Regulations would
have, is limited to a deterrence measure in the event that the same
Regulations are
made in similar prevailing circumstances, and so too
would a declaration that it violated certain Constitutional Rights of
the
Applicants.
8.
Section 16(2)(a)(i)
of the
Superior Courts
Act 10 of 2013
, provides that: ‘
When
at the hearing of an
appeal
the
issues are of such a nature that the decision sought will have no
practical effect or result, the appeal may be dismissed on
this
ground alone.’
(emphasis added)
9.
Courts
of appeal as well as the Constitutional Court in direct access
applications have however exercised a discretion to hear matters
that
are moot when the appeal requires the adjudication of a distinct
point of law that does not involve a determination of the
merits or
factual matrix.
[1]
10.
In
the
Langeberg
Municipality
[2]
case, it was held that: ‘…
A
prerequisite for the exercise of the discretion is that any order
which this Court may make will have some practical effect either
on
the parties or on others
.’
11.
In
S
v Manamela
[3]
the Constitutional Court
held in a criminal trial context, that the constitutionality of the
reverse
onus
provision in s
ection
37(1) of the General Law Amendment Act 62 of 1955, holds compelling
public interest because it may prejudice the general
administration
of justice as well as the interests of accused persons affected
thereby. That issue was clearly a separate and distinct
issue from
the merits and the facts and it could be determined despite it being
moot in that case.
12.
In
Normandien
Farms
[4]
the Constitutional Court, with reference to the factors listed in
AA
Investments
,
[5]
held as follows:
‘
[46] It
is clear from the factual circumstances that this matter is moot.
However, this is not the end of the inquiry. The
central question for
consideration is: whether it is in the interests of justice to grant
leave to appeal, notwithstanding the
mootness. A consideration of
this Court’s approach to mootness is necessary at this
juncture, followed by an application
of the various factors to the
current matter.
[47] Mootness is
when a matter “no longer presents an existing or live
controversy”. The doctrine is based on the
notion that judicial
resources ought to be utilised efficiently and should not be
dedicated to advisory opinions or abstract propositions
of law, and
that courts should avoid deciding matters that are “abstract,
academic or hypothetical”.
[48] This Court
has held that it is axiomatic that “mootness is not an absolute
bar to the justiciability of an issue
[and that this] Court may
entertain an appeal, even if moot, where the interests of justice so
require”. This Court “has
discretionary power to
entertain even admittedly moot issues”.
[49] Where there
are two conflicting judgments by different courts, especially where
an appeal court’s outcome has binding
implications for future
matters, it weighs in favour of entertaining a moot matter.
[50] Moreover,
this Court has proffered further factors that ought to be considered
when determining whether it is in the interests
of justice to hear a
moot matter. These include:
(a) whether any order
which it may make will have some practical effect either on the
parties or on others;
(b) the nature and
extent of the practical effect that any possible order might have;
(c) the importance of
the issue;
(d) the complexity of
the issue;
(e) the fullness or
otherwise of the arguments advanced; and
(f) resolving the
disputes between different courts.”
13.
The
Constitutional Court cited with approval its findings on mootness in
National
Coalition for Gay & Lesbian Equality v Minister of Home
Affairs
,
[6]
when considering the
Normandien
Farms
case.
14.
In
Pheko
’s
[7]
case, which Applicants refer to in support of the contention that
litigation over the infringement of constitutional rights is
never
moot because the aggrieved party is entitled to a declaration of
constitutional invalidity even where consequential relief
is no
longer possible, the Constitutional Court was called upon to decide
whether to grant leave to appeal directly to it without
leave to
appeal to the Supreme Court of Appeal first having been pursued. The
Constitutional Court had regard to section 167(3)(b)
of the
Constitution and confirmed the principle that it is well established
that leave to appeal will be granted if a constitutional
issue is
raised and if it is in the interest of justice to hear the appeal.
15.
The Court, without prescribing a
numerus
clausus
of what constitutes the
interests of justice, held:
“
[31]
Important to the interests of justice is the question of mootness.
However, it too is but one of the factors that must be taken
into
consideration in the overall balancing process. In Independent
Electoral Commission v Langeberg Municipality, this Court,
per Yacoob
J
and Madlanga AJ, held that:
‘
[T]he
Court has discretion to decide issues on appeal even if they no
longer present existing or live controversies. That discretion
must
be exercised according to what the interests of justice require. A
prerequisite for the exercise of the discretion is that
any order
which the Court may make
will
have some practical effect either on the parties or on others
.
Other factors that may be relevant will include
the
nature and extent of the practical effect
that any possible order might have, the importance of the issue,
its
complexity and the fullness or otherwise of the argument advanced
.”
Indeed,
if the applicants’ rights were not infringed
and
are no longer threatened
, or the
applicants have no interest in the adjudication of the dispute, it
will not be in the interests of justice to grant leave
to appeal
directly to this Court.’
(emphasis
added)
16.
The Constitutional Court went on to find in
Pheko
,
that the question of whether the appellants were unlawfully evicted
ostensibly in implementing an evacuation of a municipal area,
was a
live issue that would impact on their claim for restitutionary relief
in due course.
17.
It is noted that in
Pheko
,
the mootness point was raised on the ground that the appellants had
already been evacuated, whereas in the instant matter the
Impugned
Regulations have already been repealed, which means that the
offending conduct had voluntarily ceased prior to the case
being
argued before us.
18.
Respondents
rely on
Minister
of Justice and Correctional Services and Others v Estate Late James
Stransham-Ford
[8]
which they argue draws the distinction between what a court of first
instance may do, as opposed to a court of appeal, when there
is no
live controversy as follows:
‘
[21]
I have given consideration to whether the fact that the arguments
advanced on behalf of Mr Stransham-Ford
engaged constitutional
issues detracts from these
[established]
principles. In my
view they do not. Constitutional issues, as much as issues in any
other litigation, only arise for decision where,
on the facts of a
particular case, it is necessary to decide the constitutional issue.’
19.
At the time that the High Court delivered its judgment in
Stransham-Ford,
there was no longer an existing controversy to
pronounce upon. The case was no longer justiciable, therefore the
Supreme Court
of Appeal held that:
‘
[22]
Since the advent of an enforceable Bill of Rights, many test cases
have been brought with a view to establishing
some broader principle.
But none have been brought in circumstances where the cause
of action advanced had been extinguished before judgment at first
instance
. There have been cases in which, after judgment
at first instance, circumstances have altered so that the judgment
has become moot.
There the Constitutional Court has reserved to
itself a discretion, if it is in the interests of justice to do so,
to consider
and determine matters even though they have become moot.
It is a prerequisite for the exercise of the discretion that any
order
the court may ultimately make will have some practical effect
either on the parties or on others. Other factors that may be
relevant
will include the nature and extent of the practical effect
that any possible order might have, the importance of the issue, its
complexity and the fullness or otherwise of the argument.
[23] The
common feature of the cases, where the Constitutional Court has heard
matters notwithstanding the fact that the case
no longer presented a
live issue, was that the order had a practical impact on the future
conduct of one or both of the parties
to the litigation. In IEC
v Langeberg Municipality, while the relevant election had been held,
the judgment would affect the
manner in which the IEC conducted
elections in the future. In Pillay the court granted a
narrow declaratory order that
significantly reduced the impact on the
school of the order made in the court below. In Pheko, while the
interdictory relief
that had been sought had become academic, a
decision on the merits would affect its claim for restitutionary
relief.
[24] This case
presents an entirely different picture. Relief was sought
specifically tailored to Mr Stransham-Ford’s
circumstances. The
order expressly applied only to any doctor who provided him with
assistance to terminate his life. The caveat
in para 4 of the order
left the common law crimes of murder and culpable homicide unaltered.
No public purpose was served by the
grant of the order. In any event,
I do not accept that it is open to courts of first instance to
make orders on causes of action that have been extinguished, merely
because they think that their decision will have broader societal
implications
.
There must be many areas of the law of public
interest where a judge may think that it would be helpful to have
clarification but,
unless the occasion arises in litigation that is
properly before the court, it is not open to a judge to undertake
that task
. The courts have no plenary power to raise legal issues
and make and shape the common law. They must wait for litigants to
bring
appropriate cases before them that warrant such development.
Judge Richard S Arnold expressed this well when he said:
‘
[Courts] do
not, or should not, sally forth each day looking for wrongs to right.
We wait for cases to come to us, and when they
do we normally decide
only questions presented by the parties. Counsel almost always know a
great deal more about their cases than
we do …’
[25] The
situation before Fabricius J was not comparable to the position where
this court or the Constitutional Court decides
to hear a case
notwithstanding that it has become moot. When a court of appeal
addresses issues that were properly determined by
a first instance
court, and determines them afresh because they raise issues of public
importance, it is always mindful that otherwise
under our system of
precedent the judgment at first instance will affect the conduct of
officials and influence other courts when
confronting similar issues.
A feature of all the cases referred to in the footnotes to para 22
above
[i.e.
Langeberg, Pheko
and
Pillay
]
is that
the appeal court either overruled the judgment in the court below or
substantially modified it. The appeal court’s
jurisdiction was
exercised because ‘
a discrete legal
issue of public importance arose that would affect matters in the
future and on which the adjudication of this
court was required’.
The High Court is not vested with similar powers. Its function is to
determine cases that present live
issues for determination
.”
“
[26] The
jurisprudence in appellate courts speaks of the case having become
moot so that it no longer presents a live issue
for determination.
I
do not think that the extinguishing of a claim by death before
judgment is an instance of mootness in the sense in which that
expression is used in these cases. If a cause of action ceases to
exist before judgment in the court of first instance, there is
no
longer a claim before the court for its adjudication. Mootness is the
term used to describe the situation where events overtake
matters
after judgment has been delivered, so that further consideration of
the case by way of appeal will not produce a judgment
having any
practical effect. Here we are dealing with a logically anterior
question, namely, whether there was any cause of action
at all before
the High Court at the time it made its order. Was there anything on
which it was entitled to pronounce? The principles
governing mootness
have little or no purchase in that situation.
[27]
For those reasons alone therefore the order made by Fabricius J
must be set aside. But that leaves the dilemma that it is a
reasoned
and reported judgment by the High Court and if this Court does not at
least to some extent, address the merits it may
be taken as having
some precedential effect. That is of particular concern in the
present case, as it has already been treated
as reflecting the South
African legal position by a court in New Zealand. This compels us to
deal with the merits insofar as necessary
in order to dispel that
view. In doing so I adopt the same course as did the Constitutional
Court in Director of Public Prosecutions,
Transvaal v Minister of
Justice and Correctional Services, a case where the High Court had
incorrectly entered upon the question
of the constitutional validity
of certain provisions of the
Criminal Procedure Act 51 of 1977
dealing with child witnesses. It did so and made a declaration of
constitutional invalidity in respect of those provisions.
Notwithstanding
that its orders fell to be set aside for that reason
alone, the Constitutional Court dealt with the issue of
constitutional invalidity
and held that the impugned provisions were
constitutionally compliant. Inasmuch as I have concluded that, on
both its exposition
of the law and on the facts, the High Court
should not have made the order it did, I deal with the merits to the
extent necessary
to explain why that was so, both legally and
factually’.
(emphasis added)
20.
Respondents
also rely on
Ramuhovhi
and Another v President of the Republic of South Africa and Others,
(Women’s
Legal Trust as amicus curiae
)
[9]
where the Court held that:
“
[19] The
general principle determining whether a court will entertain a matter
is that —
(1)
“
courts will only act if the right remedy is sought by
the right person in the right proceedings and circumstances’’
21.
Respondents
rely further on
Laser
Transport Group (Pty) Ltd and Another v Elliot Mobility (Pty) Ltd and
Another
[10]
where the Court held:
“
[
21]
As shown above, this court has exercised its discretion to determine
appeals which are moot where issues arising involve
a discrete legal
point of public importance that would affect matters in the future.
In their alternative submission, the appellants
argued that this
court should exercise its discretion to entertain this appeal because
the issues that arise ‘could or should’
affect similar
matters in the future. They contended that the interpretation of
s 2(1)(a)
of the PPPFA involved Constitutional issues that
impacted on public procurement, just administrative action, and
access to courts.
Qoboshiyane provides no support for the appellants’
submissions. If anything, that case illustrates that even where
Constitutional
issues are implicated, if the decision is case
specific, there are no grounds for the court to exercise its
discretion in favour
of entertaining an appeal that is moot. Even if
the assessment of objective factors under
s 2(1)(b)(i)
of the
PPPFA was incorrectly applied, or the tender process was tainted by
illegality or the Full Court’s substitution of
tender award was
wrong, no basis was laid for a conclusion that the matter raised
issues of public importance.”
22.
In
their note on mootness, the respondents also refer to
Baleni
[11]
and submit that the court in that case simply ignored
Stransham-Ford
,
by seeking to distinguish it on the basis of public versus private
law
.
In
Baleni
the first applicant approached the High Court in both her personal
capacity and as a representative of her community. The remaining
applicants were members of that community. They sought certain
declaratory relief coupled with a
mandamus
and an interdict. The case involved mining rights. One of the grounds
of opposition, raised by the fifth respondent, was that the
declaratory relief, even if granted, would be academic because the
applicants had since been provided with the documentation they
sought, and further that there were no longer any live issues between
the parties. Counsel relied on
Stransham-Ford
.
23.
The High Court rejected this argument on
the following basis:
‘
[96]
That matter was about the rights of the deceased to choose his dying
method. In the matter before me the applicants’
standing is not
only derived from their individual rights as occupiers, but also as
part of a community and in the public interest.
The issues raised in
this matter do not only affect them, but also future generations…’
24.
At paragraphs [97] to [100] the High Court
in
Baleni
relied on various Constitutional Court judgments dealing with the
discretion afforded to an appeal court to entertain a matter
that has
become moot. In paragraph [101] it also cited
Ramuhovhi
in support of its conclusion. However the latter judgment was handed
down on 1 August 2016, prior to
Stransham-Ford
which was delivered on 6 December 2016.
25.
At
para [102] the High Court in
Baleni
also referred, as authority, to
Minister
of Finance v Oakbay Investments
[12]
where a full court sat as a court of first instance. There the
Minister of Finance sought,
inter
alia
,
a declaratory order in the public interest that he was not empowered
by law, nor obliged, to intervene in the banking relationships
between certain respondent banks and their clients. As is apparent
from the judgment, this relief was specifically based on s 21(1)(c)
of the Superior Courts Act 10 of 2013 (“the Act”). The
relevant paragraphs of that judgment are [51] to [53]:
‘
[51]
The basis for the relief that the Minister seeks is
section 21(1)
(c)
of the
Superior Courts Act 10 of 2013
. It provides:
Persons
over whom and matters in relation to which Divisions have
jurisdiction
21.
(1)
A Division has jurisdiction over
all persons residing in or being in, and
in relation to all causes arising and all offences triable within,
its area of jurisdiction
and
all other
matters of which it may according to law take cognizance, and has the
power –
(c) in its discretion,
and at the instance of any interested person, to enquire into and
determine any existing, future, or contingent
right or obligation,
notwithstanding that such person cannot claim any relief
consequential upon the determination. (Emphasis added).
[52]
The exercise of the Court’s jurisdiction in terms of
section
21(1)
(c) follows a two-legged enquiry. (See
Durban
City Council v Association of Building Societies
and
confirmed in
Cordiant Trading CC v
Daimler Chrysler Financial Services (Pty) Ltd)
:
[52.1]
the Court must first be satisfied that the applicant is
a person
interested in an existing, future or contingent right or obligation;
and if so,
[52.2]
the Court must decide whether the case is a proper one for
the
exercise of its discretion.
[53] The
first leg of the enquiry involves establishing the existence of the
necessary condition precedent for the exercise
of the Court’s
discretion. An applicant for the declaratory relief satisfies this
requirement if he succeeds in establishing
that he has an interest in
an existing, future or contingent right or obligation. Only if the
Court is satisfied accordingly, does
it proceed to the second leg of
the enquiry.’
26.
At para [104] of
Baleni
the High Court found that: “
There
is no doubt that the applicants in the matter before me have
satisfied the requirements in terms of the first leg of the enquiry.
They have an interest in an existing, future or contingent right or
obligation
in relation to the
land that forms the subject matter of the mining right application”
.
(My emphasis).
27.
Assuming that the High Court’s
conclusion regarding the subject matter in
Baleni
was correct (it is not necessary to take it any further than that for
present purposes) in the case before us the subject matter
is the
Impugned Regulations that are no longer in force. It may be, as the
Minister herself states, that a full alcohol ban may
be reimposed in
the future
depending on the particular
circumstances at the time
. To my mind,
however a distinction must be drawn between the subject matter of a
full alcohol ban
per se
(on the one hand) and the true subject matter in this case (on the
other) which is the Impugned Regulations that no longer exist.
Put
differently, the cause of action is the Impugned Regulations
themselves. That cause of action fell away on 1 February
2021
but the Applicants did not amend their relief to advance a case in
terms of s 21(1)(c) of the Act. They persisted in
pinning their
colours to the previously existing mast of the Impugned Regulations.
Accordingly, and following
Stransham-Ford
(by which we are bound) the cause of action ceased to exist before
judgment in this court of first instance.
28.
On the particular facts before us, no case
have been advanced to support a conclusion that there is a live issue
for determination
that will impact on consequential future relief,
whether it be restitutionary in nature or other relief and whether
the relief
sought would impact upon other persons, if not on the
Applicants
in casu
.
Indeed, the approach taken by the Applicants during argument in reply
was that they would have thought the Respondents would welcome
judicial guidance on the issue.
Stransham-Ford
makes clear that we are precluded from doing so as a court of first
instance. The Applicants’ reliance on Section 172(1)(a)
of the
Constitution is also misplaced since the “constitutional
matter” which we are asked to declare invalid no longer
exists.
29.
Applicants
rely on
Bengwenyama
Minerals (Pty) Ltd v Genorah Resources (Pty) Ltd
[13]
for
the contention that the principle of legality in a review in terms of
PAJA, necessitates a consideration of a just and equitable
remedy and
that militates against a finding of mootness.
30.
As pointed out earlier, there is no relief
sought
in casu
which would constitute a just and equitable remedy. The only relevant
relief sought is the declaration of Constitutional invalidity
devoid
of just and equitable remedial consequences.
31.
Applicants
also rely on the Supreme Court of Appeal’s finding at [33] in
Esau
[14]
for the contention that
it in the interests of justice that the violation of Constitutional
Rights be decided although the Impugned
Regulations were withdrawn
and replaced with new ones. However there the Supreme Court of Appeal
sat as a court of appeal and not
a court of first instance, and
therefore the applicants’ reliance on
Esau
for
lack of mootness, is misplaced.
32.
Subsequent
to the drafting of this judgment, a full court of this Division
sitting as a court of first instance handed down judgment
on 3
December 2021 in
Vinpro
NPC v President of the Republic of South Africa and Others
.
[15]
Counsel were thus afforded the opportunity to file supplementary
notes which they duly did on 17 and 24 December 2021.
33.
In
Vinpro
it was found, seemingly following
Stransham-Ford
,
that the repeal of the same Impugned Regulations at issue in this
matter prior to the hearing had rendered the relief sought “moot”
(the nature of the challenge on the merits appears to have been
different to that before us).
34.
The finding of mootness in
Vinpro
conflicts with another full court decision of first instance in this
Division, namely
BATSA
,
which I deal with later in this judgment under the section on
“Necessity in section 27(3) of the DMA”. In
BATSA
the court held that a court of first instance has a discretion to
decide a moot case. There are thus two conflicting decisions
of full
courts of first instance in this Division.
35.
BATSA
did
not refer to
Stransham-Ford
,
whereas
Vinpro
refers to
Stransham-Ford
and appears to follow it although it is stated at paras [39] to [42]
of the judgment that:
‘
[39]
Factually, the potential “mootness” in connection with
this application arose more than (6) months ago when the
January
Regulations were the subject of appeal. By contrast, in BATSA, the
application was fully argued when the dispute was “live”.
Judgment was reserved and the issue of mootness only made an
appearance (2) weeks later, this before the judgment was handed down.
[40] Conversely, in
the current application, whatever the factual position and
circumstances were in January 2021 and, whatever
influences these
held for the lawfulness or otherwise of the January Regulations would
have no bearing on any future regulations
that may or may not be
contemplated by the government respondents.
[41] Unterhalter AJA,
writing for the court in Capitec Holdings Limited and Another v Coral
Lagoon Investments 194 (Pty) Ltd and
Others, eloquently set out the
correct test to be applied when a shield of mootness is raised in the
following terms, namely:
‘…
if
the appeal remains live in respect of the principal litigation, there
is no basis to rule that the appeal is moot…’
[42] In our view this
court does not have any discretion to hear a matter which has become
moot and in our view, this matter has
become moot.’
36.
Be that as it may, for the reasons set out
herein, I find that there was no live controversy when the matter was
argued before us
and in this sense the matter had been rendered
“moot”. To this extent I agree with the conclusion
reached in
Vinpro
on mootness.
37.
To
this should be added that in their supplementary note the applicants
placed reliance on
J
T Publishing (Pty) Ltd v Minister of Safety and Security
.
[16]
There the Constitutional Court held that
it
has the power to decide whether or not to hear moot cases and I do
not see how this advances the applicants’ submissions
on
mootness. In any event that decision pre-dates the
Superior Courts
Act. I
have not been able to find, nor were we referred to, any
decisions of courts of first instance, other than
Baleni
and
BATSA
,
to the effect that in a challenge as currently formulated by the
applicants a court of first instance has the power to decide
a matter
where there is no longer a live controversy between the parties.
38.
Concerning the possible imposition of a
further alcohol ban in the future, relevant conditions that prevail
then, are likely to
differ markedly from those that prevailed on 28
December 2020, in that South Africa now has access to vaccinations
not only for
its health care workers, but also for the entire
population. However, since the scientific knowledge on SARS CoV-2 is
ever evolving
as are variants of the virus, the rationality for the
justification that motivates the imposition of alcohol bans or
suspensions
in the future is not capable of being pre-determined in
this matter, and therefore the extent of an impact that a decision on
the
Impugned Regulation’s validity would have on other persons
in the future is not capable of determination at this stage.
39.
In
FITA
,
[17]
the full bench held that by their very nature, natural disasters may
often result in unforeseen consequences.
40.
Mindful of the likely change in exigencies,
I am nonetheless of the view, that should I be incorrect in finding
that there is no
live issue for determination in this case, it would
serve the litigants
in casu
well that I nonetheless consider the remaining issues in dispute.
41.
As
was stated by the Constitutional Court in
Spilhaus
Property v MTN
at paragraph [44]
[18]
‘…
The
Supreme Court of Appeal itself has said that it is desirable, where
possible, for a lower court to decide all issues raised
in a matter
before it. This applies equally to the Supreme Court of Appeal. This
is more so where, as here, the final appeal court
reverses its
decision on the chosen limited point. This may impact on the fairness
of an appeal hearing. Litigants are entitled
to a decision on all
issues raised, especially where they have an option of appealing
further. The court to which an appeal lies
also benefits from the
reasoning on all issues.’
Relevant
Provisions in the Disaster Management Act 57 of 2002 (‘DMA’)
and the Impugned Regulations
42.
The following provisions of the Act, which
constitutes the legislation in terms whereof the Second Respondent
made the Impugned
Regulations, are relevant to the issues in this
case.
43.
The preamble to the DMA provides a clear
purpose as follows:
“
To
provide for-
an integrated and
co-ordinated disaster management policy that focuses on preventing or
reducing the risk of disasters, mitigating
the severity of disasters,
emergency preparedness, rapid and effective response to disasters and
post-disaster recovery and rehabilitation;
the establishment and
functioning of national, provincial and municipal disaster management
centres; disaster management volunteers;
and matters incidental
thereto.”
44.
Clearly in the preamble the legislature
contemplates that the DMA ought to enable the creation of a
synchroniable policy aimed at
stemming, and diminishing, the risk of
disasters as well as the establishment of national, provincial and
municipal centres that
would co-ordinate all measures employed to
address a disaster and its consequences.
45.
In the definition section of the DMA, “risk
assessment” is defined as follows:
“
a
methodology to determine the nature and extent of risk by analysing
potential hazards and evaluating existing conditions of vulnerability
that together could potentially harm exposed people, property,
services, livelihoods and the environment on which they depend.”
46.
That definition makes the ambit of the DMA
wide enough to encompass consideration of protection to people,
property, services, the
environment and livelihoods.
47.
The DMA provides for the creation of a
National Disaster Management Centre with a Head appointment. In these
papers the Head of
the Centre is Dr Tau who, in terms of section
23(1) b) of the DMA, on 15 March 2020, classified the Covid-19
pandemic as a national
disaster in Government Notice 312 published in
Government Gazette No. 43096.
48.
In section 26, the DMA provides for
National Executive involvement as follows:
‘
(1)
The national executive is primarily responsible for the co-ordination
and management of national disasters irrespective of whether
a
national state of disaster has been declared in terms of section 27.
(2) The national
executive must deal with a national disaster-
(a)
in terms of existing legislation and contingency arrangements, if a
national state of disaster has not been
declared in terms of section
27 (1); or
(b)
in terms of existing legislation and contingency arrangements as
augmented by regulations or directions made
or issued in terms of
section 27 (2), if a national state of disaster has been declared.’
49.
In Section 27(2), the DMA provides a
description of the objects of regulations made in terms of the Act as
follows:
“
(2)
If a national state of disaster has been declared in terms of
subsection (1), the Minister may, subject to subsection (3), and
after consulting the responsible Cabinet member, make regulations or
issue directions or authorise the issue of directions concerning:
(a) the release of any
available resources of the national government. Including stores,
equipment, vehicles and facilities;
(b)
the release of personnel of a national organ of state for the
rendering of emergency services;
(c)
the implementation of all or any of the provisions of a national
disaster management plan that are applicable in the circumstances;
(d) the evacuation to
temporary shelters of all or part of the population from the
disaster-stricken or threatened area if such
action is necessary for
the preservation of life;
(e)
the regulation of traffic to, from or within the disaster-stricken or
threatened area;
(f)
the regulation of the movement of persons and goods to, from or
within the disaster-stricken or threatened area;
(g) the control and
occupancy of premises in the disaster-stricken or threatened area;
(h) the provision,
control or use of temporary emergency accommodation:
(i
) the suspension
or limiting of the sale, dispensing or transportation of alcoholic
beverages in the disaster-stricken or threatened
area
:
(j) the maintenance or
installation of temporary lines of communication to, from or within
the disaster area;
(k) the dissemination
of information required for dealing with the disaster:
(I) emergency
procurement procedures;
(m) the facilitation
of response and post-disaster recovery and rehabilitation:
(n) other steps that
may be necessary to prevent an escalation of the disaster, or to
alleviate, contain and minimise the effects
of the disaster; or
(o)
steps to facilitate international assistance.
’
(emphasis added)
50.
Section 27(3) provides as
follows:
“
The
powers referred to in subsection (2) may be exercised only to the
extent that this is necessary for the purpose of—
(a) assisting and
protecting the public;
(b) providing relief
to the public;
(c) protecting
property;
(d) preventing or
combating disruption: or
(e)
dealing with the destructive and other effects of the disaster
”
51.
The Applicants
do
not
challenge the constitutionality of
the DMA itself, but only the Impugned Regulations, which have been
repealed.
52.
Regulation 44 read as follows:
“
Sale,
dispensing, distribution and transportation of liquor
(1)
The sale and dispensing of liquor for-
(a)
off-site consumption; and
(b)
on-site consumption is prohibited.
(2)
The consumption of liquor in public places is prohibited.
(3)
The tasting and selling of liquor to the public by registered
wineries, wine farms, and
other similar establishments registered as
micro manufacturers, is prohibited.
(4)
The transportation of liquor is prohibited, except where the
transportation of liquor
is-
(a)
in relation to alcohol required for industries producing hand
sanitizers, disinfectants,
soap or alcohol for industrial use and
household cleaning products;
(b)
for export purposes;
(c)
from manufacturing plants to storage facilities; or
(d)
being transported from any licensed premises for safe keeping.
(5)
No special or events liquor licenses may be considered for approval
during the duration
of the national state of disaster.
(6)
The Cabinet member responsible for transport must, after consultation
with the Cabinet members
responsible for cooperative governance and
traditional affairs, health, police and trade, industry and
competition, issue directions
for the transportation and storage of
liquor.
(7)
The sale, dispensing, distribution, transportation, and consumption
of liquor in contravention
of sub-regulations (1), (2), (3), (4)
and (5) is an offence.”
53.
Regulation 86 contained similar provisions to Regulation 44, save
that it was
directed at certain areas designated as hotspots.
54.
Regulation 44 came into effect on 29 December 2020 and it was
repealed on 1 February
2021. At the time of its promulgation, it
was not known when it would be repealed.
55.
It is common cause that the Liquor Act
(Act
59 of 2003)
regulates
the sale of alcohol but does not provide for the countrywide
suspension on the sale of alcohol.
Factual prevailing
context prior to the promulgation of the Impugned Regulations
56.
The advent of Covid-19 globally and by March 2020, in South Africa,
is well
documented by the Supreme Court of Appeal
[19]
and does not require repetition here.
57.
The Impugned Regulations were imposed at the time when the country
commenced
its second wave of Covid-19 virus infections, which
according to the epidemiologist, Professor S S Abdool Karim, was
driven by
a new variant, namely, the 501Y.V2 variant.
58.
The new variant allegedly spreads faster and that means that people
would become
infected quicker and in turn spread it to others
quicker.
59.
According to Prof Abdool Karim, he anticipated that the second wave
would commence
in the first week of January 2021, after people moved
around and socialised over the festive season but in fact the second
wave
started a few weeks before that.
60.
The second wave started earlier than expected because of super
spreader events
held by high school pupils and University students,
after the completion of their examinations.
61.
Prof Abdool Karim briefed the Minister of Health about the new
variant as soon
as he was made aware of it in late November 2020,
without at that stage knowing the full impact that the new variant
would have.
62.
On 18 December 2020, Prof Abdool Karim and others provided the
Minister of Health
with an update on the nature and extent of the new
variant with specific reference to the fact that it was 50% more
transmissible
than the previous strain of the virus and that it was
being detected in hospitals in the Eastern and Western Cape as well
as in
Kwazulu-Natal. Prof Abdool Karim and his colleagues also
briefed the President and the public later on that same day.
63.
Prof Abdool Karim advised the Minister of Health that he was
concerned that
hospitals would not be able to cope with the intensive
care needs of Covid-19 patients and the needs of those in need of
care in
alcohol related injuries or illness, and Covid-19 related
deaths would increase unless patients with alcohol related conditions
decrease. Prof Abdool Karim states the following: “
On
the 27
th
December 2020, South Africa’s second wave
was about to surpass the peak of the first wave with a 7-day moving
average of
12,129 reported new cases. Notably, the cases were
continuing to increase far more rapidly than had been experienced in
the first
wave
.”
64.
Prof Abdool Karim notes that: “
A consequence of far too
rapid a rise in admissions into hospitals is an increase in
mortality, not necessarily because of the virus,
but because knowing
hospitals are filled, people delay in seeking treatment and when they
do reach a hospital, either no beds are
available or it could be too
late
.”
65.
In support of the above allegation, Prof Abdool Karim relies on
statistics from
hospital admissions and deaths in the Western Cape,
Eastern Cape and KwaZulu- Natal.
66.
Prof Abdool Karim concludes with the following expert opinion:
“
Having researched the manner in which the virus is
spread and the speed with which it spreads, it is clear to me that a
central
aspect to stopping the spread of Covid-19 requires
individuals to act for the common good. That means wearing a mask and
social
distancing even if you have no symptoms – because you
may be asymptomatic and liable to spread the virus to others around
you. It also means a level of sacrifice by individuals in order that
the health infrastructure is protected and preserved for those
who
need it. The country requires collective community action and
individuals taking action for not only their own benefit but
for the
benefit of the community, failing which more lives will be lost
.”
67.
In describing the conditions that prevailed within the various
provinces shortly
before the Impugned Regulations were made, the
Second Respondent said the following:
“
[168]
Based on the experience in
the first wave, the provinces were relatively confident that they had
the requisite capacity in the event
of a second wave.
With
regards to the number of beds, staff and capacity, the provinces had
more at their disposal in facing the second wave than
in relation to
the first wave. Even though capacity had in a number of respects
doubled, given what the indications were based
on the first wave, the
second wave had turned out to be more severe than had been predicted.
This is attributed (in large measure)
to the nature of the new
variant and the resultant intensity of the second wave.
Since
the second wave started, a
number of field hospitals
that had been closed had to be recommissioned.
[169] As at
22 December 2020 Mpumalanga was the only province with a
new test positivity rate below
10%
whilst the WC had the
highest new test positivity at
39,0%
followed by EC at
34,1%
,
KZN at
30,3%
, Limpopo at
27,6%
, North West at
18,7%
,
Northern Cape at
18,0%
, Gauteng at
15,9%
, and Free
State at
10,1%
. The overall positivity for newly tested
individuals was
25,6%
. Although Gauteng appeared to be lagging
behind, Tshwane was showing a
41.5%
increase compared to the
previous week and the West Rand reflected a
48.5%
increase
since the previous week.
[170] By 21 and
22 December 2020, the regular briefings from the various
provinces conveyed swiftly escalating numbers
of COVID-19 infections
and an attendant strain on the health system which, if not
effectively managed, could result in an overall
collapse of the
health system and devastating loss of lives. Some provinces expressly
sought stricter measures in relation to alcohol
.”
68.
With specific reference to the Western Cape and its Premier’s
letter requesting
a 14-day alcohol ban the Second Respondent states
the following:
“
[177]
On 24 December 2020, the Premier of the WC wrote
a letter
to the Minister of Health, calling for further restrictions which
were deemed necessary in the context of the second surge
of
infections being experienced in the province to, as it was described
– protect “the public health system in the
province from
total collapse”. A copy of the letter is attached as “NCDZ16”.
The following aspects of the letter
warrant highlighting:
177.1.
It referred to the meeting on 22 December 2020 when
the WC raised the escalating crisis in the WC due to the resurgence
of the pandemic and called for additional restrictions to be imposed
to limit the spread of the disease and protect the public
health
system.
177.2.
It noted that the purpose of the letter was to provide a more
detailed account of the current situation in the WC and to request
that
additional regulatory measures
be
introduced for the province for a 14-day period, which were
considered necessary to combat the second wave of the pandemic.
177.3.
As at 23 December 2020 at 13h00, the WC had 35 450
active cases of COVID-19; nearly 1 in 5 of the 181 905 COVID-19
cases ever reported in the province was diagnosed in the previous
2 weeks. New cases were more than double the first wave’s
peak and approaching 3 000 per day. The test positivity rate was
beyond the first wave, at
46%
. The province was
thus in a steep second wave trajectory.
177.4.
The health platform was under considerable strain with the
daily number of new admissions surpassing the first wave - at that
time
more than 300 per day with no signs of plateauing. There were
more than 3 000 confirmed COVID-19 cases and persons under
investigation
admitted across the public and private sector.
177.5.
The province’s recorded number of deaths was equivalent
to the first wave’s peak and showed no signs of plateauing.
Between 00h00 and 17h00 on 23 December 2020, 169 new deaths
were reported and 140 on the previous day.
177.6.
There had been a total of 3 319 HCW infections recorded, with
636 infections and 7 HCW deaths in the past 7 weeks.
177.7.
The health care system was at a tipping point and suffered the
real risk of running out of capacity to meet the overwhelming demand.
177.8.
A general fear regarding the festive season and super spreader
events was also expressed. More specifically, in relation to the
interaction between the festive season and alcohol related hospital
admissions, the letter expressed the following views:
“
During this
same time the Western Cape has seen increases in alcohol-related
trauma presentations and admissions to hospitals, in
keeping with the
normal end of year trauma increase. Despite a modest impact on
weekend trauma numbers due to the current restriction
on alcohol
sales, we are still seeing significant increased alcohol-related
trauma presentations and admissions over the festive
period (Figure
3). This amounts to a significant colliding epidemic of both
alcohol-related trauma and a severe COVID-19 second
wave.”
177.9.
It was urgently requested that the restrictions suggested be
applied immediately to the WC for a 14-day period to limit both
SARS-CoV-2
transmission, as well as reduce the trauma burden and
consequent strain on its health services. While the province was
making every
effort to increase health care capacity, it implored
that these restrictions were essential to reduce demand and prevent
the imminent
collapse of the health system.
177.10.
As a result of the dire situation, the WC Premier proposed a
14-day
total
suspension on the sale and
distribution of alcohol for that period (page 5). In relation to
the motivation for the
total
temporary
suspension, the letter records the following reasons:
‘
Every year,
there is an increase in trauma over the festive season with a large
impact on health service capacity. Alcohol contributes
substantially
to the trauma burden. Half of homicide and motor vehicle deaths test
positive for alcohol with >40% having alcohol
concentration above
the legal driving limit. This translates into a massive burden of
trauma patients at our health facilities.
Western Cape data from
sentinel trauma facilities shows a large increase in the number of
Emergency Centre visits, hospital admissions
and ICU admissions with
each relaxation of the alcohol restrictions since Alert Level 5,
and a reduction when restrictions
have been re-instated.
The restricted trading
hours implemented on 15 December 2020 had marginal impact
on the trauma burden compared to the
previous week. Although there
was a 20% reduction in trauma burden over the weekend of 19 –
20 December 2020 compared
to the previous weekend, the
number of trauma admissions remained extremely high. Further
restriction is therefore warranted.
Use of alcohol results
in people relaxing their efforts to prevent SARS-CoV-2 transmission
with reduced social distancing, lack
of mask use and reduced
sanitising. Further restriction of trading hours will result in
crowding at alcohol retail outlets during
the allowed trading hours,
which would promote spread of SARS-CoV-2. A complete restriction on
alcohol sales is therefore recommended.
The economic impact will be
limited as the existing restricted trading hours would in any event
limit sales on several days over
the next 14 days (weekends and
public holidays).’
[178] Already by
27 December 2020 the following places had a bed utilisation
rate (BUR) of more than
80%
: Garden Route (
123%
); Cape
Winelands (
107%
) and Overberg (
102%
). The critical care
beds (ICU and high care) in the City Metro already had a BUR of more
than
90%
(from
94%
).”
69.
In terms of the DMA, the Second Respondent as well as other relevant
members
of the Cabinet, have a duty to publish Regulations and/or
Directions that embark upon the exercise of balancing competing
needs,
interests and harms to ultimately protect property, people and
their livelihoods
.
70.
In the answering affidavit, Second Respondent describes the factual
prevailing
situation, immediately prior to the Regulations being
promulgated as follows:
“
There were more
than one million confirmed COVID-19 cases with approximately 27000
COVID-19 related deaths by 28 December 2020.
The number of new
infections were rising at an unprecedented rate, with more than 50
000 cases having been reported between Christmas
Eve and 28 December
2020. The majority were in the EC, WC KZN and Gauteng with an
alarming increase in Limpopo. Although the EC
was tapering off,
infections in Gauteng were growing exponentially. Infections were
expected to increase further as more residents
of Gauteng returned
home following the festive season…
.
With a consistent upward trajectory in new cases, active cases
and hospitalisation, one of the biggest challenges was to have
staffing,
equipment and oxygen supplies for extra beds. Around a
third of COVID-19 patients in hospital were on oxygen and concerns
were
being raised about oxygen shortages. Also of great concern at
this juncture was the rising number of public healthcare workers
testing positive in almost all provinces. In this regard, I refer to
the four primary indicators which informed the Impugned Regulations.”
71.
The Minister describes those primary factors as:
71.1.
An increase between 10 December 2020 and 1 January 2021, in new
cases, new hospitalisations and new deaths;
71.2.
The number of active cases far exceeded what had been experienced
during the peak of the first wave;
71.3.
The daily positivity rate had not shown any material reduction during
the period 10 December 2020 to 3 January 2021;
71.4.
The increase in hospitalisations meant that less beds were becoming
available;
71.5.
Positive cases among healthcare workers had skyrocketed and many of
them reported being physically and mentally exhausted,
falling prey
to COVID-19, dying or watching colleagues die.
72.
The test for rationality, the test for
whether the Impugned Regulations are
necessary
as contemplated by section 27(3) of the DMA and the test for whether
the Impugned Regulations are reasonable and justifiable are
all
inextricably bound up with the determination of essentially the same
question, namely, whether the means justify the ends,
objectively.
Principle of
Legality and the Doctrine of Separation of Powers
73.
The
Principle of Legality
has
developed into a “
residual
repository of fundamental norms about how public power ought to be
used. It thus acts as a kind of safety net, catching
exercises of
public power that do not qualify as administrative action
. “
[20]
74.
The doctrine of separation of powers not
only ensures that each arm of government takes responsibility for its
own Constitutionally
ordained sphere of operation, but it also serves
to protect the legitimacy of the judiciary by not permitting the
judiciary an
impermissible foray into the spheres of the executive or
the legislature and in so doing, keeping the tension that is
necessary
among the three arms of government, in equilibrium.
75.
In
Esau,
the Supreme Court of Appeal discussed the imperative of a Court’s
assessment of the exercise of public power with due regard
to the
Principle of Legality, i.e. that the restrictions employed under the
DMA must comply with the law and no less, with the
supreme law,
namely the Constitution while recognising that the exercise of
judicial power, too, is subject to the Principle of
Legality which is
expressed
inter alia
,
by the Doctrine of Separation of Powers. It held as follows:
“
[5]
In other words, even in times of national crisis, as this undoubtedly
is, the executive has no free hand to act as it pleases,
and all of
the measures it adopts in order to meet the exigencies that the
nation faces must be rooted in law and comply with the
Constitution.
The rule of law, a founding value of our Constitution, applies in
times of crisis as much as it does in more stable
times. And the
courts, in the words of Van den Heever JA in R v Pretoria Timber
Co (Pty) Ltd and Another should not, even
when the legislature has
conferred ‘vast powers’ to make subordinate legislation
on the executive, ‘be astute
to divest themselves of their
judicial powers and duties, namely to serve as buttresses between the
Executive and the subjects’.
[6] That is not
to say that the courts have untrammeled powers to interfere with the
measures chosen by the executive to meet
the challenge faced by the
nation. Judicial power, like all public power, is subject to the rule
of law. Perhaps the most
obvious constraint on the power of the
courts is the doctrine of the separation of powers, a principle upon
which our Constitution
is based and which allocates powers and
responsibilities to the three arms of government – the
legislature, the executive
and the judiciary.
What the
separation of powers means in a case such as this, is that a court
may not set aside decisions taken and regulations made
by the
executive simply because it disagrees with the means chosen by the
executive, or because it believes that the problems that
the
decisions or regulations seek to address can be better achieved by
other means: the wisdom of the executive’s exercises
of power
are not justiciable, only their legality
. Somewhat cynically,
Schreiner JA, in Sinovich v Hercules Municipal Council, said
that ‘[t]he law does not protect
the subject against the merely
foolish exercise of a discretion by an official, however much the
subject suffers thereby’.
[7]
The point
must be stressed that the function of the court is to vet the
challenged decisions and regulations made in terms of the
DMA for
their regularity and not their wisdom
. The reason for this was
highlighted by Laws J in R v Somerset County Council, ex parte
Fewings and Others, a case concerning
the review of a decision by a
local government to prohibit stag hunting on land owned by it, and
which had elicited intense public
responses in favour of and against
the decision. He said:
‘
Although
judicial review is an area of the law which is increasingly, and
rightly, exposed to a good deal of media publicity, one
of its most
important characteristics is not, I think, generally very clearly
understood. It is that, in most cases, the judicial
review court is
not concerned with the merits of the decision under review. The
court does not ask itself the question, “Is
this decision right
or wrong?” Far less does the judge ask himself whether he would
himself have arrived at the decision
in question. It is, however, of
great importance that this should be understood, especially where the
subject matter of the case
excites fierce controversy, the clash of
wholly irreconcilable but deeply held views, and acrimonious, but
principled, debate.
In such a case,
it
is essential that those who espouse either side of the argument
should understand beyond any possibility of doubt that the task
of
the court, and the judgment at which it arrives, have nothing to do
with the question, “Which view is the better one?”
Otherwise, justice would not be seen to be done
:
those who support the losing party might believe that the judge has
decided the case as he has because he agrees with their opponents.
That would be very damaging to the imperative of public confidence in
an impartial court.
The only
question for the judge is whether the decision taken by the body
under review was one which it was legally permitted to
take in the
way that it did
.’ ”
(emphasis added)
76.
In
Clairison
’s
CC
,
[21]
the Supreme Court of Appeal expressed the view that due deference
must be accorded to the decision-maker’s weighting once
it has
established that it has had regard to all the relevant factors:
“
[19]
The power of review is sourced today in the Constitution, and not the
common law, but sound principles are not detracted from
because they
were expressed in an earlier era. As was said in Pharmaceutical
Manufacturers of South Africa: In re Ex parte
President of the
Republic of South Africa
1
‘
That
is not to say that the principles of common law have ceased to be
material to the development of public law. These well-established
principles will continue to inform the content of administrative law
and other aspects of public law, and will contribute to their
future
development’.
[20] It has always
been the law, and we see no reason to think that PAJA has altered the
position
that the weight or lack of it to be attached to the
various considerations that go to making up a decision, is that of
the decision-maker.
As it was stated by Baxter:
‘
The
court will merely require the decision-maker to take the relevant
considerations into account; it will not prescribe
the weight that
must be accorded to each consideration, for
to do so could constitute a usurpation of the decision-maker’s
discretion.
’
(emphasis added)
Role and Function
of Expert Witnesses
77.
In
Price
Waterhouse Coopers Inc & others v National Potato Co-operative
Ltd & another
[22]
the following was reiterated concerning the purpose and role of
expert witnesses:
“
[98]
Courts in this and other jurisdictions have experienced problems with
expert witnesses, sometimes unflatteringly described
as ‘hired
guns’. In The Ikarian Reefer
[23]
Cresswell J set out certain duties that an expert witness should
observe when giving evidence. Pertinent to the evidence of Mr
Collett
in this case are the following:
The duties and
responsibilities of expert witnesses in civil cases include the
following:
1. Expert evidence
presented to the Court should be and should be seen to be the
independent product of the expert uninfluenced
as to form or content
by the exigencies of litigation …
2. An expert witness
should provide independent assistance to the Court by way of
objective unbiased opinion in relation to matters
within his
expertise … An expert witness in the High Court should never
assume the role of advocate.
3. An expert witness
should state the facts or assumptions on which his opinion is based.
He should not omit to consider material
facts which detract from his
concluded opinion. . . . .
4.
An expert witness should make it clear when a particular question or
issue falls outside his expertise.’ These principles
echo the
point made by Diemont JA in Stock
[24]
that:
‘
An
expert … must be made to understand that he is there to assist
the Court. If he is to be helpful he must be neutral. The
evidence of
such a witness is of little value where he, or she, is partisan and
consistently asserts the cause of the party who
calls him. I may add
that when it comes to assessing the credibility of such a witness,
this Court can test his reasoning and is
accordingly to that extent
in as good a position as the trial Court was.’
78.
In
Twine
& Another v Naidoo & Another
,
[25]
the Court set out 17 criteria that expert witnesses ought to meet if
their testimony are to be admitted. The court went on to discuss
4
factors that should be considered when courts evaluate expert
testimony. The entire discussion, while not meant to be exhaustive,
is indeed helpful.
79.
At sub-paragraph 18. (s) the court held as follows:
“
The
court should actively evaluate the evidence. The cogency of the
evidence should be weighed “in the contextual matrix of
the
case with which (the Court) is seized.” If there are competing
experts it can reject the evidence of both experts and
should do so
where appropriate. The principle applies even where the court is
presented with the evidence of only one expert witness
on a disputed
fact. There is no need for the court to be presented with the
competing opinions of more than one expert witness
in order
to reject the evidence of that witness
.”
80.
Respondents
rely on
Media24
Books (Pty) Ltd v Oxford University Press Southern Africa (Pty) Ltd
[26]
to support their argument that the Plascon-Evans rule applies to the
evaluation of expert evidence based on opinions.
81.
However in
Media 24, the court went beyond merely accepting the evidence of the
respondent’s experts as facts alleged by the
respondent that
could be accepted in the absence of oral evidence. The court in that
case looked at the extent to which the expert
evidence of the
respondent firmly and comprehensively set out a basis for refuting
the expert evidence of the applicant, which
was expressed in general
terms, and found that the applicant failed to disprove the expert
evidence of the respondent.
82.
It is therefore necessary for this Court to
compare the expert evidence of Mr Murgatroyd, who is employed by
Applicants, with
the expert evidence of Dr Makgetla as well as
all the medical and scientific reports and affidavits presented on
behalf of
Respondents that Mr Murgatroyd takes issue with, in
deciding whether the disputes of facts that arise from those
affidavits are
firstly, relevant and material to the test to be
applied and secondly, if so relevant, whether disputes between the
experts on
both sides are capable of resolution on the papers.
83.
In paragraph 37 of the answering affidavit, Second Respondent states
the following
concerning the expert report upon which she relied in
making the Impugned Regulations:
“
The December
Sentinel Report featured as a central element in the rationale for
the Impugned Regulations, which as I shall show,
established that
there is a clear and definitive correlation between alcohol
availability (which was halted by the temporary suspension)
and the
number of trauma/emergency cases. It followed from this that the
temporary suspension would have the effect of reducing
in significant
numbers – not negligible, as the Applicants state) – the
demands on hospitals, trauma and emergency
units. This correlation is
also demonstrated from what I say under the heading of “Impact
of the Temporary Suspension”.
The allegations in this section
of my affidavit will be confirmed by Dr Ismail, an author of the
December Sentinel Report
.”
84.
An example of the Applicants’ expert according more weight to
“
other factors”
by
describing those as more important without embarking upon a
statistical analysis of how much weight can be attributed to those
other factors, can be found in the passage from the RBB report quoted
below.
85.
First Applicant defers
to this report in replying to the aforementioned paragraph 37 of the
answering affidavit.
86.
Its author states the following:
“
The AA conflates
the concepts of correlation and cause/effect…However, in the
case at hand, there are evidently
other important factors
that
might
be expected to have an impact on trauma cases, either in
complete isolation or in combination with the consumption of
alcohol
.” (emphasis added)
87.
Throughout both RBB reports, Mr Murgatroyd advances the view that an
alcohol
ban cannot be construed as a significant or primary
explanation for a reduction in trauma cases because other restrictive
measures
are contributing factors. The corollary of that argument is
that it is likely that those other measures play a more significant
role in the reduction of trauma cases. One searches in vain in the
RBB report for any statistical or factual evidence that supports
the
assertion that the “
other factors”
are
indeed more
“important”
than
the temporary suspension of alcohol consumption.
88.
The RBB report opines that the evidence on the efficacy of the liquor
bans contained
in the answering affidavit is
not credible
because: “
it relies on
observed correlations between the implementation (or lifting) of the
bans and the number of trauma cases. In doing
so, this evidence
ignores the effect of other important lockdown measures, as well as
other factors, that, in and of themselves,
can be expected to affect
the number of trauma cases. Without disentangling the effects of
these other restrictions/factors, no
reliable inferences can be drawn
from the observed correlations… In addition, the limited
attempts made to try to isolate
the effect of the liquor bans from
other lockdown measures only account for a limited number of relevant
factors,
[and]
in turn,
ignore other key factors that can be expected to affect the level of
trauma cases. Thus, this evidence is also
unlikely
to be
probative
as to the effect of the liquor bans themselves.”
(emphasis added).
89.
The role of an expert witness must be confined to facts supported by
technical
and/or scientific information.
90.
It is not for an expert to provide an opinion on the credibility of
evidence
alleged by a litigant in his/her affidavit but to address
the extent to which he/she differs with the facts and views expressed
by the opposing party’s expert witnesses.
91.
It is also not the function of an expert witness to delve into the
probative
value of lay witnesses’ evidence.
92.
Opinion
evidence on facts that a court could and should decide for itself,
should not be admitted because it is more likely to be
superfluous
and cause confusion.
[27]
93.
Determinations on the credibility and probative value are findings
made by the
Court and counsel may advance argument based on why a
Court should or should not, as the case may be, make those
determinations
94.
The answering affidavit and the expert reports annexed thereto
clearly acknowledge
that other restrictions that operated with the
alcohol suspension would have contributed to a decrease in trauma
cases in hospitals.
95.
The court welcomes expert evidence that will elucidate the issues in
dispute
but that evidence has to set out a sound basis for opinions
offered.
96.
Speculative assertions by an expert witness are most unhelpful.
97.
Unsupported opinions by expert witnesses ought not to be accepted.
Relationship
between Alcohol Consumption and Healthcare Capacity
98.
There is a dispute of fact between the
parties concerning the nature and extent of the relationship between
alcohol consumption
and healthcare capacity.
99.
The RBB report on which Applicants rely and
which was filed only with the replying papers, states that:
“
The
main reason why correlation does not imply causation is that
correlation does not take into account other factors that may affect
the variable(s) of interest…”
100.
Despite the new matter raised in reply as outlined above, both
sides have fully ventilated the issues in dispute on the papers and
agreed to the filing of further affidavits.
101.
In paragraph 24 of the
founding affidavit, Applicants make the constant refrain in the
sub-paragraphs to paragraph 24 that: “
…the ban
on alcohol contributed, at most, very little, to the drop in trauma
cases”
and conclude in
paragraph 24.8 that:
“
The sale of
alcohol is not, in and of itself, the cause of movement and gathering
of people any more than any other activity (such
as funerals) is
.”
102.
It appears to be common cause that the availability of alcohol for
consumption is one contributing
factor to the increase in trauma
cases presenting at hospitals. Where the parties diverge, is on what
proportion of influence that
contributing factor should hold in
relation to other factors that formed a further curb, i.e. other
restrictive measures imposed
to manage the Covid-19 pandemic.
103.
The facts raised by the Second Respondent concerning the relationship
between alcohol consumption
and trauma cases are supported with
extensive expert reports and clinical observations reported to
researchers or data collectors
who incorporated it into their
findings, for example, in the following reports:
89.1 The Sentinel
reports;
89.2 Provincial
Health Department Reports;
89.3 The MAC
advice;
89.4 The Barron
study;
89.5 The SACMC
Epidemic Explorer report;
89.6 Dr Ismail’s
report;
89.7 Professor
Parry’s report to the MAC;
89.8 Professor
Myers’ evidence on binge drinking;
89.9 Professor
Abdool Karim’s evidence; and
89.10
Professor Matzopoulos’ report.
104.
The clinical observations of medical personnel cannot be diminished
to the extent that Applicants
suggest, for example, that breathalyser
tests ought to be used before concluding that patients have consumed
alcohol and to ignore
clinician reports on the ground of hearsay
evidence. Those observations were collated and expressed in the
report of Professor
Abdool Karim, the MAC and Sentinel reports.
105.
It is not reasonable to
suggest that clinicians cannot correctly observe whether a patient
has consumed excessive alcohol nor ought
they to rely on a patient’s
own explanation concerning the use of alcohol. That is an undue and
wholly unjustified criticism
of the valuable contribution of the
first line
modus operandi
adopted
by medical practitioners globally, namely, to first make clinical
observations and to take account of a patient’s
narrative.
106.
Applicants and respondents agree that alcohol serves as a social
lubricant.
107.
It follows therefore, that the availability of alcohol in restaurants
serves also as a social
lubricant.
108.
Applicants assert that the alcohol ban had an economically
devastating impact on restaurants
because patrons expect alcohol to
be available on request.
109.
Applicants argue that it would have been less harmful to the economy
to have tightened the other
measures/restrictions. One of those
measures are the conditions under which restaurants may operate with
regard to the number of
persons they may have in their establishments
as well as the implementation of social distancing, hours of
operation, wearing of
masks and physical hygiene measures.
110.
Applicants give scant consideration to the fact that the availability
of alcohol in restaurants
would surely also have made the enforcement
of social distancing and wearing of masks extremely difficult in
circumstances where
people had imbibed a ‘
social
lubricant”
thereby leading to
a reduction in inhibitions at a time when the “
other
measures”
are designed to
inhibit people in order to contain the spread of the virus.
111.
Applicants aver that the number of hospital beds and consequently
equipment, medical supplies
and healthcare workers saved, as a
consequence of the reduction in trauma cases, is minimal and is a
benefit that it is far outweighed
by the cost.
112.
In response to Applicants’ allegations that the economic cost
of the alcohol suspension
outweighs the benefit, Second Respondent
states in the answering affidavit at paragraph 339.8:
“
As regards the
impact on the fiscus and the taxes that are allegedly lost, I again
refer to the reports prepared by Dr Makgetla.
I reiterate that what
must be weighed against losses sustained are ultimately the cost to
this country if the health care system
is overwhelmed and thereby
debilitated and we are unable to contain the spread of the virus or
are forced to place everyone under
hard lockdown, again, to retard
the proliferation of the virus. These consequences will be so
devastating for South Africa that
everything possible must be done to
avoid such an outcome
.”
113.
Respondents therefore juxtapose with the economic costs to the liquor
and associated industries
suggested by Applicants,
the
economic cost to the entire country, including all industries. That
is a consideration that Applicants’ case appears to
lose sight
of.
114.
Respondents allege at least a saving of 9 trauma cases less per day
following the imposition
of the alcohol ban and state that, the
figure is significant as every life saved, is valuable.
115.
The Applicants’ allegation that the cost outweighs the benefit
also fails to take account
of the Respondents’ section 27 (3)
obligation under the Constitution which provides: “
(3)
No one may be refused emergency medical treatment.
”
116.
The difficulty with the RBB report is that it employs an exclusively
economic cost-benefit analysis
but in so doing, it does not take
account of the cost to employers and consequently to the economy, and
to employees who are away
from work due to quarantine, illness caused
by Covid-19 and death. Occupational Health and Safety legislation,
for example, is
designed to protect employees against illness and
injury for the purpose of having a healthy workforce, which in turn,
contributes
to productivity and that contributes to GDP and the
economy. The impact that absenteeism due to Covid-19 had on the
liquor industry,
the economy and GDP is not addressed by Mr
Murgatroyd and that omission is not explained in Applicants’
papers or argument.
117.
Applicants cannot seek
refuge in not bearing the
onus
to
justify the Impugned Regulations. The principle that he who alleges
must prove, remains intact where Applicants aver contributing
factors
that allegedly lead to the relationship between alcohol and trauma
becoming no more than correlation and not causation,
but Applicants
do so without any statistical specificity and express it in vague and
unsubstantiated terms.
118.
Additionally, Government had a duty to uphold the right to health
care and life, during the height
of the pandemic, in circumstances
where the virus had mutated into a variant that is 50% more
transmissible and where it caused
people that are asymptomatic to
also spread the virus. Government would have abdicated its
responsibility and duties in terms of
section 27 of the Constitution,
were it to have adopted a pure economic cost-benefit analysis in
managing the pandemic.
119.
There is no duty on Government to provide a scientifically and
statistically accurate set of
facts to prove that the consumption of
alcohol has a significant impact on the number of trauma cases
requiring medical attention.
It must demonstrate that there is a
rational connection between those factors and it is common cause that
there is a connection.
120.
The rationality of the Impugned Regulations have to be
connected
to the object of saving lives by
freeing up hospital space caused by trauma cases. That connection is
not required to be a statistically
accurate
causal connection
.
What is required is that on an objective consideration of the facts,
during the second alcohol ban, which is an experience that
Respondents rely on, and evidently, during the alcohol ban that is
the subject matter of these proceedings, there was a significant
reduction in hospitalisations associated with alcohol induced trauma,
injury or illness.
121.
All that Respondents have to demonstrate is that the decision to make
the Impugned Regulations
was rationally connected to the effect it
sought to achieve, and that it is consequently reasonable and
justifiable in an open
and democratic society based on
human
dignity, equality, freedom
as
attenuated, in the context of a global pandemic, on the principle of
individual autonomy having to yield to collective responsibility.
It
does demonstrate that the decision to apportion more weight to the
right to adequate healthcare in order to uphold the right
to life
than to the autonomy based rights and freedom to trade, is based on
the spirit, purport and ethos of
Ubuntu
.
122.
In this regard, I note that the RBB report uses the concept
“cause/effect” as though
they are alternatives, whereas
the Merriam-Webster dictionary meaning of ‘
cause
’
is
“
something
that brings about an effect or a result”
and
the meaning of ‘effect’ is
“
something
that inevitably follows an
antecedent
(such
as a cause or agent)”.
123.
A further inconsistency in the RBB report is that it criticises the
Respondents’ medical
expert reports for not providing
scientifically accurate statistics concerning the proportion of
decline in trauma cases attributable
to measures other than alcohol
restrictions, but then it does not make a statistical analysis of
what proportion of the financial
loss that First Applicant suffered
is attributable to other measures and what proportion is attributable
to the alcohol suspension.
124.
Applicants provide no legal basis upon which this Court should apply
causation as opposed to
correlation as the criterion for reasonable,
justifiable and rational decision-making, other than alleging that it
is irrational
and unjustifiable not to do so.
125.
Therefore, giving consideration to the need for a process of
disentangling the effect that other
restrictive measures had on
trauma case reductions in hospitals from the impact that the alcohol
ban had on trauma cases, is not
required because there is no legal
obligation on Respondents to provide accurate statistics that support
causation as opposed to
correlation.
126.
The stance adopted by Applicants concerning
the Respondents’ reliance on the correlation between alcohol
and trauma leads
to an unrealistic expectation being placed on
Respondents at the time when the second wave was current and
infections escalated
rapidly. It is an approach that also
unreasonably diminishes the value of scientific research and the
coalface experience of clinicians.
For example, in the replying
affidavit, the Applicants state that:
“
the
Government conducted no investigation, study or analysis of the
harmful effects associated with the alcohol ban….in the
absence of such a study it was simply not ;possible for the Second
Respondent to make the decision to reimpose the alcohol ban
on 29
December 2020 in a manner that was rational and that satisfied the
constitutional requirements for the incursion into rights
guaranteed
by the Constitution occasioned by such ban…The decision was
not truly polycentric because of the government’s
failure to
collect and analyse relevant data and evidence….
”
127.
Dr Parry who is the director of the
Alcohol, Tobacco and Other Drug Research Unit at the South African
Medical Research Council,
states that:
“
13.2.The
exercise that SAB seeks is a near impossibility particularly in times
of a crisis of unprecedented proportions. I say this
because, in
order to apply the model advanced by RBB, I would have to test the
approach in relation to each measure by singularly
imposing such
measure- without any other measure being in place- at a time when
trauma units are under stress for the purposes
of ascertaining
whether one measure is more effective than the other
.”
128.
Applicants challenge that assertion by Dr
Parry as follows:
‘
And
the difficulties articulated by Dr Parry in paragraph 13.2.are
ludicrously overstated. Instead of the repetitive mantra deployed
by
all the respondents’ expert witnesses in this case, that all
clinical DOCTORS (WHICH Dr Parry is not), know which of their
trauma
patients are under the influence of alcohol, they ought to have
devised some method including perhaps breathalysers, to
obtain
evidence. In the absence of even an attempt to obtain some objective
and scientific evidence of this nature, which cannot
be difficult,
their protestations are clearly self-serving and ring very low
.”
129.
Dr Ismail, who is a co-author of the
Sentinel Report, a report to which Second Respondent had regard in
deciding to make the Impugned
Regulations, states that the
Applicants’ response to Dr Parry’s raising of practical
difficulties that would be encountered
in embarking upon a
disentangling of other restrictive measures proposed by RBB does not
address the following:
“
The
RBB report ignores the departure point, which is
that alcohol plays a profound and
significant role in causing trauma presentations. This is a
well-known phenomenon as evidenced
by Anderson et al (2009), Hahn et
al (2010), Duailbi et al (2007), BARBOR ET AL (2010) and remains
undisputed even in times of
Covid. Furthermore it is the front-line
clinician experience, local trauma and forensic pathology
surveillance, national evidence,
and international peer- reviewed
evidence from a host of first world countries and the World Health
Organisation (WHO). Importantly,
according to the WHO’s report
on Alcohol and Injury in Emergency Departments it was found that 45%
of South African patients
presenting to Emergency Departments for
injuries reported that their injuries were related to alcohol
involvement.
(https:/www.who.int/substance_abuse/publications/alcohol_injury_summary.pdf)”
130.
Dr Makgetla addresses the
causal-correlation analysis proffered in the RBB report as well as
Applicants’ allegation that government
had sufficient time to
conduct a statistically accurate study of the causal relationship
between alcohol consumption and trauma
case, as follows:
“
The
RBB Report starts by asserting a standard for acceptable evidence to
justify measures to contain the pandemic. Specifically
it argues that
any measures must meet a proposed ideal proof of causality. To this
end, it cites basic text on the risks of simply
confusing causality
and correlation (RBB 2021:9) (and incidentally misquoting Woolridge
to bolster its claim). Its unnuanced declaration,
however, ignores
the critical importance of correlation. In both natural and social
sciences as an initial indication of a potential
causal relationship.
In addition, the RBB entirely ignores the extensive literature on
decision-making during public health emergencies,
when information,
time and resources for testing evidence are, by definition limited…
The practical shortcomings of a simplistic
demand for
incontrovertible proof of causality before implementing any policy
are heightened during a public health emergency.
Both the WHO and
European CDC, amongst others, have developed guidelines on the use of
evidence in these circumstances. ...In sum,
the WHO finds that public
health authorities have little choice but to make the best of the
available evidence, especially in the
early phases of a disease
outbreak resulting from a novel pathogen. That evidence may include
the experiences of medical health
personnel and other affected
people; available but imperfect or incomplete data; international
experience; and recommendations
by individual experts or relevant
institutions… While policies should ideally be accompanied by
a systematic review of the
supporting evidence ‘such formal
assessments may not be possible’ in every case (WHO 2017:25).
Moreover, in some instances,
the pressures of an emergency means that
logical extrapolation from known conditions may have to substitute
for direct evidence
(WHO 2017:26).
In
other words, causality may have to be inferred from a combination of
experience, logic, theory and the available information,
both
qualitative and quantity, because an emergency often does not leave
either time or resources to set up experiments or generate
statistics
suitable for rigorous analysis
.”
(emphasis added).
131.
Applicants assert, in further affidavits,
that the literature on the relationship between alcohol and trauma
cases is irrelevant
because it does not take account of other
restrictions imposed; that the experiences of clinicians with regard
to their clinical
observations of trauma patients that consumed
alcohol is unscientific and impermissible hearsay, although their
experiences form
part of the Sentinel Report’s research data
and that Dr Makgetla is not qualified to express an opinion on what
factors Government
ought to consider when implementing policy during
a public health emergency.
132.
There is no yardstick founded upon
established principles of law that requires Second Respondent to
provide reasonable and justifiable
explanations that encompasses
causality purely and no correlative factors.
Temporality of
Regulations challenge
133.
The temporality of the suspension of alcohol sales is challenged by
Applicants on the grounds
that the Regulations do not provide a
termination date for the suspension.
134.
The difficulty with that allegation is that the Regulations
themselves state that:
134.1.
They are made in terms of section 27(2) of the
DMA;
134.2.
They apply for the duration of Adjusted Alert
Level 3;
134.3.
Section 27(5) of the DMA provides for a National
State of Disaster to
endure for 3 months although it can be extended thereafter;
134.4.
The Regulations were preceded by a Power-Point
presentation made by
government to the liquor industry on 2 December 2020 in which graphs
were displayed showing a correlation
between a reduction in trauma
cases and the alcohol ban, albeit, on the Applicants’ version,
a misleading and unscientific
stance due to no account being taken of
restrictions on movement and gatherings. The Power-Point presentation
expressly refers
to previous alcohol restrictions and the relaxation
of those restrictions;
134.5.
The Applicants refer to the temporary suspension
of alcohol sales as
the third alcohol ban and detail two previous sets of restrictions on
the sale of alcohol, both of which were
subsequently relaxed. Both
were of temporary duration and made in terms of the DMA.
135.
In the light of the patently obvious temporal nature of the DMA, its
Regulations and the two
previous sets of alcohol restrictions, which
were of temporary duration, the Applicants’ assertion that they
had no grounds
for believing that the ban of alcohol would be of
limited duration cannot be accepted.
Constitutional
Rights argument
136.
Applicants allege that the Impugned Regulations violate consumers’
rights to choose to
purchase and consume alcohol for pleasure or to
relieve anxiety and in so doing, violate their rights to ;
136.1.
Dignity;
136.2.
Privacy; and
136.3.
Bodily and psychological integrity;
137.
Additionally, Applicants allege that people employed in the liquor
industry and those employed
in enterprises dependent on the liquor
industry (such as the Second and Third Applicants) have had their
rights to practice a trade
infringed as envisaged in section 22 of
the Constitution. Although counsel for the Second Respondent sought
to argue otherwise,
in
Esau
[28]
it was accepted that the regulations at issue there infringed section
22 rights and that this has a close and direct connection
to the
right to human dignity.
138.
Although Fourth Applicant asserts that the alcohol ban violated his
right to dignity, it is alleged
to do so because he (and other
individuals) are not free to choose whether to consume alcohol or not
and to use it,
inter alia
, as
a means of relaxation. It was submitted on behalf of the Second
Respondent that the infringement of the right to dignity was
only
temporary in nature, and the suggestion appears to have been that
therefore this was not a real infringement. That is no answer
to the
violation of a right as the jurisprudence makes clear. It is only
relevant to the second leg of the enquiry, namely justification.
139.
However, when people infected with Covid-19 are denied the
opportunity of being hospitalised
and receiving adequate health care,
their rights to dignity are also infringed in that they have to
endure the ravaging effects
of the virus in less than optimal
conditions, especially in the case of the majority of poor people in
this country, who already
lack sanitarily safe living conditions and
often live in overcrowded spaces.
140.
Applicants allege that healthcare facilities were already inadequate
before the pandemic and
that is a failure of Government that cannot
be addressed with the imposition of an alcohol ban. Applicants allege
further that
corruption in the health care sector’s procurement
processes is a further failure of Government to deliver adequate
healthcare
facilities.
141.
I accept that healthcare facilities in this country are by and large
inadequate to the extent
that they are not accessible to people in
every corner of South Africa and there are problems of sufficiency of
medical personnel,
equipment and supplies.
142.
The extent of the inadequacy and the extent to which corruption
contributed thereto is however
not fully canvassed in the papers and
this Court cannot make findings on those issues.
143.
What is abundantly clear, is that Respondents cannot refuse to put in
place immediate measures
required to free up hospital facilities and
save lives because allegations of corruption in the healthcare sector
are being investigated
and pursued. To do so, would amount to
endangering lives and governing in fear of polemics.
144.
Respondents have an obligation to address healthcare needs, subject
to section 27(2) of the Constitution
where it provides:
“(2)
The state must take reasonable legislative and
other measures, within its available resources, to achieve the
progressive realisation
of each of these rights.”
145.
Covid-19 has indeed
brought into sharp focus the failure of services and policies,
globally.
146.
Government is duty bound to make healthcare facilities available
during a National State of Disaster,
like Covid-19 and it cannot
simply refuse to do so, solely, for historical reasons of
insufficiency of resources.
147.
It is common cause that approximately 31% of South Africans consume
alcohol. Respondents present
expert evidence to show that a large
proportion of those persons consume alcohol in binges. The evidence
that gender based violence
(GBV) and physical violence is closely
associated with alcohol abuse cannot reasonably be gainsaid.
148.
Therefore, it is not the consumption of alcohol
per se
that
leads to overburdening of hospitals but the abuse of alcohol,
irrespective of whether it is abused by the victim of violence
or the
perpetrator.
149.
Applicants allege that robberies of businesses that sell alcohol,
lead to potential violent exchanges
and an increase in trauma cases
and conclude with the following remark: “
It is strange
that a Government that professes to desire to reduce trauma
presentations has created circumstances for precisely
that increase
and apparently without any consideration of this very foreseeable
consequence of the ban on alcohol.”
150.
By parity of reasoning, Applicants’ argument aforesaid means
that all potential violations
of Regulations made under section 27(2)
of the DMA are ”
foreseeable consequences”
and
therefore no restrictive measures ought to be imposed because they
can all lead to “
potential violent exchanges
.”
151.
Were Respondents to govern out of fear for the unintended consequence
of those violations, Government
would be abdicating its
constitutional and statutorily imposed responsibilities.
152.
Applicants make the allegation that: “
The presumption
that abuse of alcohol results in increased trauma admissions to
hospitals takes no sight of the fact that the overwhelming
majority
of adults who take alcohol do so, in moderation and not to a point
where they lose control or a social inhibition against
the use of
violence.”
Applicants do not
support that assertion of responsible behaviour attributed to “
the
overwhelming majority of adults”
with
any statistics or research results.
153.
Applicants aver that the ban
indiscriminately
affects
every single person at every level, including moderate drinkers. This
is indeed so, but I cannot conceptualise of constitutionally
sustainable alcohol restrictions that would distinguish between
moderate drinkers and those that drink excessively, nor is it for
the
Court to prescribe the crafting of such measures.
154.
Second Respondent demonstrates that she and the entire Cabinet were
mindful of the need to save
livelihoods, by the following allegation
in the answering affidavit :
“
The President
warned that these activities, if not managed responsibly, posed the
greatest immediate threat to our management of
the pandemic, which up
to then had been proceeding according to a plan that allowed for a
staggered lifting of lockdown restrictions
which was vital for an
economy that sorely needed a boost over the festive period.”
155.
It can therefore, not be reasonably contended that the Second
Respondent over-emphasised the
need to save lives and neglected her
duty to save livelihoods in making the Impugned Regulations.
156.
The polycentric nature of the Second Respondent’s decision to
make the Impugned Regulations
must also be considered. It is the
entire Cabinet sitting as the NCCC, together with the various tiers
of Government that are consulted
before Regulations are made in terms
of the DMA.
157.
In
Bato
Star
,
[29]
the Constitutional Court discussed the principle of judicial
deference as follows:
‘
[46]
In the SCA, Schutz JA held that this was a case which calls for
judicial deference. In explaining deference, he cited with
approval
Professor Hoexter’s account as follows:
“
[A]
judicial willingness to appreciate the legitimate and
constitutionally-ordained province of administrative agencies; to
admit
the expertise of those agencies in policy-laden or polycentric
issues; to accord their interpretations of fact and law due respect;
and to be sensitive in general to the interests legitimately pursued
by administrative bodies and the practical and financial constraints
under which they operate. This type of deference is perfectly
consistent with a concern for individual rights and a refusal to
tolerate corruption and maladministration. It ought to be shaped not
by an unwillingness to scrutinize administration action, but
by a
careful weighing up of the need for and the consequences of judicial
intervention. Above all, it ought to be shaped by a conscious
determination not to usurp the functions of administrative agencies;
not to cross over from review to appeal.”
(footnote
omitted)
Schutz JA continues to
say that “[j]udicial deference does not imply judicial timidity
or an unreadiness to perform the judicial
function”. I agree.
The use of the word “deference” may give rise to
misunderstanding as to the true function
of a review court. This can
be avoided if it is realised that the need for courts to treat
decision makers with appropriate deference
or respect flows not from
judicial courtesy or etiquette but from the fundamental
constitutional principle of the separation of
powers itself.
[47] This was also
recognised in a recent House of Lords judgment, R (on the application
of Pro Life Alliance) v British Broadcasting
Corporation. 33 In his
speech, Lord Hoffmann commented: “My Lords, although the word
‘deference’ is now very
popular in describing the
relationship between the judicial and the other branches of
government, I do not think that its overtones
of servility, or
perhaps gracious concession, are appropriate to describe what is
happening. In a society based upon the rule of
law and the separation
of powers, it is necessary to decide which branch of government has
in any particular instance the decision-making
power and what the
limits of that power are. That is a question of law and must
therefore be decided by the courts. This means
that the courts
themselves often have to decide the limits of their own
decision-making power. That is inevitable. But it does
not mean that
their allocation of decision-making power to the other branches of
government is a matter of courtesy or deference.
The principles upon
which decision-making powers are allocated are principles of law. The
courts are the independent branch of
government and the legislature
and executive are, directly and indirectly respectively, the elected
branches of government. Independence
makes the courts more suited to
deciding some kinds of questions and being elected makes the
legislature or executive more suited
to deciding others. The
allocation of these decision-making responsibilities is based upon
recognised principles. . . . [W]hen
a court decides that a decision
is within the proper competence of the legislature or executive, it
is not showing deference. It
is deciding the law.”
[48] In treating the
decisions of administrative agencies with the appropriate respect, a
court is recognising the proper role of
the executive within the
Constitution. In doing so a court should be careful not to attribute
to itself superior wisdom in relation
to matters entrusted to other
branches of government. A court should thus give due weight to
findings of fact and policy decisions
made by those with special
expertise and experience in the field. The extent to which a court
should give weight to these considerations
will depend upon the
character of the decision itself, as well as on the identity of the
decision-maker. A decision that requires
an equilibrium to be struck
between a range of competing interests or considerations and which is
to be taken by a person or institution
with specific expertise in
that area must be shown respect by the courts. Often a power will
identify a goal to be achieved, but
will not dictate which route
should be followed to achieve that goal. In such circumstances a
court should pay due respect to the
route selected by the
decision-maker. This does not mean however that where the decision is
one which will not reasonably result
in the achievement of the goal,
or which is not reasonably supported on the facts or not reasonable
in the light of the reasons
given for it, a court may not review that
decision. A court should not rubber-stamp an unreasonable decision
simply because of
the complexity of the decision or the identity of
the decision-maker.
[49]
Section 2 of the Act requires the decision-maker to have regard to a
range of factors which are to some extent in tension.
It is clear
from this that Parliament intended to confer a discretion upon the
relevant decision-maker to make a decision in the
light of all the
relevant factors. That decision must strike a reasonable equilibrium
between the different factors but the factors
themselves are not
determinative of any particular equilibrium. Which equilibrium is the
best in the circumstances is left to the
decision-maker.
The
court’s task is merely to determine whether the decision made
is one which achieves a reasonable equilibrium in the circumstances
.”
(emphasis added)
Freedom to Trade
Rights
158.
In considering the extent to which the Impugned Regulations are
alleged to have impacted upon
the Right to Trade freely, subject to
regulation by law, as alleged by Applicants, the following are
relevant.
159.
Section 22 of the Constitution guarantees the right in the following
terms:
“
Every
citizen has the right to choose their trade, occupation or profession
freely. The practice of a trade, occupation or profession
may be
regulated by law.
”
160.
There
exists a plethora of legislation and regulations that regulate the
practice of trade, careers and professions. The right is
also
subject, as are most Constitutional rights, to the limitation in
section 36. The right is accordingly not an absolute one.
161.
The
DMA, as outlined earlier, already made provision for the protection
and managing of lives and livelihoods at the stage of its
promulgation.
162.
The
Second Respondent expresses an acute awareness of her duty to balance
considerations of protecting lives with those of conserving
livelihoods in her answering affidavit.
163.
In
a situation of a National Health Disaster, like Covid-19, there
invariably will be a need for Government to embark on a balancing
exercise that involves trade-offs and the sacrificing of livelihoods
to save lives.
164.
First
Applicant makes overbroad and sweeping allegations of the loss of
employment occasioned by the 5-week alcohol suspension under
consideration without providing statistics concerning actual job
losses directly attributable to the Impugned Regulations. At best,
in
the founding affidavit, Applicants say: “
An
impact assessment
estimates
job losses in consequences of the two previous alcohol bans,
perhaps
reaching
up to 165 000 jobs lost
.”
(emphasis added).
165.
To
the extent that First Applicant relies on estimates of job losses in
the alcohol industry, it is notable that trade unions representing
erstwhile employees who either lost their jobs or those who actually
lost their employment and those who are at risk of losing
their jobs,
have not joined these proceedings nor was reference made to any legal
proceedings brought by them.
166.
Second Applicant states that she laid off 6 of her 8 employees as a
result not only of complete
alcohol suspensions but also because of
alcohol trading hour restrictions. She regrettably did not mention in
her founding affidavit
whether she utilised the Corona Virus
Temporary Employer-Employee Relief Scheme (TERS) system available to
her to mitigate the
economic loss to her erstwhile employees.
167.
Respondents allege that the suspension was necessary in order to
ultimately save lives, was temporary
in nature, production, bottling
and transportation of alcohol for export consumption was not
suspended, therefore trade in that
sphere could continue and the
impact on employees in the liquor trade as well as in other sectors,
could be somewhat mitigated
by TERS grants.
Rights to Dignity
and Privacy
168.
Section 10 of the Constitution provides as follows:
“
Everyone
has inherent dignity and the right to have their dignity respected
and protected
.”
169.
Section 14 of the Constitution provides:
‘
Everyone
has the right to privacy, which includes the right not to have -
(a)
their person or home searched;
(b)
their property searched;
(c)
their possessions seized; or
(d)
the privacy of their communications infringed
.’
170.
I do not find any prohibition in the
Impugned Regulations on persons who find themselves in the position
of the Fourth Applicant
who consumes alcohol in his home, provided he
already had it in his home. It is so that he may have been precluded
from acquiring
it for the duration of the ban because of Government’s
decision not to give advance notice, but in reality that is the
extent
to which the Regulations impact upon his choice to exercise
autonomy privately.
171.
Applicants contend that the Impugned
Regulations violate the right to dignity by taking away consumers’
rights to choose to
purchase and consume liquor, by leaving employees
without the means to ply a trade of their choice in circumstances
where employment
provides dignity, and to deny consumers, like Fourth
Applicant the right to relax and unwind by consuming alcohol in the
privacy
of his home.
172.
Respondents allege that the limitation is
temporary and a small sacrifice for consumers to make in the broader
scheme of saving
lives.
173.
Applicants
rely on the case of
Barkhuizen
[30]
for the proposition that dignity encompasses human autonomy and the
right to make one’s own decisions even if harmful to
oneself.
174.
What the Constitutional Court went on to
say in paragraph 57 of
Barkhuizen
’s
case underscores the context in which the statement was made that
human autonomy impacts upon human dignity, namely: “
T
he
extent to which the contract was freely and voluntarily concluded is
clearly a vital factor as it will determine the weight that
should be
afforded to the values of freedom and dignity
.”
175.
Applicants
also rely on the case of
Somali
Association
[31]
for the argument that the right to trade and work is a self-standing
right that implicates the right to dignity as well.
176.
In the
context of refugees and asylum seekers, the Supreme Court of Appeal
held that they have a right to self-employment rather
than face
starvation and have their dignity impaired.
177.
The Bill
of Rights in fact entrenches and guarantees the concept of human
autonomy and freedom of choice in various spheres of life,
however,
the existence of Covid-19 with its mutations and variants have
compelled Governments globally to limit human autonomy
in the
interests of saving lives and limiting the harm caused by the
pandemic.
178.
I accept
that being productively employed provides people with a sense of
purpose, economic independence and dignity and conversely,
not being
employed, impairs dignity.
179.
Dignity
is however a more composite concept than just having the freedom to
implement one’s own decisions, even if they might
be considered
foolhardy. As the Constitutional Court has pointed out in
Makwanyane
,
[32]
dignity extends also to how one dies. That judgment thus places the
relationship between the right to life and the right to dignity
in
proper perspective.
180.
In the
context of a global pandemic, if those who drink alcohol to excess
and cause harm to themselves and/or others as a result
were permitted
to continue to exercise autonomous decisions, even where those
decisions lead to situations where other people cannot
have access to
adequate healthcare facilities and have to suffer the ravages of
Covid-19 and die unseemly, often in squalor, without
medical
treatment, then that autonomy violates the rights to dignity of those
denied access to hospitals. It is that assertion
of individual rights
and freedoms at the expense of the collective populace i.e. the
horizontal application of rights, that Respondents
describe as
lacking in
Ubuntu.
Right
to bodily and psychological integrity
181.
Section 12 (2) of the Constitution
provides:
“
Everyone
has the right to bodily and psychological integrity, which includes
the right -
(a)
to make decisions concerning
reproduction;
(b)
to security in and control over
their body; and
(c)
not to be subjected to medical or
scientific experiments without their informed consent.
”
182.
Once again, the Applicants contend that the
Fourth Applicant’s rights and those of others were infringed
because their autonomy
to make decisions concerning what, when and
how they consume alcohol were being restricted unduly.
183.
Applicants
rely on the case of
Hofmeyer
[33]
for the proposition that
absolute rights of personality include a person’s right to
bodily integrity with a mental element.
There can be no reasonable
grounds on which to differ with that proposition, save to state that
the case concerned the 1988 detention
without trial of an individual
in a pre-Constitutional era and the court was called upon to
determine the legislative justification
for imposing solitary
confinement in a prison.
184.
The weighing up of the applicants’
right to bodily integrity against the rights of people who had become
infected with Covid-19
and are unable to be treated in hospitals
because of the high number of trauma cases means that once again the
horizontal application
of rights has to be managed during a National
State of Disaster by the State.
185.
In
Makwanyane,
the Constitutional Court said the following concerning the
relationship between the right to life and other human rights
guaranteed
in the Constitution, albeit with reference to the interim
Constitution:
“
Death
is the most extreme form to which a convicted criminal can be
subjected. Its execution is final and irrevocable. It puts an
end not
only to the right to life itself, but to all other personal rights
which had vested in the deceased under Chapter Three
of the
Constitution. It leaves nothing except the memory in others of what
has been and the property that passes to the deceased’s
heirs…”
186.
At paragraph 39, the Constitutional Court in
Makwanyane
,
cognisant of the limitation provision contained in section 33 of the
interim Constitution, which is the predecessor to section
36 of the
1996 Constitution, states that:
“
Our
Constitution expresses the right to life in an unqualified form, and
prescribes the criteria that have to be met for the limitation
of
entrenched rights, including the prohibition of legislation that
negates the essential content of an entrenched right…”
187.
At
paragraph 145 in
Makwanyane
,
the Constitutional Court stated the following:
“
The
rights to life and dignity are the most important of all human
rights, and the source of all other personal rights in Chapter
Three.
By committing ourselves to a society founded on the recognition of
human rights we are required to value these two rights
above all
others. And this must be demonstrated by the State in everything that
it does, including the way it punishes criminals.”
188.
Although
the
International
Covenant on Civil and Political Rights allows for suspension of
rights in times of public emergency that threatens
the life of a
nation, Article 6 affirms the primacy of the right to life as
follows:
“
Every
human being has the inherent right to life. This right shall be
protected by law…”
189.
It is axiomatic that without the right to life, all the other
Constitutional rights hold very
little substance, for once the right
to life is upheld and protected, closely associated rights that
impact on the quality of life
such as the rights to dignity, privacy,
bodily and psychological integrity, choosing a career, profession or
trade, can be engaged.
In that sense, the right to life is an
enabling,
sine qua non
and
primary right, without which the ‘
quality of life
rights’
have limited efficacy.
190.
Section 7(2) of the Constitution provides: “
(2)
The state must respect, protect, promote and fulfil the rights in the
Bill of Rights.”
191.
In the context of a global pandemic where scientific knowledge about
its impact is ever evolving,
the section 7(2) positive obligation of
Government must be exercised with due regard to weighing competing
interests against one
another, while ensuring that the primary
constitutional right to life is not unduly compromised or negated,
for without upholding
that right, the remaining rights have limited
value.
192.
With reference to the Minister‘s understanding of her duty to
balance against lives, livelihoods,
and to consider less restrictive
means, the following in the answering affidavit is relevant:
“
Cabinet was alive
to the fact that the temporary suspension would once again affect
livelihoods in certain sectors of the economy.
Despite the temporary
suspension being imposed, we recognise that the liquor industry is a
major employer and an important contributor
to the South African
economy. Also, that it would impact on the restaurant trade once
again, despite our earlier efforts to relax
the restrictions in
relation to sit-down meals at restaurants. Inevitably some sectors
would be affected more gravely than others.
This, however, had to be
balanced against the priority at the time, which was to save lives
and ensure capacity of the health system,
In addition, consideration
was given to imposing restrictions on certain provinces and not
others but as the pandemic is fluid
and capable of changing rapidly,
it was unlikely that all the provinces would not be affected. …
as the overall situation
deteriorated and given the increase in
infections, it was not feasible to designate hotspots as had been
done a few weeks previously
and leave parts of the country
unaffected. The entire country had become a hotspot.”
193.
The Second Respondent recognises in the answering affidavit, that in
mediating competing rights
and interests, that proportionality
exercise has to balance against vital rights to life and adequate
healthcare, rights that involve
freedom of choice (including the
right to trade). Second Respondent expressly refers to the
sacrificing of those individual freedoms
as being in the interests of
the common good, which she says represents the spirit of
Ubuntu
.
194.
Despite Applicants’ counsel stating during oral argument that
he appreciated the important
function that Government had to fulfil
and that he does not underestimate the role of Government in managing
the effects of the
pandemic, Applicants do not appear to accept the
need to sacrifice individual rights in the interests of the common
good. Instead,
Applicants assert that all the violations of rights of
individuals complained of, are equally important. The consequential
impact
of that stance is demonstrated by Applicants’ replying
papers in which Applicants reject Second Respondent’s assertion
that it was necessary to sacrifice economic success in order to save
hospital facilities so that lives could be saved. Applicants
in their
papers, challenge Respondents as having made Regulations that are not
necessary nor rationally connected to the purpose
sought to be
achieved, nor were they allegedly, reasonable and justifiable, First
Applicant concludes in the replying affidavit
that: “ …
There
are about 200 private hospitals in South Africa. When 5000 is divided
by 580 (i.e. 380 public hospitals plus 200 private hospitals),
the
saving is less than 9 patients per hospital per week…This is
the only benefit of the alcohol prohibition on which the
Minister
relies
.” Therefore, Applicants
contend that the saving of hospital beds after the Impugned
Regulations were made are insignificant
and the Impugned Regulations
were not necessary.
195.
In
Esau
,
[34]
the Supreme Court of Appeal opined as follows concerning the objects
of the DMA and the consequential limitation occasioned by
regulatory
restrictions on,
inter
alia
,
the right to choose a trade as follows:
“
[131]
The purposes of reg 16 and reg 28 was to keep the pandemic under
control and to save lives, while at the same time allowing
more
social and economic activity than hitherto. The DMA anticipated that
in the case of some disasters at least, drastic action
would have to
be taken. For this reason, it specifically empowered the making of
far-reaching and invasive regulations, including
‘the
regulation of movement of persons’ and ‘other
steps’ if these measures were necessary for
purposes,
inter alia, of ‘dealing with the destructive and other effects
of the disaster’.
[
132]
At its most basic, the purpose of the limitation of the fundamental
right to freedom of movement and of trade, occupation and
profession
was the protection of the health and lives of the entire populace in
the face of a pandemic that has cost thousands
of lives and has
infected hundreds of thousands of people. In a sense, there has been
something akin to a trade-off: the rights
to freedom of movement, to
dignity and to pursue a livelihood were limited to prevent the spread
of Covid-19 and that, in turn,
protected the right to life of many
thousands of people, who would have died had the disease had the
opportunity to run unchecked
through the country.”
196.
The Impugned Regulations were made in the middle of the second wave
of the Covid-19 pandemic
in South Africa. At that stage, the
following restrictions were already in place as part of those
applicable to Alert Level 3,
namely:
196.1.
From 18 September 2020 to 3 December 2020, the
sale of liquor for
off-site consumption, excluding duty free shops, wineries and wine
farms was permitted only from 10am to 6pm
Mondays to Thursdays,
excluding public holidays, while on-site consumption at licensed
premises was permitted on all days subject
to curfew restrictions;
196.2.
On 3 December 2020 on-site consumption was not
permitted in hotspots;
196.3.
The curfew had changed from being between 22h00
and 4am to 21h00 to
6am;
196.4.
Social gatherings were limited to 50 people
indoors;
196.5.
Beaches were closed, save for those that were
not located in
hotspots.
197.
What the aforementioned list of
restrictions that were in place immediately before 28 December 2020
demonstrates, is that the Second
Respondent did implement less
restrictive means first in order to attempt to achieve the desired
outcome, yet the number of hospital
admissions continued to rise.
198.
Section 39(1)(a) of the Constitution
provides an instructive paradigm within which rights must be
interpreted. It states:
“
When
interpreting the Bill of Rights, a court, tribunal or forum must
promote the values that underlie an open and democratic society
based
on human dignity, equality and freedom.”
199.
In interpreting the Bill of Rights, this
Court is compelled to act in conformity with section 39(2) of the
Constitution, which reads
as follows: “
When
interpreting any legislation, and when developing the common law or
customary law, every court, tribunal or forum must promote
the
spirit, purport and objects of the Bill of Rights
”.
200.
That
interpretation must therefore take account of the rights to bodily
and psychological integrity of the collective populace that
could be
infringed if applicants were allowed to exercise their individual
rights at the expense of the collective.
201.
As Second
Respondent alleges, she had to make uncomfortable trade-offs in
deciding to make the Impugned Regulations, namely, weigh
against the
freedom of Applicants to trade and consume alcohol, the physical harm
to those infected with SARS-CoV-2 and the detriment
to the economy if
a hard lockdown would result from the proliferation of alcohol
induced trauma cases.
Necessity in
section 27(3) of the DMA
202.
Applicants call upon this Court to adopt a
strict and narrow interpretation of the word “
necessary
”
in section 27(3) of the DMA.
203.
Once again, Applicants challenge the
Respondents’ reason for imposing the Impugned Regulations,
namely to release alcohol
related trauma case pressure on the
healthcare system immediately on the ground that it was not necessary
to achieve a reduction
in pressure on trauma related
hospitalizations.
204.
Underpinning that argument, is Applicants’
expert, Mr Murgatroyd’s assertion that Respondents relied on a
correlation
between alcohol consumption and trauma cases and not on
causation, which could allegedly only be established by disentangling
from
the alcohol restrictions, other measures imposed at the time,
such as extended curfew hours, prohibition on inter provincial
travel,
limitation on number of persons allowed at social gatherings
and closure of certain businesses.
205.
Applicants’ challenge is based on
allegations that the expert witnesses of Respondents failed to
present reliable and credible
evidence that alcohol measures alone,
excluding other restrictive measures, bring down the number of trauma
cases that present
at hospitals and therefore the findings of those
expert witnesses are allegedly flawed because they conflate
correlation with causation.
206.
Applicants go on to allege that it is
irrational for Respondents not to have first established what effect
the alcohol ban had on
trauma cases, over and above other restrictive
measures that were in place at the time.
207.
According to Applicants, the failure to
have done so, led Respondents to overstate the impact of the alcohol
ban on trauma cases.
That argument impacts on the Respondents’
proportionality exercise, the rationality test and the enquiry of
necessity in
terms of section 27(3) of the DMA.
208.
Regulation-making powers in the DMA afford
the executive wide ranging authority to enable the protection of
lives, property, livelihoods
and management of the destruction and
devastation that could result from a disaster.
209.
Therefore, the limitation of “
only
to the extent necessary
” for
achieving the objects set out in the DMA is a salutary one which
balances against the need for wide ranging executive
powers required
to manage a disaster, the protection of the rights, principles,
norms, standards, values and ethos of a constitutional
democracy
founded upon the principle of legality and based on substantive
justice and equality.
210.
I am fortified in the conclusion that the
words: “
to the extent necessary
”
represent an express limitation built into the DMA for the exercise
of regulation making powers by the relevant Minister,
in light of
what is set out below.
211.
In
Esau
[35]
,
the Supreme Court of Appeal considered the restrictions placed on
regulation making provided for in the DMA as being the following:
“
[14]
In the event of a national disaster befalling the country,
s
27(1)
vests
powers in a designated minister, by notice in the Government
Gazette, to declare a national state of disaster. He or
she may only
do so, however, if one of two preconditions is present: if ‘
existing
legislation and contingency arrangements do not adequately provide
for the national executive to deal effectively with
the disaster; or
if ‘other special circumstances warrant the declaration of a
national state of disaster’
.
[15]
After a national disaster has been declared, the designated minister
may, in terms of
s
27(2)
,
‘make regulations or issue directions or authorise the issue of
directions’ concerning a range of issues that include:
‘the
release of any available resources of the national government,
including stores, equipment, vehicles and facilities’; the
implementation of any national disaster management plan that may
exist; the evacuation of people to temporary shelters
if
this is necessary to
preserve lives the ‘regulation of the movement of persons
and goods to, from or within the disaster-stricken or threatened
area’; the ‘suspension or limiting of the sale,
dispensing or transportation of alcoholic beverages in the
disaster-stricken
or threatened area’; emergency
procurement procedures; and the ‘facilitation of response and
post-disaster recovery
and rehabilitation’.
Section
27(2)
(n)
is
a general empowerment. It allows for regulation-making for purposes
of ‘other steps that may be necessary to prevent an
escalation
of the disaster, or to alleviate, contain and minimise the effects of
the disaster’.
[16]
Two further express curbs are placed on the regulation-making powers
of the designated minister. First, in terms of
s
27(2)
,
he or she is
required
to consult with the ‘responsible Cabinet member’ before
making regulations that bear on that minister’s
portfolio
.
So, for instance, before making a regulation concerning emergency
procurement procedures, he or she must consult with the Minister
of
Finance. Secondly, in terms of
s
27(3)
,
his
or her regulation-making power may only be exercised to the extent
necessary to achieve certain stated purposes
.
There are five permissible purposes. They are:
‘
(a)
assisting and protecting the public;
(b)
providing relief to the public;
(c)
protecting property;
(d)
preventing or combating disruption; or
(e)
dealing with the destructive and other effects
of the disaster
.’ ”
(emphasis added)
212.
In
Endumeni’
s
[36]
case it was made clear that the approach to interpretation should not
only be holistic with due regard being had to context but
also to the
purpose for which the provision was made. The Supreme Court of Appeal
expressed the new approach to interpretation
thus:
“
[18]
Over the last century there have been significant developments in the
law relating to the interpretation of documents, both
in this country
and in others that follow similar rules to our own. It is
unnecessary to add unduly to the burden of annotations
by trawling
through the case law on the construction of documents in order to
trace those developments. The relevant authorities
are collected and
summarised in Bastian Financial Services (Pty) Ltd v General
Hendrik Schoeman Primary School. The present
state of the law can be
expressed as follows. Interpretation is the process of attributing
meaning to the words used in a document,
be it legislation, some
other statutory instrument, or contract, having regard to the context
provided by reading the particular
provision or provisions in the
light of the document as a whole and the circumstances attendant upon
its coming into existence.
Whatever the nature of the document,
consideration must be given to the language used in the light of the
ordinary rules of grammar
and syntax; the context in which the
provision appears; the apparent purpose to which it is directed and
the material known to
those responsible for its production. Where
more than one meaning is possible each possibility must be weighed in
the light of
all these factors. The process is objective not
subjective. A sensible meaning is to be preferred to one that leads
to insensible
or unbusinesslike results or undermines the apparent
purpose of the document. Judges must be alert to, and guard against,
the temptation
to substitute what they regard as reasonable, sensible
or businesslike for the words actually used. To do so in regard to a
statute
or statutory instrument is to cross the divide between
interpretation and legislation. In a contractual context it is to
make a
contract for the parties other than the one they in fact made.
The ‘inevitable point of departure is the language of the
provision itself’, read in context and having regard to
the purpose of the provision and the background to the preparation
and production of the document.”
(footnotes
omitted)
213.
In accordance with
Endumeni
,
a Court has to approach the interpretation of section 27(3) with
simultaneous regard to the express words used, the context of
the DMA
read as a whole, its purpose and whether the interpretation contended
for would lead to a sensible outcome as opposed to
an insensible one.
214.
Respondents
in
casu
are alive to the fact that the
Impugned Regulations had a substantially negative impact on
livelihoods for those employed in the
liquor industry or who depend
on the full functionality of the liquor industry, although they hold
the view that Applicants overstate
those negative consequences.
Respondents aver, with reference to extensive medical and scientific
evidence, reports received from
healthcare workers who were on the
frontline of fighting the adverse consequences of the pandemic, and a
specific appeal from the
Western Cape Premier himself, that they had
to weigh against saving livelihoods, the section 27 constitutional
imperative
of providing adequate healthcare with immediate effect at
that time and in so doing, save lives.
215.
Mindful that the onus to prove a
justification for making the Impugned Regulations rests on
Respondents, once they have alleged
a constitutionally sanctioned
purpose in making the Impugned Regulations, Applicants
in
casu
ought to gainsay that alleged
purpose with reference to facts supporting the contention that the
Respondents exceeded the bounds
of necessity. In so doing, Applicants
cannot challenge the Respondents’ justification and rationale
purely on the basis of
an economic cost benefit analysis, for to do
so is to overlook Respondents’ constitutional duty to act in
the interests of
upholding the constitutional right to life in the
context of the legislative obligation under the DMA to save lives.
216.
Section 27(3) of the DMA provides that the
Second Respondent may only exercise the powers set out in section 27
(2) to the extent
that it is necessary for achieving the purposes set
out in section 27(3), namely to assist, protect and provide relief to
the public;
protect property and prevent or combat disruption or to
deal with other devastating effects of a disaster. As the Supreme
Court
of Appeal put it in
Esau
at
[58]:
“
The
COGTA Minister is empowered by s 27 of the DMA to make
regulations. She may not make any regulations that take her fancy
because she does not have an unfettered discretion, which is a
contradiction in terms in a constitutional state. Section 26 and
s 27
both place significant limits on her powers.”
217.
The pandemic placed a strain on the
healthcare services of not only a developing country like South
Africa, but also on those services
of first world, better resourced
and developed countries.
218.
Restrictions that
prima
facie
appear to limit constitutional
freedoms to work, to dignity, privacy and to move as they please in
those countries were also imposed,
as they were in South Africa.
219.
Most developed countries did not impose a
full-scale alcohol ban as Second Respondent did, but those countries
do not necessarily
have alcohol abuse or binge drinking and related
trauma cases on a scale that South Africa has.
220.
As Professor Matzopoulos noted: “
Alcohol
is a well-established risk factor for injuries and the causal
relationship is well established. As pointed out by Prof Parry
in his
affidavit, alcohol satisfies most of the Bradford Hill criteria for
causation… It is important to note that alcohol
has indeed
been included as a risk factor for injuries in all the comparative
risk assessments for global burden of disease studies
as well as the
South African comparative risk assessments
…
South Africa has a particular problem
with binge drinking, which is most prevalent on weekends at which
injury rates are at their
highest
.”
221.
Professor Matzopoulos relies on several
studies cited, to support his assertion of the well-established
nature of risk factors for
alcohol related injuries described above.
222.
The UCT-STELLENBOSCH UNIVERSITY-SAMRC
discussion paper or “Barron study”, as it is referred to,
was authored in November
2020 but only published widely in January
2021, albeit,
ex post facto
,
concerning the second alcohol ban. It confirms the extent of the
alcohol abuse problem in South Africa and the impact that it
has on
mortality rates.
223.
While the mortality rates may appear to the
Applicants to be insignificant to the reason offered by the Second
Respondent for the
making of the Impugned Regulations, they are in
fact not insignificant. The mortality statistics demonstrate that
fatal injury
or illness often follow alcohol abuse.
224.
While the Second Respondent did not make
the Impugned Regulations with the specific purpose of reducing
mortality rates caused by
alcohol consumption, the Barron study, as
it is referred to in the papers, provides an ongoing assessment tool
that the WHO recommends
governments adopt in evaluating the
restrictions imposed to curb the spread of the virus, and which the
Second Respondent states
would have given her cause to amend the
Impugned Regulations had it presented an outcome of no significant
relationship between
alcohol consumption and trauma cases.
225.
The purpose of the WHO’s
recommendation of subsequent assessment, is to determine whether
measures employed to contain the
spread of COVID-19 remain relevant
and necessary to ensure improvement over time through engagement with
stakeholders as well as
ongoing research.
226.
The Barron study therefore demonstrates
that alcohol consumption leads to an increase in mortality rates,
which means that people
become fatally ill or injured as a result of
excessive alcohol consumption, including by others. It is reasonable
to infer that
some of the fatalities recorded in the study were
preceded by trauma related hospitalisation.
227.
If the validity of the Impugned Regulations
are to be considered by this Court despite their mootness on the
grounds that it impacts
on the infringement of rights and will have
implications for alleged future transgressions, then what is being
contemplated, is
this Court adopting a forward-looking, “
crystal
ball”
approach to possible future
violations of rights. In so doing, it must therefore be open to this
Court to have regard to all the
available expert evidence placed
before it in this matter, including reports that were published
subsequent to the Impugned Regulations.
228.
In
both
FITA
[37]
and
BATSA
[38]
the courts considered the meaning of ‘
necessary’
for purposes of s 27(3) of the DMA. They reached different
conclusions.
FITA
found that ‘
necessary’
means ‘
reasonably
necessary’
whereas
BATSA
found that it means ‘
strictly
necessary’
.
229.
The judgment in
FITA
was handed down on 26 June 2020 and
BATSA
on 11 December 2020. Both were thus delivered before the Supreme
Court of Appeal decision in
Esau
on 28 January 2021. It appears that the latter decision did not deal
in specific terms with whether or not ‘
necessary’
means ‘
reasonably
necessary’
or ‘
strictly
necessary’
since it does not
appear to have been an issue before it. The intended appeal against
the
FITA
judgment was subsequently withdrawn, while the appeal in BATSA is
currently pending before the Supreme Court of Appeal.
230.
To my mind, it is not required of us, for
present purposes, to determine which of the tests in
FITA
and
BATSA
are correct. In
Esau
at [140] the Supreme Court of Appeal authoritatively stated that
‘
Drastic measures were required
and an excess of caution was called for, especially given the limited
knowledge about Covid-19, even
among experts in the field of
epidemiology…’.
Having
regard to the facts and expert evidence in this case, I am persuaded
that the imposition of the temporary alcohol ban was
essential given
the exigencies that applied to the imperative of saving lives and
therefore, it was made “only to the extent
necessary”.
The
ultra vires
challenge
231.
Applicants allege that because section 26
(2)(b) of the DMA clothes the Second Respondent only with the power
to:
“…
deal with a national
disaster (b) in terms of existing legislation and contingency
arrangements as
augmented
by
regulations or directions made or issued in terms of section 27 (2),
if a national state of disaster has been declared)”
(emphasis added), she therefore acted beyond the
authority vested in her by the DMA in making the Impugned Regulations
because they
amended the Liquor Act and did not augment it.
232.
Second Respondent answers that the Impugned
Regulations: “…
supplement
and/or extend and/or amplify and/or intensify the provisions and
objects of the legislation.”
233.
Second Respondent contends that section 26
(2) of the DMA contemplates a situation where existing legislation
will not suffice in
providing a legislative basis for managing a
national state of disaster, hence it authorises the making of
Regulations to achieve
the objects of the DMA.
234.
In
Smit
[39]
the Constitutional Court held that:
‘
[35] The
Legislature may not assign
plenary
legislative power to another body, including the power to amend the
statute. Subordinate legislation is one not enacted by Parliament.
In Executive Council, this Court said:
“
There
is nothing in the Constitution which prohibits Parliament from
delegating subordinate regulatory authority to other bodies.
The
power to do so is necessary for effective law making. It is implicit
in the power to make laws for the country, and I have
no doubt that
under our Constitution Parliament can pass legislation delegating
such legislative functions to other bodies.
There
is, however, a difference between delegating authority to make
subordinate legislation within the framework of a statute under
which
the delegation is made, and assigning plenary power to another body.
”
(emphasis
added)
235.
It is therefore not impermissible for the
legislature, as it has done in section 26 of the DMA, to delegate to
the Second Respondent
the power to augment existing legislation where
same does not provide for meeting the objects of the DMA.
236.
In
Esau
[40]
the Supreme Court of Appeal expressed reservations about the
soundness of the Appellants’ argument in that case that the
Minister may not amend existing legislation in terms of the DMA as
follows:
“
[58]
The COGTA Minister is empowered by s 27 of the DMA to make
regulations. She may not make any regulations that take her fancy
because she does not have an unfettered discretion, which is a
contradiction in terms in a constitutional state. Section 26 and
s 27
both place significant limits on her powers.
[59] It was argued by
the appellants that the level 4 regulations were invalid because they
did not augment existing legislation,
as required by s 26(2)(b) of
the DMA, but purported to amend legislation, and that the COGTA
Minister strayed beyond the purposes
permitted in terms of s 27(2).
[60]
I have my doubts as to the
correctness of these arguments on the facts of this case understood
in their proper context but I do
not intend to traverse those issues
.
These challenges fail for a more fundamental reason. In motion
proceedings, applicants are required to make out their case in
their
founding affidavit and may not make out their case in reply. These
challenges were not raised in the founding affidavit,
but only in the
replying affidavit, with the result that the respondents had no
opportunity to answer them.”
(emphasis
added)
237.
I accept that the Second Respondent may not
amend existing legislation in terms of the DMA. She must however
augment existing legislation
to the extent that it is necessary, in
this instance, to address the management of the national state of
disaster in a manner that
will ultimately protect lives, save
livelihoods, protect property, prevent or combat disruption or
address the destructive and
other effects of the disaster.
238.
Applicants contend that Section 27(2)(n) of
the DMA does not authorize the Impugned Regulations. This provides:
“
(n) other steps that may be
necessary to prevent an escalation of the disaster, or to alleviate,
contain and minimise the effects
of the disaster…
”.
They also submit that the Second Respondent’s reliance on
Section 27(2)(i) is misplaced.
239.
Second Respondent alleges that the alcohol
suspension was always intended to be of limited duration and the DMA
contemplates the
need to take measures including suspending the sale
of alcohol in a manner that will limit the harm occasioned by a
national disaster,
a purpose that is contemplated in section 27(2)
(i).
240.
Second Respondent does not rely on
the power conferred on her by section 27(2)(n) but rather on section
27(2)(i) which provides:
“
(i) the
suspension or limiting of the sale, dispensing or transportation of
alcoholic beverages in the disaster-stricken or threatened
area.”
The DMA expressly permits the making of
Regulations to suspend or limit the sale and distribution of alcohol.
241.
In the absence of a construction being
placed on section 27(2)(i), other than its express and unambiguous
words, the power to suspend
the sale of alcohol accords with the
contextual and purposive approach to its interpretation.
242.
The Liquor Act and regulations made in
terms thereof undoubtedly provide for the regulation and indeed the
suspension or cancellation
of the right to sell liquor in certain
instances. The Act provides for registration of distributors of
liquor subject to the imposition
of reasonable and justifiable
conditions for registration and for the issuing of liquor licences,
which registration and licences
may be cancelled or revoked in
certain circumstances. The Act therefore provides for situations
where individual registrants or
licence holders may have their
authorization to sell liquor suspended or permanently cancelled.
243.
Admittedly, the Liquor Act does not provide
for the temporary suspension of the sale of liquor on an
industry-wide basis, hence,
to that extent, the Second Respondent
deemed it prudent to make Regulations under the DMA to widen the
regulatory ambit of the
Liquor Act and its Regulations.
244.
Once Second Respondent discharges the
onus
of demonstrating that the decision to make the Impugned Regulations
is reasonable and justifiable, and within the ambit of the
powers
conferred on her by section 27(2) of the DMA, there can be no
suggestion that she acted
ultra vires
in making those Regulations.
Applicability of
section 36 of the Constitution
245.
Applicants contend that the Impugned
Regulations are not laws of general application and therefore they
cannot be justified in terms
of section 36 of the Constitution.
246.
Section 36 of the Constitution provides:
“
36.
Limitation of rights
1.
The rights in the Bill of Rights may
be limited only in terms of law of general application to the extent
that the limitation is
reasonable and justifiable in an open and
democratic society based on human dignity, equality and freedom,
taking into account
all relevant factors, including-
(a)
the nature of the right;
(b)
the importance of the purpose of the
limitation;
(c)
the nature and extent of the
limitation;
(d)
the relation between the limitation
and its purpose; and
(e)
less restrictive means to achieve
the purpose.
2.
Except as provided in subsection (1)
or in any other provision of the Constitution, no law may limit any
right entrenched in the
Bill of Rights.
247.
A law of general application is a law that
applies equally to all persons and does not single out specific
categories of people
arbitrarily. The Impugned Regulations applied
across the board to all persons in South Africa at the time.
248.
Applicants
correctly assert that it is the Respondents who bear the onus of
establishing that the limitations on their rights are
reasonable and
justifiable.
[41]
249.
In
Esau
,
[42]
the Supreme Court of Appeal considered the rationality of Regulations
made under the DMA and held that that the rights’ infringement
occasioned by the Regulations are subject to the test of
reasonableness and rational connectedness to the purpose as well as
to
proportionality. The Supreme Court of Appeal therefore found that
Regulations made under the DMA are subject to the limitations
under
section 36 of the Constitution when it held as follows:
“
[139]
I shall conclude by considering the last two factors listed in s
36(1) together. Essentially, they boil down to the reasonableness
of
the infringement of fundamental rights by asking the questions
whether there is a rational connection between the infringements
and
their purpose; and whether the means chosen were proportionate. When
all is said and done, this is the heart of the limitation
enquiry. As
O’Regan J and Cameron AJ said in S v Manamela and Another
(Director-General of Justice Intervening) the
proper approach to the
limitation enquiry is ‘to determine the proportionality between
the extent of the limitation of the
right considering the nature and
importance of the infringed right, on the one hand, and the purpose,
importance and effect of
the infringing provision,
taking
into account
the availability of
less restrictive means available to achieve that purpose’.
[140] The seriousness
and the magnitude of the threat to life brought about by the pandemic
cannot be exaggerated. It is not melodramatic
to say that it posed,
and continues to pose, the biggest threat to this country since the
Spanish influenza pandemic of the immediate
post-World War I years a
century ago. It had the potential, and continues to have the
potential, to cause devastation on a scale
that, only a short while
ago, people could not have begun to imagine.
Drastic measures were
required and an excess of caution was called for, especially given
the limited knowledge about Covid-19, even
among experts in the field
of epidemiology
.
[141]
In these circumstances, the broad-based limitation of everyone’s
fundamental right to freedom of movement and
of
trade, occupation and profession
was
a rational response for the purposes articulated by the COGTA
Minister when she provided for the initial lockdown
…”
(emphasis added)
250.
In
Manamela
[43]
,
the Constitutional Court held:
“
[32]…
It
should be noted that the five factors expressly itemised in section
36 are not presented as an exhaustive list. They are included
in the
section as key factors that have to be considered in an overall
assessment as to whether or not the limitation is reasonable
and
justifiable in an open and democratic society. In essence, the Court
must engage in a balancing exercise and arrive at a global
judgment
on proportionality and not adhere mechanically to a sequential
check-list. As a general rule, the more serious the
impact of
the measure on the right, the more persuasive or compelling the
justification must be. Ultimately, the question is one
of degree to
be assessed in the concrete legislative and social setting of the
measure, paying due regard to the means which are
realistically
available in our country at this stage, but without losing sight of
the ultimate values to be protected.
”
251.
The Court clearly has to consider the
proportionality exercise upon which the Second Respondent had to
embark by a holistic assessment
of all the listed factors in section
36(1) and the context in which the power was exercised under the DMA
with reference to its
purpose.
252.
Most notably, how are Respondents
reasonably expected to identify and prevent people who engage in
reckless behavior due to excessive
alcohol intake, from causing an
escalation in trauma cases, and how would those measures be capable
of implementation and monitoring
successfully within the short space
of time required to bring down the trauma case numbers in hospital
during December 2020 and
January 2021? These are questions that
impact on the issue of less restrictive means but they are also
relevant for the determination
of what constitutes necessity as
contemplated under the DMA.
253.
In considering the nature and importance of
the rights violation, it has to be noted that the exercise of
individual persons’
rights that were allegedly infringed such
as privacy, dignity and physical and psychological bodily integrity
are all, as discussed
earlier, rights which in the context of the
highly transmissible variant that drove the spread of the pandemic at
the time, also
held by people who sought access to adequate
healthcare in an attempt to avert death once infected with Covid-19.
If Government
had failed to implement measures that would immediately
make hospital beds; facilities and healthcare workers available to
those
infected persons that would have led to the infringement of
those same categories of rights of the collective populace who were
infected with Covid-19.
254.
The purpose, importance and effect of the
Impugned Regulations, namely to
immediately
reduce the number of trauma cases that
present at hospitals in order to create free space and resources in
hospital and in the intensive
care units, specifically, for people
infected with COVID-19 and to encourage those who require
hospitalization, to present themselves
at hospitals at an early
enough stage of their illness cannot be overstated. Therein lies the
reasonableness and justification
for the Impugned Regulations.
255.
In
Qwelane
[44]
at paragraphs 141 to 143, the Constitutional Court addressed the
separate inquiry of less restrictive means as follows:
“
[141]
…
However, as this Court held in Economic
Freedom Fighters:
“
While
less restrictive means is where most limitations analyses may ‘stand
or fall’, one must not conflate this leg
with the broader
balancing proportionality enquiry as envisaged by section 36(1).”
[142] Further
in Mamabolo this Court explained:
“
Where
section 36(1)(e) speaks of
less
restrictive means it does not postulate an unattainable norm of
perfection.
The standard is
reasonableness. And in any event, in theory less restrictive means
can almost invariably be imagined without necessarily
precluding a
finding of justification under the section. It is but one of the
enumerated considerations which have to be weighed
in conjunction
with one another, and with any others that may be relevant.”
[143] Rather, as this
Court explained in Economic Freedom Fighters:
“
All
relevant factors must be taken into account to measure what is
reasonable and justifiable, and the factors listed in section
36(1)(a)-(e) are not exhaustive. What is required is for a court to
‘engage in a balancing exercise and arrive at a global
judgment
on proportionality and not adhere mechanically to a sequential
check-list’
.” (emphasis
added)
256.
In a perfect world, the Second Respondent
would perhaps have been able to restrict alcohol abuse if she had
sufficient time and
resources within which to do so, but given the
lack of means and opportunity that Second Respondent describes, with
which to determine
how alcohol is used or abused once it is
purchased, there was no reality based, viable alternative to an
alcohol ban.
257.
Taking account of all the submissions of Mr
Murgatroyd as well as those of Dr Makgetla and Respondents’
medical experts,
the one factor that is constant, is that there are
no absolutely accurate statistics available now nor were there any on
28 December
2020, with which to conclude with precision how many
trauma cases were reduced by lack of alcohol consumption, but it is
common
cause that there was a reduction in trauma cases that
presented at hospitals after the Impugned Regulations were made. It
is of
no particular moment to the rationality enquiry whether the
relationship between trauma and alcohol consumption is correctly
described
as causation or whether it is correlation. Every single
expert provides estimates to support his/her conclusion on the nature
of
that relationship and its significance for achieving the purpose
of freeing up hospital facilities and thereby saving lives.
258.
In the final analysis, there is no absolute
and in this instance, scientifically completely accurate standard,
against which the
reasonableness of the alcohol suspension can be
measured without taking account of the exigencies associated with the
global pandemic,
the changes in the variants of the virus, the
fallibility in human behavior as the months dragged on, super
spreader events by
school and university students that appear to have
precipitated a new wave of infections, the season for heightened
social interaction
namely, Christmas and New Year, and the fact that
Second Respondent cannot reasonably be expected to have embarked on a
statistics
gathering exercise of extricating from the reduction in
trauma cases at the time of previous alcohol restrictions, the
percentage
attributable to other restrictions imposed under the DMA,
to arrive at an exact statistic that could serve as an only direct
cause
for the reduction in trauma cases attributable to alcohol
suspension.
The Rationality
Test
259.
In
De
Beer
,
[45]
the Supreme Court of Appeal discussed the application of the
rationality test by courts as follows:
“
[101]
The exercise of public power, including the decision to promulgate
regulations under s 27(2) of the Act must have a rational
basis.
In Democratic Alliance v President of South Africa, the
Constitutional Court framed rationality review thus:
‘
The
reasoning in these cases shows that rationality review is really
concerned with the evaluation of a relationship between means
and
ends: the relationship, connection or link (as it is variously
referred to) between the means employed to achieve a particular
purpose on the one hand and the purpose or end itself.
The
aim of the evaluation of the relationship is not to determine whether
some means will achieve the purpose better than others
but only
whether the means employed are rationally related to the purpose for
which the power was conferred. Once there is a rational
relationship,
an executive decision of the kind with which we are concerned is
constitutional
.’
Rationality review
applies both to the process by which a decision is made and to the
decision itself. But an enquiry into rationality,
as this Court
observed in Minister of Home Affairs and Others v Scalabrini
Centre, Cape Town and Others, ‘can be a slippery
path that
might easily take one inadvertently into assessing whether the
decision was one the court considers to be reasonable…
[105] The second error
can be illustrated with reference to the high court’s fifth
case of supposed irrationality. Regulation
35, while permitting
funerals with up to 50 attendees, prohibited night vigils. The high
court asked itself, rhetorically, why
night vigils were wholly banned
if the purpose was to prevent the spread of the virus through close
proximity. Why not rather impose
‘time, distance and closed
casket prohibitions’? Why not allow a vigil without the body of
the deceased? Here the high
court regarded the prohibition of night
vigils as irrational because, in the court’s opinion, there
were more appropriate
(i.e. less restrictive) ways of achieving the
lawmaker’s purpose.
That is not an application of the
rationality test. It engages in the very enquiry that the rationality
test precludes, that is,
whether the court can craft a better
regulation than the Minister did. The high court should have asked
itself whether prohibiting
night vigils is rationally related to the
purpose of restricting the spread of the virus, not whether a more
limited restriction
might also have achieved that purpose.
[106]
These legal errors permeated the high court’s findings in
respect of the validity of the regulations. In that, the approach
was
also fatally flawed. The high court did not properly apply the
rationality test to each of the impugned regulations. Instead,
it
embarked upon a comparative exercise and for the rest, it relied upon
conjecture and speculation.
It
lost from sight that the question is not whether some other measure
might better achieve the purpose or might be more appropriate,
only
whether the measure actually employed is rationally related to the
purpose
.” (emphasis added)
260.
It is therefore not for this Court to
substitute its decision on what it considers to be less restrictive
means for that of Second
Respondent’s, but to consider firstly,
whether the means employed by the Respondents justify their stated
ends and if they
do, then to consider objectively whether less
restrictive means are available to achieve the precise ends, which in
this case,
was: to
immediately
reduce the number of trauma hospitalisations and/or hospital
treatment required in sufficiently significant numbers so that
patients
presenting with Covid-19 related illness could be adequately
accommodated and treated at hospitals at an early enough stage in
their illness to enable them to recover and avert death.
Application of PAJA
and procedural fairness
261.
I am of the view that section 85(2) (a) of
the Constitution, includes the power of Cabinet members to implement
national legislation,
by making regulations. Section 85(2)(a)
provides that:
“
2.
The President exercises the executive authority, together with the
other members of the Cabinet, by -
(a)
implementing national legislation
except where the Constitution or an Act of Parliament provides
otherwise;”
262.
In
Tshwane
’s
case
,
[46]
the Supreme Court of Appeal held that the making of regulations
constitute administrative action.
263.
Similarly
in
Sizabonke
Civils CC t/a Pilcon Projects
,
[47]
the Court held regulation making to be administrative action and
therefore reviewable under PAJA.
264.
Section 1 of PAJA lists under paragraph
(aa), the executive powers of the National Executive that are
excluded from the definition
of administrative action. However,
Section 85(2)(a) of the Constitution does not form part of that list
of excluded provisions.
265.
Relevant sections of PAJA merit repeating
here.
266.
Section 3 (2) provides as follows:
“
(
2)
(a) A fair administrative procedure depends on the circumstances of
each case.
(b) In order to give
effect to the right to procedurally fair administrative action, an
administrator, subject to subsection (4),
must give a person referred
to in subsection (1) –
(i) adequate notice of
the nature and purpose of the proposed administrative action;
(ii) a reasonable
opportunity to make representations;
(iii) a clear
statement of the administrative action;
(iv) adequate notice
of any right of review or internal appeal, where applicable; and
(v)
adequate notice of the right to request reasons in terms of section
5
.”
267.
Section 3(4) prescribes the circumstances
under which sub-section 2 may be departed from:
“
(4)
(a) If it is reasonable and justifiable in the circumstances, an
administrator may depart from any of the requirements referred
to in
subsection (2).
(b) In determining
whether a departure as contemplated in paragraph (a) is reasonable
and justifiable, an administrator must take
into account all relevant
factors, including –
(i) the objects of the
empowering provision;
(ii) the nature and
purpose of, and the need to take, the administrative action; (iii)
the likely effect of the administrative action;
(iv) the urgency of
taking the administrative action or the urgency of the matter; and
(v) the need to
promote an efficient administration and good governance.”
268.
Section 4(1)(a) to (e) provide a list of
procedural steps that an administrator must follow to uphold the
right to procedurally
fair action:
“
4
(1)
Administrative action affecting
public
In cases where an
administrative action materially and adversely affects the rights of
the public, an administrator, in order to
give effect to the right to
procedurally fair administrative action, must decide whether –
(a)
to hold a public inquiry in terms of
subsection (2);
(b)
to follow a notice and comment
procedure in terms of subsection (3);
(c)
to follow the procedures in both
subsections (2) and (3);
(d)
where the administrator is empowered
by any empowering provision to follow a procedure which is fair but
different, to follow that
procedure; or
(e)
to follow another appropriate
procedure which gives effect to section 3.”
269.
Section 4(4)(a) and (b) provide for a
departure from the process set out in section 4(1) (a) to (e):
“
(a)
If it is reasonable and justifiable in the circumstances, an
administrator may depart from the requirements referred to in
subsections (1)(a) to (e), (2) and (3).
(b)In determining
whether a departure as contemplated in paragraph (a) is reasonable
and justifiable, an administrator must take
into account all relevant
factors, including –
(i) the objects of the
empowering provision;
(ii) the nature and
purpose of, and the need to take, the administrative action;
(iii) the likely
effect of the administrative action;
(iv) the urgency of
taking the administrative action or the urgency of the matter; and
(v) the need to
promote an efficient administration and good governance”
270.
In
the case of
Bato
Star
,
[48]
the Constitutional Court held that a relevant consideration in the
determination of procedural fairness and reasonableness, is
context
and that the adjudication of the issue ought to be approached with
due deference and sensitivity to the special role of
the executive in
regulation-making. The Court held at paragraphs 91 and 92, thus:
“
[91]
The technique of paying attention to context in statutory
construction is now required by the Constitution, in particular,
section 39(2). As pointed out above, that provision introduces a
mandatory requirement to construe every piece of legislation in
a
manner that promotes the ‘spirit, purport and objects of the
Bills of Rights. In Investigating Directorate: Serious Economic
Offences and Others v Hyundai Motor Distributors (Pty) Ltd and
Others: In Re Hyundai Motor Distributors (Pty) Ltd and Others v
Smit
NO and Others, this Court explained the meaning and the interpretive
role of section 39(2) in our constitutional democracy
as follows:
‘This means that all statutes must be interpreted through the
prism of the Bill of Rights. All law-making authority
must be
exercised in accordance with the Constitution. The Constitution is
located in a history which involves a transition from
a society based
on division, injustice and exclusion from the democratic process to
one which respects the dignity of all citizens,
and includes all in
the process of governance. As such, the process of interpreting the
Constitution must recognise the context
in which we find ourselves
and the Constitution’s goal of a society based on democratic
values, social justice and fundamental
human rights. This spirit of
transition and transformation characterises the constitutional
enterprise as a whole.’
[92] I am troubled
therefore by an interpretative approach that pays too much attention
to the ordinary language of the words ‘have
regard to’.
That approach tends to isolate section 2(j) and determine its meaning
in the ordinary meaning of the words ‘have
regard to’. It
‘ignores the colour given to the language by the context’.”
271.
In
New
Clicks
[49]
the Constitutional Court held:
“
If
sections 85(2)(a) and 125(2)(a), (b) and (c) had not been omitted
from the list of exclusions, the core of administrative action
would
have been excluded from PAJA, and the Act mandated by the
Constitution to give effect to sections 33(1) and (2) would not
have
served its intended purpose. The omission of sections 85(2)(a) and
125(2)(a), (b) and (c) from the list of exclusions was
clearly
deliberate. To have excluded the implementation of legislation from
PAJA would have been inconsistent with the Constitution.
The
implementation of legislation, which includes the making of
regulations in terms of an empowering provision, is therefore not
excluded from the definition of administrative action
.”
272.
In
New Clicks
at para 145, the Constitutional Court
found that reasonableness and procedural fairness are context
specific. It held as follows:
“
Reasonableness
and procedural fairness are context specific. What is reasonable and
procedurally fair in one context, is not necessarily
reasonable or
procedurally fair in a different context. In R v Secretary of
State for the Home Department, ex parte Daly Steyn
LJ
referred to an observation by Laws LJ emphasising that “the
intensity of review in a public law case will depend
on the subject
matter in hand”. Steyn LJ went on to say “[t]hat is so
even in cases involving convention rights. In
law context is
everything”. In First National Bank of SA Ltd t/a Wesbank
v Commissioner, South African Revenue Service
and Another; First
National Bank of SA Ltd t/a Wesbank v Minister of Finance Ackermann
J referred with approval to this
passage.”
(footnotes
omitted)
273.
In
Esau
,
[50]
the Supreme Court of Appeal considered that regulation-making under
the DMA by the Minister of CoGTA constitutes administrative
action
and falls within the ambit of PAJA but also went on to say that if
the Court is wrong and regulation-making is in fact the
exercise of
executive power, then on the facts of that case, given the exigencies
of the disaster, the regulations made were procedurally
rational. The
Supreme Court of Appeal explained thus:
[101]
I have dealt with the adequacy of the process followed by the COGTA
Minister on the basis that
s
4
of
the PAJA applies to the making of subordinate legislation –
that the making of regulations constitutes administrative action
for
purposes of s 33 of the Constitution, and the PAJA which gives effect
to s 33. If I am wrong in that finding, I am of the view
that, on the
assumption that regulation-making in this case constituted executive
action, which is not required to be procedurally
fair, it nonetheless
meets the standard of procedural rationality.
”
274.
In adjudicating whether the requirements for procedural fairness have
been met, a Court must
not merely go through the motions of ticking
the checklist in section 4(1)(a) to (e), but should in fact take into
consideration
all the specific facts that are relevant to the making
of the decision as required in section 3(2(a).
275.
Applicants complain that the presentation made by Government did not
allow for feedback to them,
however, Second Respondent alleges that
First Applicant did previously make representations concerning
restrictions and/or a ban
on alcohol sales and those representations
were considered. In that event, Second Respondent was required to do
no more than to
provide Applicants with “
a
reasonable opportunity to make representations
”
as
expressly provided in section 3(2) (b) (ii).
276.
First
Applicant states that it had a representative present when Government
made the power-point presentation. Although Applicants
allege that
there was no opportunity to provide input at that presentation, on
Applicants’ version, First Applicant had engaged
with
Government previously concerning alcohol restrictions and Second
Respondent alleges that First Applicant previously held the
view that
it espouses in the papers, namely that an alcohol ban should not be
imposed. The fact that Second Respondent did not
accede to First
Applicant’s longstanding request, nor did she follow Prof
Parry’s suggestion of alcohol restrictions,
does not mean that
she acted procedurally unfairly or irrationally. It simply means, she
took the decision to impose the ban while
being cognisant of the
views held by Applicants and Prof Parry.
277.
The DMA
does not prescribe a procedure for regulation making under
section 27. Remaining cognisant of the purpose of the DMA,
namely to provide a legislative framework for managing disasters, the
fact that the DMA provides for the following: consultation
and
representations at national and municipal level which is to be
co-ordinated by the National Centre; a National Disaster Management
Advisory Forum; and an Intergovernmental Committee, it is hardly
surprising that a procedure is not prescribed for regulation making.
The executive, of course has a constitutional duty to act fairly.
278.
In
Esau
,
the Supreme Court of Appeal said the following concerning adequate
prior consultation and procedural fairness:
“
[96]
I turn now to whether the time allowed for the making of
representations was sufficient in the circumstances. Once again,
context is crucial to the resolution of this issue: while, in one
case, it may be unfair to allow a person two weeks to make
representations,
in another, it may be fair. It will always depend on
the circumstances. In MEC, Department of Agriculture,
Conservation and
Environment and Another v HTF Developers (Pty)
Ltd, for instance, a developer had been given 48 hours within
which to make
representations as to why a prohibitory directive
should not be issued in terms of the Environment
Conservation Act 73 of
1989. This, it was argued, was
procedurally unfair. The Constitutional Court held, however, that ‘in
light of the serious
harm already caused and the threat of continuing
harm, the 48-hour notice period, which HTF did not struggle to meet
in submitting
its representations, was adequate by the procedural
fairness standards required by PAJA’.
[97]
The DMA does not prescribe a procedure for the making of regulations
in terms of
s
27.
That
is left to the COGTA Minister who, whatever procedure she chooses, is
under a duty to act fairly The absence of a procedure
in the DMA
is not surprising given the nature of disasters. In some cases, such
as a flood or an earth quake, for instance, extremely
urgent action
may be required to manage the disaster, while in other cases, a long
drought, for instance, more time for reflection,
planning and
consultation may be available to decision-makers. The definition of a
disaster recognizes a sliding scale in the nature
of disasters,
ranging from the sudden to the progressive. Within this context,
the COGTA Minister was required to assess the
urgency of the matter,
and to calibrate the procedure adopted by her, including the time to
be allowed for the making of representations,
to the degree of
urgency.
[98]
In that weighing-up process, the need to relieve the populace of some
of the more draconian economic and social restrictions
was an
important factor. As the lockdown regulations impacted on the rights
of people, their planned amelioration brought with
it a measure of
urgency that justified the limiting of the time available to members
of the public to make representations. As
soon as regulations no
longer served a legitimate purpose, they had to be repealed or
amended as quickly as reasonably possible.
It is also important to
bear in mind that the level 4 regulations in their initial form were
not necessarily to be the final word
on level 4 restrictions: it had
always been made clear by the COGTA Minister that rule-making in
terms of the DMA was flexible,
particularly because in its response
to the pandemic, the government was feeling its way in hitherto
uncharted territory, there
being no blueprint for how to respond to
so unique and unexpected a disaster: if a measure was not, in
retrospect, appropriate
to the purposes of the DMA, it could at short
notice be repealed or amended.
”
279.
In this matter, Applicants allege that the
Power-Point presentation which was attended by a representative of
First Applicant was
a unilateral presentation with no opportunity for
bilateral engagement.
280.
Respondents answer that allegation by
stating that:
280.1.
A public consultation process was
undertaken between 25 and 27 April 2020 concerning the draft
framework proposed for each
Alert Level, and all interested persons
were required to provide their feedback by 27 April 2020. The
Government received 816 sector
submissions and 70 014 emails from the
public;
280.2.
Submissions made at the time then relevant
to the suspension or limitation on the sale of alcohol were again
considered before making
the Impugned Regulations;
280.3.
Under the auspices of NEDLAC, a task team
referred to as the Rapid Response Task Team (RRTT) was set up to
facilitate dialogue between
Government and social partners;
280.4.
After the July 2020 alcohol suspension the
Government made a call for comments and interested parties were
afforded 7 days in which
to make submissions. Those submissions were
again considered prior to making the Impugned Regulations.
280.5.
VINPRO made presentations to the Minister
in December 2020 for the keeping of alcohol sales open, despite there
only being hotspot
sales restrictions in place at the time. Those
representations were provided to the National Coronavirus Command
Council (NCCC)
and they were taken into consideration prior to the
making of the Impugned Regulations.
280.6.
Cabinet members convened a meeting with the
liquor industry role-players on 28 December 2020 at which the
power-point presentation
that Applicants refer to, was made. At that
meeting the attendees were made aware of the escalating number of new
COVID infection;
the increase in positive cases among healthcare
workers; the increased demand and strain on hospitals; the MAC
proposal for a suspension
of liquor licences, various slides compiled
in the Sentinel Report that shows a correlation between the lack of
alcohol restrictions;
and the increase in trauma case
hospitalizations. The liquor industry attendees drew Government’s
attention to the impact
that a ban would have on the industry and
that submission was considered before making the Impugned
Regulations.
280.7.
Ministers with different portfolios also
consulted with sectors within their sphere of management, for example
Tourism consulted
with the restaurant sector.
281.
The Second Respondent alleges that it was
absolutely necessary to immediately alleviate the burden on
healthcare workers and healthcare
facilities and in so doing to drive
down the number of infections.
282.
The Second Respondent alleges that the
immediacy of the suspension without prior notice was essential to
prevent a “
run
”
on liquor outlets, which in turn would cause crowds to congregate and
increase the spread of the virus.
283.
In these circumstances, what Applicants
seemingly postulate as procedural fairness is a bilateral engagement
in which Applicants’
view that “
the
savings in hospital beds are negligible
”,
ought to have prevailed.
284.
Applicants argue that it is imperative that
Second Respondent engage in bilateral discussions with the liquor
industry role-players,
but it is plain that she ought also to have
regard to the observations and data collected by clinicians and other
health care workers.
To find otherwise is unsustainable because
Applicants’ assertion of constitutional rights would then not
adequately take
into account how upholding those rights impacts upon
the constitutional rights of health care workers and patients
infected with
COVID-19.
Conclusion
285.
For the reasons already articulated in this judgment, I am of the
view that Respondents have
discharged the
onus
of proving on a
balance of probabilities that the making of the Impugned Regulations:
285.1
fell within the ambit of the powers granted to Second Respondent
under section 27(3) read with section 26 of the DMA in that they were
necessary for assisting and protecting the public; providing
relief
to the public; preventing disruption to health services; and
addressing other destructive effects of the pandemic, notably,
a
complete collapse in the health system;
285.2
did no more than temporarily expand upon the existing authority
under
the Liquor Act, to suspend sales of alcohol, albeit in different
circumstances to those prescribed by the Liquor Act, and
are
expressly permitted under section 26(2)(i) read with section 27(1) of
the DMA where existing legislation does not adequately
provide for
dealing effectively with the disaster;
285.3
could only be of temporary duration given the express provision
in
section 27(5) of the DMA. The fact that the current National State of
Disaster has been extended several times beyond its initial
3 month
duration, does not detract from the temporal framework within which
the Impugned Regulations were only permitted to have
effect. The
duration of those Regulations were always subject to the
jurisdictional fact of a declaration of a national state of
disaster;
285.4
had a direct effect on the relationship that exists between
alcohol
consumption and trauma cases that present at hospitals. In the light
of the fatal consequences attached to Covid-19 infections,
saving of
hospital beds and access to medical treatment was justified as
contemplated under the DMA and the Constitution;
285.5
was rationally connected to the DMA’s statutorily mandated
purpose of saving lives and livelihoods and to the constitutional
mandate of upholding the right to life and the right to adequate
health care;
285.6
was reasonable and justifiable in an open and democratic
society
based on human dignity, equality and freedom taking into account the
rights to dignity, equality, life and health care
of the collective
populace;
285.7
represented the least restrictive means of achieving the
purpose of
immediately
freeing up hospital facilities and services to
people infected with Covid-19;
285.8
made the restriction placed on the rights of Applicants proportional
to the harm sought to be averted.
286.
I agree with Applicants that the making of the Impugned Regulations
is an exercise of public power that is
subject to PAJA but find that
Second Respondent acted procedurally fairly and rationally given the
nature of the exigencies and
the indisputable fact that Government
did not expect the second wave of the virus to be worse than the
first wave, nor did it have
the luxury of time to consult more
broadly when the applicable variant was highly transmissible,
Covid-19 related deaths had escalated
substantially and the health
system was in danger of collapsing.
Costs
287.
Applicants bring a challenge based on a
violation of constitutional rights, most of which respondents now
acknowledge as having
been infringed, albeit for reasonable and
justifiable reasons taking account of the exigencies occasioned by
the pandemic.
288.
In
accordance with the
Biowatch
principle,
[51]
I am of the
view that the case calls for the application of section 38(d) of the
Constitution, and given the public interest aspects
of the case, no
party should be mulcted in costs and each party should bear their own
costs.
IT IS ORDERED THAT:
1.
The application is dismissed; and
2.
Each party is ordered to bear its own costs.
JUSTICE
R. ALLIE
CLOETE,
J:
I
agree
JUSTICE
J. CLOETE
NDITA
J
[289]
I have read the comprehensive judgment by my colleague Allie, and I
am respectfully unable to concur fully in
the reasoning and the
outcome reached. The main judgment has carefully set out the relevant
facts in this matter, and I fully adopt
the exposition. I expand on
the facts insofar as is necessary. These are my reasons for the
disagreement.
[290]
In this application, the applicants seek the following relief:
“
1.
That the normal rules for time limits and service of any process be
dispensed with, and this matter be
heard as one of urgency under Rule
6(12) of the Uniform Rules of Court.
2.
That it be declared that Regulation 44 and Regulation 86 promulgated
in Government Gazette
44044, No. R. 1423, on 29 December 2020 are
unlawful and have no force and effect.
3.
Alternatively,
to paragraph 2, above, that the decision of the
second respondent to promulgate Regulation 44 and Regulation 86 in
Government Gazette
4404 No. R. 1423 on 29 December 2020 be hereby
reviewed, corrected and set aside,
4.
That the respondents are to pay the costs of this application.”
[291]
The background underpinning the promulgation of the impugned
regulations may be summarised thus: on 15 March 2020,
a national
state of disaster was classified by Dr Mmaphaka Tau, in his capacity
as Head: National Disaster Management Centre in
terms of section 23
(1) (b) of the Disaster Management Act 57, 2002 (“the DMA”).
On 25 March 2020, the lockdown regulations
were introduced giving
directives for the closure to the public of all premises or places
mentioned in annexure D, except to those
persons rendering security,
it relates to the use and the sale of alcohol. The relevant part
reads thus:
“
(x)
on-consumption premises, including taverns, shebeens, shisanyama
where liquor is sold;
(xi)
off-consumption premises, including bottle stores, where liquor is
sold;
(xi)
off-consumption areas in supermarkets where liquor is sold.”
[292]
On 16 April 2020, new regulations promulgated in Government Gazette
43232, effective from 26 April to 30 April
2020. The new regulations
prohibited the transportation of liquor, except where it was required
for industries producing hand sanitisers,
disinfectants, soap alcohol
for industrial use and household cleaning products. On 28 May 2020,
new regulations permitting the
restricted sale of alcohol were
promulgated. On 12 July 2020, the second respondent reintroduced a
complete ban of alcohol in terms
of a new Regulation 44. The ban was
later ameliorated in August so as to permit the sale of alcoholic
beverages under various degrees
of restrictions.
[293]
On 29 December 2020, the second respondent, acting in terms section
27(2) of the DMA promulgated the Regulations
that are sought to be
impugned in this application. These are:
(a)
A new Regulation 44:
“
Sale
and dispensing of liquor
(1)
The sale, dispensing and distribution of liquor-
(a)
for off-site consumption; and
(b)
for on-site consumption is prohibited.
(2)
The consumption of liquor in public places is prohibited.
(3)
The tasting and selling of liquor to the public by registered
wineries, wine farms, and other similar
establishments registered as
micro manufacturers is prohibited.
(4)
The transportation of liquor is prohibited except where the
transportation of liquor is -
(a)
in relation to alcohol required for industries producing hand
sanitisers, disinfectants, soap
or alcohol for industrial use and
household cleaning products,
(b)
for export purposes.
(c)
from manufacturing plants and storage facilities; or
(d)
being transported from any licenced premises for safe keeping.
(5)
No special or events liquor licences may be considered for approval
during the duration of the national
state of disaster.
(6)
The Cabinet member responsible for transport must, after consultation
with the Cabinet members responsible
for cooperative governance and
traditional affairs, health, police and trade, industry and
competition, issue directions fr the
transportation and storage of
liquor.
(7)
The sale, dispensing, distribution, transportation and consumption of
liquor is contravention of sub-regulations
(1), (2), (3) and (4) is
an offence.”
(b)
A new regulation 86 is applicable to hotspots only but is otherwise
precisely the same as Regulation 44.
[294]
The grounds advanced by the applicants for seeking the aforementioned
order, are, in a nutshell, the following:
294.1
The outright ban on the sale, distribution and dispensing
of alcohol
(while leaving consumption unscathed) is unconstitutional because it
denies the fundamental constitutional rights to
trade freely and
human dignity. According to the applicants, the consequence of this
erosion is the destruction of livelihoods.
294.2
The law does not permit the Executive to ban entire industries
by
executive fiat, when there are other reasonable and proportionate
measures that will achieve legitimate aims while respecting
constitutional rights. Reasonable and measured restrictions on sale
and social restrictions for all businesses are proven remedies
where
extreme solutions are called for. Prohibition, however, is
unconstitutional, ineffective, a boon to criminal elements and
economically devastating.
294.3
The Executive’s use of its powers under the DMA to
declare a
total ban on alcohol – the only product banned in South Africa
– infringes on the rights of tavern owners,
shop keepers,
brewers and all those along the value chain in so disproportionate a
manner as to be unconstitutional.
THE
PARTIES ANDTHEIR STANDING
[295]
The first
applicant
is
the South African Breweries (Pty) Ltd (SAB)
,
a company, duly registered as such, carrying on business as a
manufacturer of alcoholic beverages (not including spirits) and
distributor thereof. Its principal place of business is 65 Park Lane,
Sandown, 2196, Gauteng Province. The first applicant is a
juristic
person as contemplated in section 8(4) of the Constitution of the
Republic of South Africa, Act 108 of 1996 (“the
Constitution”).
SAB is a brewer, distributor and seller of beer (and other beverages,
not including wine and spirits). It
alleges that it has an interest
in end consumers having access to the purchase of these beverages
because, without them, it has
no industry, and therefore also an
interest in the ability of wholesalers to purchase beer from it
(including the transport of
its product by people such as
owner-drivers), and on-sell that beer to retailers; and, finally, it
has an interest in the continued
business of the retailers, whether
licensed supermarkets, specialised liquor shops or the hospitality
trade in end-consumers having
access to the purchase of these
beverages because so much beer is sold to end consumers by them. Put
in another way, SAB has an
interest in the totality of the trade in
beer. Thus, it has standing to bring this application.
[296]
Apart from the standing referred to above, SAB states that it brings
this application in the public interest as
contemplated in section
38(d) of the Constitution in that the regulations which are sought to
be impugned constitute unlawful impediments
to the right to trade
(and this would include the trade of persons who supply it with
product, owner-drivers who deliver beer to
sale outlets and the
outlets themselves); as well as an unlawful infringement of human
dignity in that they seek to limit the choices
routinely made by
those very many people who enjoy partaking, overwhelmingly in
moderate quantities, of alcoholic beverages.
[297]
SAB states that it has been South Africa’s premier brewer and
leading distributor of beer for 125 years
and operates seven
breweries and fourty-three depots in South Africa with an annual
brewing capacity of 3.1 billion litres. Its
portfolio of beer brands
meets the needs of a wide range of consumers and includes five of the
country’s six most popular
beer brands. Its beer has an alcohol
content of between 4% and 6%.
[298]
It claims to have contributed to the public finance as follows:
298.1
Excise duty – 11.5 billion.
298.2
PAYE – R1 billion.
298.3
VAT – R4 billion.
298.4
Income Tax – R2 billion
[299]
According to SAB, any limitation on SAB’s business imperils the
aforegoing source of revenue for the South
African State and the
irrevocable loss to the fiscus because of the wholesale alcohol ban
is approximately R4.5 billion.
[300]
The second applicant, Ms Ntombi Maria Sibiya, a natural person whose
business address is 607 Reverend RTJ Namane
Drive, Mothoeng Section,
Tembisa, 1632. Ms Sibiya is the owner and proprietor of a tavern that
serves alcoholic beverages (as well
as) food and soft drinks) to
in-house customers. She states that:
300.1
the alcoholic bans before 17 August 2020 reduced her turnover
to
nothing although her overheads continued, and she has used her
savings to pay them.
300.2
Her business supports eight employees (and their families)
and her
own seven dependants which include six grand-children (four of whom
are at school) and a son;
300.3
The third complete ban on the sale of alcohol has forced
her to
retrench six of her eight employees and deploy her personal savings
to keep her business afloat. She says that if the current
ban
continues, she will soon be “forced to permanently close
Ntombi’s tavern.”
[301]
The third applicant is Mr Alistair Hillary Shapiro, a natural person
whose business address is 2 Hennie Alberts
Street, Brackenhurst,
Alberton. He is what is termed ‘an owner-driver’. This
means that he pulls the trailer containing
SAB’s product for
delivery to various sales outlets. He states that:
301.1
He has made a very substantial capital investment in the
business
(including ownership of two large trucks) which he stands to lose if
the alcohol ban is continued.
301.2
The side of his business that delivers SAB products employs
between
16 and 32 people, depending on the season, most of whom are husbands
and fathers like himself.
301.3
In the first of the two alcohol bans he deployed R1.5 million
of his
savings in order to cover ongoing overheads and salaries that did not
stop simply because his income stopped.
301.4
He has exhausted his savings and has no remaining lines of
credit.
301.5
He estimates that his business has only “two weeks
to live”
and he has advised his staff to seek employment elsewhere.
[302]
The fourth applicant is Mr Sithembiso Reuben Mabaso, a natural person
who resides at Southgate Ridge Security
Estate, 1 Duinooord Crescent,
Meredale, Johannesburg. He states that:
302.1
He is a moderate drinker who has never sought admission to
a trauma
ward owing to an alcoholic-related injury or been involved in any
sort of public violence.
302.2
He has a stressful job as an attorney, and has a daily ritual
of
unwinding after work with an alcoholic “drink or two in the
evenings” as part of his work-life balance.
302.3
The alcohol ban has deprived him of his harmless pleasure,
in breach
of his constitutional rights.
[303]
The first respondent is the President of the Republic of South
Africa. He is cited in his official capacity as
he is the Head of the
National Executive in terms of section 83 of the Constitution and
because
section 26(1)
of the
Disaster Management Act provides
that
the National Executive is primarily responsible for the coordination
and management of National Disasters.
[304]
The second respondent is the Minister of Cooperative Governance and
Traditional Affairs, appointed to the Executive
by the President and
is the designated Minister in terms of
section 3
of the
Disaster
Management Act. The
second respondent is cited in her official
capacity as the Minister responsible for administering the DMA and
with powers to promulgate
regulations in the Government Gazette in
terms of
section 27(2)
thereof. The regulations prohibiting the sale,
dispensing and distribution of alcohol, and limiting the transport
thereof –
were so promulgated by the second respondent in terms
of her powers.
[305]
The reasons advanced by the second respondent for the total ban of
alcohol as can be discerned from the answering
affidavit is the need
to save every life and every hospital bed. In order conserve hospital
capacity, the sale, dispensing and
distribution of alcohol had to
suspended.
MOOTNESS
[306]
It is common cause that when the applicants initiated these
proceedings on or about 6 January 2021 the impugned
provisions were
still in force. They were however, repealed and substituted on 1
February 2021, thereby rendering the issues moot.
Counsel for the
respondents fervently argued that based on the judgment of the
Supreme Court of Appeal in
Minister
of Justice and Others v Estate Stransham-Ford
[52]
,
this court is precluded altogether from determining issues that are
moot or where there is no live controversy. According to the
argument, such powers are exclusively vested in the appeal court, and
that for a general division of the High Court to decide such
issues
amounts to usurping the functions of an appeal court. Furthermore,
that
section 16
(2)(a)(i) of the
Superior Courts Act 10 of 2013
,
provides that:
“
When
at the hearing of an appeal the issues are of such a nature that the
decision sought will have no practical effect or result,
the appeal
may be dismissed on this ground alone.”
Accordingly, so went the
contention, based on the above, should this court find that the
issues are moot, it cannot exercise a discretion
to hear the matter,
the application should be dismissed on that basis alone. To this end,
the Court in
Stransham-Ford
held
:
“
[25]
The situation before Fabricious J, was not comparable to the position
where this court or the Constitutional Court decides
to hear a case
notwithstanding that it has become moot. When a court of appeal
addresses issues that were properly determined by
a first instance
court and determines them afresh because they raise issues of public
importance, it is always mindful that otherwise
under our system of
precedent the judgment at first instance will affect the conduct of
officials and influence other courts when
confronting similar issues.
A feature of all the cases referred to in the footnotes to paragraph
22 above is that the appeal court
either overruled the judgment in
the court below or substantially modified it. The appeal court’s
jurisdiction was exercised
because “a discrete legal issue of
public importance arose that would affect matters in the future and
on which the adjudication
of this court was required”.
The
High Court is not vested with similar powers. Its function is to
determine causes that present live issues for determination
.”
(internal footnotes omitted, own emphasis supplied, my underlining)
[307]
In the main judgment, Allie J, makes the following finding:
“
Assuming
that the High Court’s conclusion regarding the subject matter
in
Baleni
was correct (it is not necessary to take it any further than that for
present purposes) in the case before us the subject matter
is the
impugned regulations that are no longer in force. It may be, as the
Minister herself states, that a full alcohol ban may
be reimposed in
the future
depending on the particular
circumstances at the time.
To my mind
however, a distinction must be drawn between the subject matter of a
full alcohol ban per se (on the one hand) and the
true subject matter
in this case (on the other) which is the impugned regulations no
longer exists. Put differently, the cause
of action is the impugned
regulations themselves. That cause of action fell away on 1 February
2021 but the applicants did not
amend their relief to advance a case
in terms of s 21(1)(c) of the Act. They persisted in pinning their
colours to the previously
existing mast of the impugned regulations.
Accordingly, and following
Stransham-Ford
(by which we are bound) the cause of action ceased to exist before
judgment in this court of first instance.
28. On
the particular facts before us, no case have (sic) been advanced to
support a conclusion that there is
a live issue for determination
that will impact on the consequential future relief, whether it be
restitutionary in nature or other
relief and whether the relief
sought would impact upon other persons, if not on the Applicants. “
[308]
It seems to me that by stating that the applicants pinned their
colours to the mast of the impugned regulations
and that they did not
amend their relief to advance a case in terms of s 21(1)(a) of the
Act, the main judgment relies on the dictum
in
Ramuhovhi and
Another v President of the Republic of South Africa and Others
,
(Women’s Legal Trust as amicus curiae)
2016(6) SA 210 (T),
wherein the following was said:
“
[19]
The general principles determining whether a court will entertain a
matter is that “courts will only act if the
right remedy is
sought by the right person in the right proceedings and
circumstances.” (internal footnote omitted)
However,
paragraph 19 of the judgement continues thus:
“
the
Constitutional Court recognised that even in cases that are
technically moot as between the parties the interests of justice
may
tip the balance in favour of entertaining a particular dispute.”
These constitute the
principles of standing, ripeness and mootness and it is prudent for
this Court to deal with these issues and
to determine if it the court
should entertain this matter as a constitutional issue.”
(internal footnote omitted)
[309]
Notwithstanding the above finding, the learned judge came to the
conclusion that:
“
36,
Mindful of the exigencies, I am nonetheless of the view that should I
be incorrect in finding that there is no live
issue for determination
in this case, it would serve the litigants in
casu
well that I nonetheless consider the remaining issues in dispute.
37. As
was stated by the Constitutional Court in
Spilhaus Property
v
MTN para [44] “. . .. The Supreme Court of Appeal itself has
said that it is desirable, where it is possible for a lower
court to
decide all issues raised in a matter before it This applies equally
to the Supreme Court of Appeal. This is more so where,
as here, the
final appeal court reverses its decision on the chosen point in
limited point. This may impact on the fairness of
an appeal hearing.
Litigants are entitled to a decision on all issues raised, especially
where they have an option of appealing
further. The court on which an
appeal lies, benefits from the reasoning on all issues.”
[310]
I am doubtful that the approach adopted in the main judgment to the
effect that the basis for determining the
issues in the present
application may be derived from the
Spilhaus
judgment. This I
say because if one were to accept that that should be the case, it
means that in every case where mootness is
raised as an issue, the
court must as a matter of procedure consider every other issue. In
addition, mootness is invariably always
raised as a preliminary issue
and the requirement of considering whether the determination of the
whole matter is in the interests
of justice falls away. Put in
another way, the approach also renders the
Stransham-Ford
judgment, on which the reasoning for holding that this court has
no jurisdiction to entertain moot issue redundant. Furthermore,
it
also negates the respondents’ contention to the effect that
this court, being bound by the
Stransham-Ford
judgment, ought
to dismiss this application on the basis that there are no live
issues to be determined by it.
[311]
Although the
Stransham-Ford
judgment seems to suggest that a court of first instance is not
entitled to entertain a moot issue, I am of the view that in the
light of the facts in the matter at hand, it must be
distinguished.
[53]
First, in the
Stransham-Ford
matter the cause of action was of an entirely personal nature and
when Mr Stransham-Ford died, the order of the court a quo did
not
have any practical effect and it (the court) had no authority to
issue it. Second, the mootness of the proceedings was not
the only
ground upon which the order of the court
a
quo
was found wanting, the Court also held that there was no full
examination of the local and international law as against the
Constitution
and that interested parties were not afforded an
opportunity to be heard. The present matter involves constitutional
issues impacting
on the rights of the applicants and for as long as
the DMA remains operative, and as evidenced by the three alcohol
bans, it is
in my view in the interests of justice that the issues
raised by the applicants be determined fully. Furthermore, given that
the
prohibition may be withdrawn at any stage, even after a
constitutional challenge has been launched, as is the case in the
present
proceedings, it may well be that the prohibitions may never
be tested constitutionally, something that is untenable in a
constitutional
democracy. In my judgment, the
Stransham-Ford
judgment is clearly distinguishable as the rights sought to be
enforced were purely personal, contrary to the impact of the DMA
regulations to the applicants and general public.
[312]
In my view, the correct approach is to determine whether,
notwithstanding the mootness, it is in the interests
of justice to
determine the issues in this application as set out in
Normandien
Farms(Pty) Ltd v South African Agency for the Promotion of Petroleum
Exploration and Exploitation SOC Ltd & Another
2020 (4) SA
409
(CC) thus:
“
[46]
It is clear from the factual circumstances that this matter is moot.
However, this is not the end of the matter. The
central question for
consideration is whether it is in the interests of justice to grant
leave to appeal, notwithstanding the mootness.
A consideration of
this court’s approach to mootness is necessary at this
juncture, followed by an application of the various
factors to the
current matter.
[47] Mootness
is when a matter “no longer presents an existing or live
controversy”. The doctrine is based
on the notion that judicial
resources ought to be utilised efficiently and should not be
dedicated to advisory opinions or abstract
propositions of law, and
that courts should avoid deciding matters that are “abstract,
academic or hypothetical”.
[48] This
court has held that it is axiomatic that “mootness is not an
absolute bar to the justiciability of an
issue [and that this] Court
may entertain an appeal, even if moot, where the interests of justice
so require”. This Court
“has discretionary power to
entertain even admittedly moot issues”.
[49] Where
there are two conflicting judgments by different courts, especially
where an appeal court’s outcome
has binding implications for
future matters, it weights in favour of entertaining a moot matter.
[50]
Moreover, this court has proffered further factors that ought to be
considered when determining whether it is in
the interests of justice
to hear a moot matter. These include:
(a)
whether any order which it may make will have some practical effect
either on the parties or on others.
(b)
the nature and extent of the practical effect that any possible order
might have;
(c)
the importance of the issue;
(d)
the fullness or otherwise of the arguments advanced; and
(e)
resolving disputes between different courts.” (internal
footnotes omitted)
[313]
What constitute the interests of justice is defined by the
circumstances of each case. That said, what is required
is the
balancing of the relevant factors before a value judgment is made on
where the interests of justice lie. (See
Spilhaus
, para 16).
In the matter at hand, what further demonstrates that the interests
of justice require the determination of the matter
notwithstanding
the fact that the impugned regulation have been repealed is that
there is a lingering likelihood that the ban may
be re-introduced.
[314]
It will be recalled that the applicants also seek the review of the
impugned regulations in terms of PAJA. As
set out in the main
judgment, relying on
Bengwenyama
Minerals (Pty) Ltd and Others v Genorah Resources (Pty) Ltd
[54]
they
contend that the principle of legality in a review necessitates a
consideration of a just and equitable remedy and that militates
against a finding of mootness. At paragraph 84, the Court explains
the principle thus:
“
[84]
It would be conducive to clarity, when making the choice of a just
and equitable remedy in terms of PAJA, to emphasise
the fundamental
constitutional importance of the principle of legality, which
requires invalid administrative action to be declared
unlawful. This
would make it clear that the discretionary choice of a further just
and equitable remedy follows upon that fundamental
finding. The
discretionary choice may not precede the finding of invalidity. The
discipline of this approach will enable courts
to consider whether
relief which does not give full effect to the finding of invalidity
is justified in the particular circumstances
of the case before it.
Normally, this would arise in the context of third parties having
altered their position on the basis that
the administrative action
was valid and would suffer prejudice if the administrative action is
set aside, but even if the ‘the
desirability of certainty’
needs to be justified against the fundamental importance of the
principle of legality.”
[315]
The majority judgment points out that there is no relief in
casu
which would constitute a just and equitable remedy as the only relief
the applicants seek is a declaration of invalidity devoid
of just and
remedial consequences. In
Bengwenyama
the Court dealt with the
issue of a just and equitable remedy as follows:
“
[85]
The apparent anomaly that an unlawful act can produce legally
effective consequences is not one that admits easy and
consistently
logical solutions. But then the law often is a pragmatic blend of
logic and experience. The apparent rigour of declaring
conduct is in
conflict with the Constitution and PAJA unlawful is ameliorated in
both the Constitution and PAJA in providing for
a just and equitable
remedy in its wake. I do not think that it is wise to attempt to lay
down inflexible rules in determining
a just and equitable remedy
following upon a declaration of unlawful administrative action. The
rule of law must never be relinquished,
but the circumstances of each
case must be examined in order to determine whether factual certainty
requires some amelioration
of legality and, if so, to what extent.
The approach taken will depend on the kind of challenge presented,
direct or collateral,
the interests involved, and the extent or
materiality of the breach of the constitutional right to just and
administrative action
in each particular case.” (internal
footnotes omitted)
[316]
It indeed is so that the applicants in seeking the review and setting
aside of the impugned regulations have not
sought a just and
equitable remedy. In my view, it matters not that they have not
sought any such remedy. This I say because the
aforegoing passage
from the
Bangwenyama
judgment states that the remedial
approach taken by a court will depend on the circumstances of each
case and it seems to me that
in certain cases a mere declaration of
unlawfulness would suffice. I am fortified in my view by the fact
that in
Bengwenyama
, the Constitutional Court set aside the
decision granting prospecting rights to the first respondent in
respect of Farm Nooiverwacht
324 KT and Eerstegeluk 327 KT in the
Limpopo Province and did not make provision for a remedy. The
Bengwenyama
applicants in the High Court had sought to set
aside the state’s decision to grant a prospecting licence on
their land.
[317]
The applicants contend that where an infringement of constitutional
rights is alleged, the matter can never be
moot because the aggrieved
party is entitled to an order declaring constitutional invalidity
even where there is no consequential
relief. In so contending they
state that in terms of
s 21(1)
(c) of the
Superior Courts Act 10 of
2013
, this Court has discretion to grant a declaratory order in the
public interest. Section 21(1) (c) of the Supreme Court Act provides
thus:
“
21
Persons over whom and matters in relation to which Divisions have
jurisdiction - -
(1) A Division has
jurisdiction over all persons residing in or being in, and in
relation to all causes arising and all offences
triable within its
area of jurisdiction and all other matters of which it may according
to law take cognizance, and has the power
–
(c) in its discretion,
and at the instance of any interested person, to enquire into and
determine any existing, future, or contingent
right or obligation,
notwithstanding that such person cannot claim any relief
consequential upon the determination.”
The
reasoning adopted in the main judgment is, as I have earlier alluded
to that the applicants are not entitled to rely on the
section
because they “
have persisted in pinning their colours to the
previously existing mast of the impugned regulations. Accordingly,
and following
the Stransham-Ford by which we are bound) the cause of
action ceased to exist before judgment in this court of first
instance
.”
[318]
I have already indicated that the
Stransham-Ford
judgment is
distinguishable from the facts in
casu
.
[319]
The applicants contend that, notwithstanding the withdrawal and
subsequent replacement of the impugned regulations,
it is in the
interests of justice that the violation of constitutional rights be
determined because the issue remained alive because
of the likelihood
of a return to Alert Level 4 and the re-imposition of the impugned
Regulations. For this contention they rely
on the judgment of the
Supreme Court of Appeal in
Esau
and Others v Minister of Cooperative Governance and Traditional
Affairs and Others
[55]
,
wherein the court stated the following:
“
[33]
The alert level of the country has since been reduced further to
level 1, before being increased again to level 3. Many
of the
restrictions in the level 4 or level 5 regulations no longer apply.
Despite that, the appellants argue that the issues they
raised are
not moot, particularly as the country could be placed once more on
level 4 and 5. While the respondents argued in their
papers that the
matter was moot, they did not persist with that contention and argued
the merits of the appeal fully. I am satisfied
that the interests of
justice require a decision from this court on the issues raised by
this appeal, even though the level 4 regulations
have been replaced
with level 3 regulations. It is only in respect of one matter –
the validity of directions issued by the
Minister of Trade Industry
and Competition – that they rely on mootness. I shall deal with
that issue in due course. I turn
now to deal with the issues that we
are required to decide.”
[320]
The main judgment reasons that the rationality of the justification
that motivates the imposition of alcohol bans
or suspensions in the
future is not capable of being predetermined in this matter, and
therefore the extent of the impact that
a decision on the impugned
regulation’s validity would have on other persons in the future
is not capable of determination
at this stage. Whilst it is so that
the different circumstances may well apply if or when the regulations
are re-imposed, in my
view, however, even if the prohibition has been
withdrawn, if it is capable of repetition, or there is a substantial
chance that
it may be re-imposed, the matter cannot be moot. Put
differently, it is difficult to imagine a Regulation impacting so
profoundly
on the constitutional rights of the citizens of this
country, and capable of repetition, evading scrutiny.
[321]
I now turn to consider the expert evidence.
THE EXPERT EVIDENCE
[322] It is
common cause between the parties that the second respondent bears the
onus of showing that the limitation
is justifiable. In so doing she
must present facts supporting the justification. In
casu,
this
has been done by the presentation of expert evidence.
The RBB Report
[323]
The applicants on 19 February 2021 filed an economic assessment
report compiled by Mr Richard Murgatroyd, a specialised
economist and
partner at RBB Economics. Pursuant to the filing of further answering
affidavits, Mr Murgatroyd filed a second report
on 29 June 2021. Mr
Murgatroyd states that he was requested to compile a report on the
economic impact of the ban on the sale of
alcohol more particularly:
323.1
the effect of liquor bans on trauma reduction’;
323.2
the capacity of the healthcare system to treat COVID-19 patients;
323.3
the economic cost of the liquor ban, including the impact
on
participants in the value chain of the alcohol industry and the
impact on the government fiscus; and
323.4
the survey evidence relating to the impact of the ban on
the
restaurant industry.
[324]
At the heart of these proceedings is the efficacy of the liquor ban
in reducing the number of trauma cases, and
in turn reducing the
strain on the country’s healthcare system. It will be recalled
that the respondents in the answering
affidavit state that:
“
The
research shows that when an alcohol ban is imposed, the demands on
trauma emergency units are reduced and, conversely, when
alcohol bans
are uplifted, the demands on trauma and emergency units are
increased.”
[325]
The RBB Report refutes this averment. The central point made in the
RBB report is that since several factors may
explain the stated or
observed changes in trauma case numbers, conclusions cannot be
reliably drawn regarding the impact of any
individual factor unless
one is able to disentangle the effect of this factor from other
factors that may plausibly have attracted
trauma case numbers.
Furthermore, the observed correlation between the imposition or
removal of the liquor bans yields little or
no insight into the
efficacy of the liquor bans themselves if one disentangles their
impact from other measures introduced at the
same time. According to
the report, it would be incorrect to infer from the existence of a
broader linkage between alcohol consumption
and trauma admissions
that the liquor bans had an impact on trauma cases in South Africa,
given the other measures that were in
place at the same time. Put in
another way, correlation does not imply causation.
[326]
The concept of correlation and causation is explained in the RBB
report:
“
37
In simple terms correlation refers to the degree to which two
variables or series change together over time.
For instance, if two
variables are said to be highly positively correlated, this means
that those variables move closely together
over time such that, for
instance an increase in one coincides with a similar increase in the
other.”
[327]
The report points out that in the present case, there are other
important factors that might be expected to have
an impact on trauma
cases, either in complete isolation or in combination with the
consumption of alcohol. To this end, the report
notes that the first
(full) liquor ban was implemented on 26 March 2020, and on the same
day a twenty-four-hour curfew, restrictions
on gatherings as well as
a ban on inter-provincial travel restrictions were put in place. This
lasted up to the 30
th
of April 2020, after which a less
restrictive curfew from 20h00 pm until 5h00 was put in place until
the end of May 2020, whilst
gatherings and interpersonal travel
restrictions were eased, though only to a limited extent. Mr
Murgatroyd states that whilst
Professor Parry seeks to compare to
fall in cases in cases between the periods and during the first
(full) ban, “these comparisons
are unlikely to be probative of
the effect of the liquor ban since the assessment does not control
for changes to gathering and
movement restrictions.”
[328]
The report also highlights that when the first (full) liquor ban was
lifted on 1
st
June 2020, such that there were only
restrictions on the sale of alcohol during certain hours and days of
the week, curfew measures
were also lifted and inter-provincial
travel restrictions eased. Thus, so continues the report, the
comparisons of trauma cases
during and after the first ban (as
presented for instance by Sentinel and the letters from the
provincial governments) are unlikely
to constitute credible evidence
regarding the specific impact of the ban, given that this comparison
does not cater for the lifting
of other lockdown measures at the same
time. Likewise, when the second (full) ban was implemented on the
12
th
July 2020, a curfew from 21h0 to 04h00 was also
reinstated (there having been no curfew immediately prior to the
date). Thus, the
observed fall in trauma cases when the second full
ban was imposed will again, not be probative given the presence of
other restrictions.
[329]
In the same vein, so continues the report, when the second (full)
liquor ban was lifted on 18
th
August 2020 (such that there
were only restrictions to the sale of alcohol during certain hours
and days of the week), restrictions
on social gatherings were
significantly eased and the remaining restrictions on
inter-provincial traveling were lifted. Again,
therefore “the
assessments such as those presented in the December and January
Sentinel Reports relating to the increase
in trauma cases after the
lifting of the second (full) ban do not provide credible evidence of
the effect of the ban itself.”
[330]
The report notes that when the third (full) ban was implemented on
the 29 December 2020, on the same day all social
gatherings were
prohibited, (from social gatherings up to 100 people indoors and 25
people outdoors having been allowed previously).
Therefore, the
reductions in trauma cases in the weeks following the time when the
third (full) ban was implemented as cited in
the answering affidavit,
are again not probative of the effect of the ban itself.
[331]
The report concludes that:
“
60
Many of the above changes to other lockdown measures can be
reasonably expected to have affected trauma cases
in the same
direction as would the liquor ban. This alone means that it is
inappropriate, and indeed misleading, to seek to attribute
all or
most of observed reductions in trauma cases to the liquor ban. As
explained above, a more detailed analysis would be required
in order
to see whether such a conclusion could be reached.
61.
Moreover, the available evidence indicates that these changes can
reasonably be expected to have had a substantial
effect on trauma
cases. This suggests that if a more detailed analysis could be
undertaken, it could well indicate that, in fact,
the imposition of
liquor bans had a much more limited impact.”
[332]
The Report further highlights that the importance of other policy
measures on trauma case numbers is acknowledged
in multiple sources,
including the respondents’ answering affidavit and its annexes.
It states for instance that:
332.1
multiple studies show significant reductions in trauma admissions
in
countries which implemented movement and gathering restrictions but
not a liquor ban, such as the United States, Germany and
Australia.
332.2
the letter from the Premier of the Western Cape annexed to the
answering affidavit requesting the Minister of Health to apply
restrictions such as curfews and limits to gatherings to reduce
the
trauma cases in the province.
332.3
paragraph 40.9 of the answering affidavit (with reference
to the
December Sentinel Report) asserts that “[t]he relaxing of
retail alcohol sales and extension of night time curfew,
in
particular, saw a 36.2% reduction in trauma
admissions
.”
332.4
the December Sentinel Report asserts that “[t]he extension
of
night time curfew to 12am and the relaxation of retail alcohol sales
to include Friday has effectively resulted in additional
30% increase
in average (median) daily trauma cases and a significant additional
64% increase in weekend trauma cases presenting
to hospitals.”
[333]
With regard to the January Sentinel Report and the December Sentinel
Trauma Report, Mr Murgatroyd states that
although they (the reports)
seek to disentangle the effect of the liquor bans from other sources,
the attempt ignores the potential
for trauma cases to be affected by
a range of other important factors. According to the RBB report, the
December Sentinel Report
fails to recognise that despite there being
no change in other lockdown restrictions at the same time as the
introduction of the
second liquor ban, a curfew from 21h00 to 04h00
was introduced.
The evidence of the
respondents’ expert witnesses
[334] At
issue is the correlation and causation of the alcohol bans. Professor
Parry ‘s opinion on the issue may
be summarised thus: applying
the Bradford Hill criteria for causation, the controls on alcohol
consumption occurred before the
drop in trauma presentations, tougher
restrictions during the different phases of the lockdown result in
greater levels of reduction
in trauma presentations, and removing the
full sales ban resulted in trauma presentations rising rapidly. There
is a specificity
in that natural causes are not affected by the bans.
According to Professor Parry, there is even a biological pathway
through which
the alcohol bans affect trauma presentations through
the agent “alcohol”. The same can be said for
restrictions on
mobility: they also fulfil the criteria for mobility
to be causally related to reductions or increases in trauma
presentations.
He summarises thus:
334.1
the liquor sales bans and the restrictions on mobility, are
causally
related to trauma presentations.
334.2
The fact that another intervention affects the outcome (trauma
presentation) does not invalidate an intervention (the temporary
sales ban) from also causally impacting on that outcome.
[335]
Professor Parry disputes the contention in the RBB report that in
essence, the alcohol sales ban had little or
no impact on trauma
presentations and that it is all about the government’s
restrictions on mobility and, by implication
that the alcohol sale
bans were an unnecessary addition. In his opinion, the RBB report
does not provide any empirical evidence
for reaching its conclusions.
Instead, according to him, there are multiple experienced and
attending physicians who recorded that
when the alcohol sales bans
were lifted their facilities were once again filled with intoxicated
persons, and when the bans were
imposed those persons were largely
absent. Professor Parry does not accept the suggestion in the RBB
report that the State must
disentangle the impact of the temporary
suspension from all other factors that can reasonably be expected to
affect trauma case
numbers.
[336]
Professor Parry is of the view that not only is it not possible to
engage in a disentangling exercise during the
pandemic, such an
exercise is unnecessary prior to any decision being taken to impose a
temporary suspension on liquor. He advances
two reasons for this
contention:
336.1
Whilst it can be accepted that the effect of the alcohol
sales bans
and curfews are not related, he cautions that the relationship should
not be exaggerated. He further explains that curfews
for example mean
that people cannot stay out late drinking at on-site liquor outlets,
but the additional four hours of curfew after
the December suspension
was imposed cannot substantially explain the 51% drop in trauma
presentations. According to him, that is
clearly the effect of the
December temporary suspension of liquor sales, a position shared by
the Western Cape Government.
336.2
The disentangling exercise sought by the applicants is a
near
impossibility particularly in times of a crisis of unprecedented
proportions because, in order to apply the model advanced
by the RBB,
he would have to ‘test’ the approach in relation to each
member by singularly imposing such measure –
without any other
measure being in place – at a time when trauma units are under
stress for purposes of ascertaining whether
one measure is more
effective than the other. This approach, so opines Professor Parry,
would be reckless when regard is had to
the already existing
overwhelming evidence establishing causation.
Dr Makgetla
[337] Dr Neva
Makgetla is a Senior Economist, from the Trade and Industrial Policy
Strategies, which is an independent,
non-profit, economic research
institute. She filed two reports wherein she considers the impact of
the temporary alcohol bans on
the economy, both directly and
indirectly as well as the economy-wide losses which can be mitigated
in the long-term. She filed
a further report, pursuant to the
applicants’ RBB report.
[338] Dr
Makgetla’s view is that the RBB’s ideal of proving
causality runs the risk of confusing causality
and correlation as it
ignores the critical importance of correlation in both natural and
social sciences as an initial indication
of a potential causal
relationship. Furthermore, it ignores the extensive literature on
decision making during public health emergencies.
According to Dr
Makgetla whilst correlation may not equal causation it is effectively
what all non-experimentalist resort to in
developing and defending
causal claims. Furthermore, it ignores that in a crisis it is often
impossible to apply all of the available
tests. She further states
that based on the extensive and authoritative literature emanating
from the WHO and the European Centre
for Disease Control the position
may be summarized thus:
338.1
Decision-making during public health emergencies has to combine
all
of the available evidence, which encompasses not just quantitative
studies but also qualitative research, case studies and
the
experience of other countries and/or diseases.
338.2
Where the evidence is not definitive, decision-makers have
to rely on
logic and theoretical insights.
338.3
The available evidence should be considered, not only around
the
nature of the disease, but also around the cost and benefits of
different measures, as well as their effectiveness and practicality.
338.4
In order to improve decision-making over time and minimize
the risk
of sustained errors, processes should also be set up to improve
policies over time.
[339] Dr
Makgetla further states that the WHO concluded that public health
authorities have little choice but to make
the best of available
evidence, especially in the early phases of a disease outbreak
resulting from a novel pathogen. The evidence
may include the
experiences of medical health personnel and other affected persons;
available but imperfect or incomplete data;
international experience
or information relevant institutions. In her opinion, causality may
have to be inferred from a combination
of experience, logic, theory
and the available information, both qualitative and quantitative,
because an emergency often does
not leave either time or resources to
set up experiments or generate statistics suitable for rigorous
analysis. Moreover, given
that at the time of the institution of the
present proceedings, because the bans had only been introduced on
three occasions, most
of the statistical tests to examine causality
would not be applicable. She surmises that an analysis of the
mechanisms of causality,
however – in this case- factors that
lead to a spread of COVID-19 – point universally to the
importance of super-spreader
events linked to bars and entertainments
that include consumption of alcohol.
[340] Dr
Makgetla further states that in her view, the preferred approach
would be, consistent with the WHO recommendation,
to review the
available evidence on the packages used to control past surges in
order to find ways to minimize costs and maximise
benefits.
[341]
Regarding the impact of the ban on the economy, Dr Makgetla states
that it is virtually impossible to separate
out the economic impact
of the alcohol bans from other factors depressing consumer demand on
the economy. According to her evidence,
the economic benefits of
alcohol restrictions during the pandemic come not only from the
reduction in COVID-19 transmission, but,
inter alia, the reduction in
trauma cases tended to by the healthcare system. In her opinion,
weighing the restrictions on alcohol
to the economic costs of an
inactive alcohol industry should not merely be seen as a trade-off,
but rather an investment to enable
future growth, which requires
greatly improved control of COVID-19.
Professor Matzopoulos
[342]
Professor Matzopoulos, an honorary Professor at the University of
Cape Town School of Public Health, is very critical
of the RBB report
on which the applicants’ case is premised. He states that is
not aware of the author of the report having
published any reports in
relation to alcohol related matters in South Africa. In addition, the
RBB report is not available through
standard platforms through which
scientific research is disseminated. His further concern is that the
RBB report may not have been
subjected to traditional double-blind
peer review. Furthermore, Professor Matzopoulos is concerned that the
report is commissioned
by the alcohol industry, which is a party to
these proceedings. He states that because the report was seemingly
commissioned only
for the purposes of the litigation (and on behalf
of, inter alia, SAB which part of the alcohol industry), there would
not have
been a comprehensive study protocol setting out the aims,
objective, hypotheses and analysis plan
a priori
that has been
reviewed by an appropriate scientific authority if this protocol
exists at all. According to Professor Matzopoulos,
these are basic
quality thresholds that, in his opinion, have not been satisfied. For
this reason, in his expert opinion, any inference
drawn from this
research should be treated with extreme caution.
Dr Ismail
[343] Dr
Muzzammil Ismail is a Public Health Medicine Registrar based at the
Epidemiology and Surveillance Unit at the
Western Cape Department of
Health. In response to the causation and correlation challenge posed
in the RBB Report, Dr Ismail points
out that the relationship between
alcohol availability and trauma presentations is causal because it
meets the Bradford Hill criteria
for causality. He states that the
contention that either the alcohol ban or the restrictions in terms
of mobility lead to the decrease
in trauma presentations is flawed.
In his opinion, the temporary suspension on alcohol had a substantial
impact on the demands
on the health system. Ultimately, so goes his
opinion, the combination of measures served to reduce the demands on
the health system
to the extent that was evidenced.
[344] Dr
Ismail explains that the pattern of trauma presentations shows clear
spikes over weekends, which aligns with
the validated experience of
clinicians who deal with alcohol-related trauma every weekend. It
also aligns to evidence from the
Western Cape Injury Mortality
Profile 2018 Report which looked at previous data from the province
that clearly depicts that over
68% of homicides occur over weekends
and over 70% of these homicides victims test positive for the
presence of alcohol in their
systems. Furthermore, during the
complete alcohol bans, these weekend spikes show the most dramatic
decrease, which then demonstrates
a clear case of causation. Besides,
so states Dr Ismail, there is a mass of global literature which
analysed and exposed the relationship
between alcohol policy in terms
of availability, without any restriction on movement, and its link to
external causes of mortality.
[345] Dr
Ismail refutes the applicants’ argument that ‘other
policy measures’ substantially contributed
to the increases and
decreases in trauma presentations and states that:
345.1
the applicants provide no evidence-base to prove causality,
nor data
to support the alleged impact from these “other measures”,
and as such this assertion falls to be rejected.
345.2
alcohol related trauma is a well-established phenomenon and
is known
(based on a significant international evidence-base and affirmed by
the WHO) to be causally linked to trauma and violence.
A denial of
this substantial role in this regard, particularly in the absence of
evidence is reckless. He reiterates that alcohol
plays a profound and
significant role in causing trauma presentations.
[346] Dr
Ismail is one of the authors of the Sentinel Trauma Report. Noting
from the Sentinel Trauma Report, he states
that the second (full)
alcohol ban initially occurred in lockdown Alert Level 3. He states
that on 12 July 2020, an amendment to
the level 3 regulations was
imposed as a result of the front-line health-care worker experience
and the information at the time
which showed a complete stark
increase in alcohol related trauma incidents. The amendment saw a
complete ban in alcohol and an
establishment of curfew from 21h00
-04h00. Dr Ismail says that prior to this period, there was no formal
curfew in place, but there
were significant restrictions on
night-time economic activity and on movement outside one’s
home, (e.g. stipulations and
conditions from moving out of one’s
home, non-allowance of on-site consumption of food and beverages at
point of sale, and
non-allowance of entertainment activities). He
concludes that this limited change in movement but significant change
in alcohol
availability lends itself to a means of separating out the
two effects. Furthermore, the decrease of trauma presentations at
hospital
on average of 33% and between 40-50% on the weekend trauma
peaks, following the July Alert Level 3 amendment is primarily on
account
of the alcohol ban and, to a far smaller extent the change in
movement.
[347] Dr
Ismail further points out that the second (full) alcohol ban on 18
August 2020 coincided with a change to Alert
Level 2 and a one hour
decreased in the night-time curfew from 21h00-04h00 under Alert Level
3 of 22h00 to 04h00. According to
Dr Ismail, with the minimal change
in curfew hours and significant change in alcohol availability after
the second (full) ban was
lifted, the Sentinel Trauma Report saw an
average increase of 43% in trauma presentations. The Report also saw
an immediate increase
in Interpersonal Violence of 55%. He concludes
that from a sociological, biological and evidence-based perspective
the increase
was far better explained by the non-availability and
subsequent availability of alcohol and its relation to
alcohol-related trauma.
Furthermore, so states Dr Ismail, the
imposition of the third alcohol ban saw significant declines in
trauma presentations, particularly
on New Year’s Day. He states
that when regard is had to the usual impact of alcohol on New Year’s
Day, this highlights
the effect more clearly. Most importantly, this
occurred within an adjusted Level 3 lockdown that, inn fact allowed
most other
economic activity. Thus, the complete flattening of
weekend trauma peaks in January shows clear causation between the
availability
of alcohol, and trauma presentations.
The approach in
application proceedings
[348]
The respondents contend that in assessing the RBB Report against the
respondents’ evidence, the test generally
applied in motion
proceedings as enunciated in
Plascon-Evans
Paints Ltd v Van Riebeeck Paints (Pty) Ltd
[56]
is
applicable. It is so that in motion proceedings where a disputes of
fact arise on the affidavits, a final order may be granted
only if
the facts averred in the applicant’s affidavits, which have
been admitted by the respondents, together with the facts
alleged by
the latter, justify such an order. This is so unless the respondent’s
version consists of bald or uncreditworthy
denials, raises fictitious
disputes of fact, is palpably implausible, farfetched, or so clearly
untenable that the court is justified
in rejecting it merely on the
papers. The respondents rely for this proposition on
Media24
Books (Pty) Ltd v Oxford University Press Southern Africa(Pty)
Ltd
[57]
wherein the court said the following:
“
[36]
Media24 chose not to pursue this case by way of trial. Nor did it ask
for the matter to be referred to oral evidence.
in asking for it to
be decided n the affidavits alone, it therefore bound itself to the
long established approach described in
Plascon Evans. That meant that
the case could not be determined simply on weighing of the
probabilities as they emerged from the
affidavits. The facts deposed
to by OUP’s witnesses had to be accepted, unless they
constituted bald or uncreditworthy denials
or were palpably
implausible, far-fetched or so clearly untenable that they could
safely be rejected on the papers. A finding to
that effect occurs
infrequently because courts are always to alive to the potential for
evidence and cross-examination to alter
its view of the facts and
plausibility of the evidence.” (internal footnotes omitted)
[349]
According to the respondents, based on these principles, and because
the applicants have not applied for a referral
of any disputes to
oral evidence, the facts asserted by the respondents must be correct.
This is so even if the evidence is that
of expert witnesses.
[350] The
applicants contend that the respondents misunderstand and misapply
the
Plascon-Evans
rule as the court in
Media 24
weighed
and analysed all of the evidence. The facts in the present matter are
somewhat peculiar in that the applicants’ case
as set out in
the founding affidavit morphed into a different case when the RBB
Report was introduced in the replying affidavit,
and further
supplementary answering affidavits were filed and attached to the
replying affidavit. The applicants correctly point
out that the court
in
Media24
notwithstanding the reference to the
Plascon-Evans
rule fully evaluated all the expert evidence produced by the parties.
I agree with the approach adopted in the main judgment that
the court
in Media 24 “went beyond merely accepting the evidence of the
experts as facts alleged by the Respondent that can
be accepted in
the absence of oral evidence. The court in that case looked at the
extent to which the expert evidence Respondent
firmly and
comprehensively set out a basis for refuting the expert evidence of
Applicant, which was expressed in general terms
and found that the
Applicant failed to disprove the expert evidence of Respondent in
Reply.”
[351]
The approach to the evidence therefore in
casu
shall be as set out in
Twine
and Another v Naidoo & Another
[58]
:
“
The
court should actively evaluate the evidence. The cogency of the
evidence should be weighed “
in the
contextual matrix of the case with which (the Court) is seized.
”
If there are competing experts, it can reject the evidence of both
experts and should do so where appropriate. The principle
applies
even where the court is presented with the evidence of only one
expert. There is no need for the court to be presented
with the
competing opinions of more than one expert witness on a disputed
fact. There is no need for the court to be presented
with competing
opinions of more than one expert in order to reject the evidence of
that witness.” (internal footnotes omitted).
NECESSITY
[352]
The applicants contend that the respondents have not shown that the
impugned regulations are necessary as contemplated
in section 27(3)
of the DMA. Section 27(3) reads thus:
“
(3)
The powers referred to in subsection (2) may be exercised only when
to the extent that is necessary for the purpose of –
(a)
assisting and protecting the public;
(b)
providing relief to the public;
(c)
protecting property;
(d)
preventing or combating disruption; or
(e)
dealing with the destructive and other
effects of the disaster.
[353]
According to the applicants, the word ‘
necessary
’
must be construed narrowly and is a jurisdictional requirement which
the respondents bear the onus of proving. The applicants
rely for
this interpretation on the Constitutional Court judgment in
Pheko
and Others v Ekurhuleni Metropolitan Municipality
[59]
wherein it was held that:
“
[37]
This section must be interpreted narrowly. A whole wide construction
may adversely affect rights in s 26. The language
used in s 55(2) (d)
is critical. The text must be interpreted in the context of the DMA
as a whole, taking into consideration whether
its preamble and other
relevant provisions support the envisaged construction.
[38] Properly
construed and read in conjunction with other provisions, including ss
51(1), and 2(1) of the DMA, s 55(2)(d)
does not authorise evictions
or demolition without an order of court. On its wording, the DMA
deals with ‘evacuation’.
The word “evacuate”
is generally used to describe what is done in a situation where
people’s lives are at risk
as a result of an impending
“disaster”. “Evacuate” means “to remove
from a place of danger to a safer
place”. The people concerned
therefore require immediate removal to a safe temporary shelter away
from the disaster area,
in order to preserve their lives.”
(internal footnotes omitted)
[354]
It is common cause that the expressed rationale for the liquor ban is
to release pressure on the healthcare system
created by alcohol
induced trauma. The applicants contend that the threshold of
necessity:
“
[E]ntails
an assessment of what trauma reductions the alcohol ban achieves over
and above the other restrictions (such as curfews,
social gatherings,
work, inter- reduction is attributable to the alcohol ban over and
above reductions caused by provincial travel
etc.) In other words,
the difference between the parties is not whether an alcohol ban in
isolation would reduce trauma presentation;
it is what other
restrictions. This is what the RBB terms the “incremental”
effect of the alcohol ban.”
[355]
According to the applicants the reason the exercise suggested above
is necessary is that if trauma reductions
are achieved by other
means, then the alcohol ban is not necessary.
[356]
The respondents contend that use of the word ‘necessary’
in section 27(3) should be interpreted more
broadly because of the
context, purpose and ambit of the DMA as a whole. To this end, the
respondents rely on
Democratic
Alliance v Minister of Co-operative Governance and Traditional
Affairs and Others COGTA
[60]
where the full bench held thus:
“
The
different ways in which a disaster may manifest necessitates giving
the executive wide enough powers so that it can deal effectively
with
the disaster in terms of the Act. The changing circumstances will
also necessitate quick regulation in the context of COVID-19,
the
different alert levels and adjusted alert levels also call for rapid
regulation making in order to ease the burden on those
affected by
them. The complexity of government business relating to COVID-19
demands that the executive be at the business end
of the fight
against the pandemic.”
[357]
The respondents contend that the term necessary should be read as
meaning “reasonably necessary” and
not “strictly
necessary” as ascribing a broader interpretation to the term
‘necessity will:
357.1
be in accordance with the intention, purpose and import of
the DMA
itself;
357.2
not hamper constitutional rights because it would allow the
COGTA
Minister the leeway to deal with the pandemic, the furtherance of
everyone’s rights to life, access to healthcare and
an
environment that is not harmful. The respondents further highlight
that it is an established principle that the rules of procedure
(in
this regard the impugned regulations) that are created in order to
give effect to a right must facilitate rather than frustrate
the
exercise of the right as stated by the Constitutional Court in
New
National Party of South Africa v Government of the Republic of South
Africa and Others
[61]
,
that . . . “[t]he mere existence of the right . . . without
proper arrangements for its effective exercise, does nothing
for a
democracy it is both empty and useless;
357.3
the outer limits of the COGTA Minister’s powers are
already
delineated in terms of the DMA itself and its scheme and there is no
need to straitjacket those powers by ascribing further
restrictions.
[358]
The respondents further distinguish the
Pheko
on the basis
that “
unlike in the case of Pheko, the COGTA Minister is not
using her regulation –making powers of achieving an outcome
that is
not sanctioned by another Constitutional right . . .”
[359]
It is plain that the impugned regulations do have an impact on the
rights enshrined in the Constitution, the question
whether or not
that is justifiable remains to be considered. Furthermore, the DMA is
subject to the Constitution, it being the
supreme law of the land.
The rights asserted by the applicants, namely, freedom to trade the
right to dignity, the right to privacy,
the right to freedom and
security of the person are fundamental rights. That being the case,
and applying the decision in
Pheko
,
the scrutiny applicable, should in my view be that of “
strictly
necessary
”.
The strictly necessary test may not be applicable to every
infringement, but if the right is fundamental, the higher scrutiny
of
‘strictly’ necessary ought to be always be applicable. In
S
v Makwanyane
[62]
the Constitutional Court held that:
“
[109]
. . .Where the limitation is to a right fundamental to a
democratic
society, a higher standard of justification is required, so too,
where the law interferes with the ‘intimate aspects
of private
life.” (internal footnotes omitted)
[360]
This strictly necessary test is not meant to interfere with the COGTA
Minister’s ‘leeway’ to
deal with the pandemic,
further everyone’s rights to life, ensure access to healthcare
and an environment that is not harmful.
Rather, it acknowledges that
where fundamental rights are impacted by a regulation, the burden to
prove that the necessity of the
regulation is on the respondents,
then the Court must strictly scrutinize the necessity. Admittedly,
the objectives sought to be
achieved by the COGTA Minister are
compelling.
CORRELATION
AND CAUSATION
[361]
The central issue in this matter revolves around whether correlation
implies causation with regard to the alcohol
ban and trauma
presentation. In determining this issue, it is necessary to consider
and assess the expert reports. In so doing,
the principles applicable
to expert testimony must come into play. As set out in the main
judgment, in
Price-Waterhouse-Coopers
Inc and Others v National Potato Co-operative Ltd & Another
[63]
“
[98]
Courts in this and other jurisdictions have experienced problems with
expert witnesses, sometimes unflatteringly described
as ‘hired
guns’. In [T]he Ikarian Reefer Cresswell J set out certain
duties that an expert witness should observe when
giving evidence,
Pertinent to the evidence of Mr Collett in this case are the
following:
The duties and
responsibilities of expert witnesses in civil cases include the
following:
The duties and
responsibilities of expert witnesses in civil cases include the
following:
1.
Expert evidence presented to the Cour and
should be seen to be the independent product of the expert
uninfluenced as to form or
content by the exigencies of litigation .
. .
2.
An expert witness should provide
independent assistance to the Court by way of objective unbiased
opinion in relation to matters
within his expertise. . . An expert
witness in the High Court should never assume the role of an
advocate.
3.
An expert witness should state the facts or
assumptions on which his opinion is based. He should not omit to
consider material facts
which detract from his concluded opinion. . .
4.
An expert witness should make it clear when
a particular question or issue falls outside his expertise.
These
principles echo the point made by Diemont J A in
Stock
that:
‘
An
expert. . . must be made to understand that he is there to assist the
Court. If he is to be helpful, he must be neutral. The
evidence of
such a witness is of little value where he, or she is partisan and
consistently asserts the cause of the party who
calls him. I may add
that when it comes to assessing the credibility of such a witness,
this Court can test his reasoning and is
accordingly to that extent
in as good a position as the trial Court was.” (internal
footnotes omitted)
ANALYSIS
EXPERT EVIDENCE
[362]
The applicants contend that the major conceptual flaw in the second
respondent’s affidavit and in the reports
and other materials
relied upon is that the assumption that because the period of alcohol
bans coincides with drops in trauma presentations,
it is the alcohol
ban that is solely responsible for those drops. According to the
applicants there are substantial shortcomings
in the evidence
regarding the correlation between alcohol availability and the number
of trauma cases. These shortcomings, so goes
the argument, led to the
incorrect conclusion that the temporary alcohol bans have the effect
of reducing the demands on hospitals.
The applicants are also
critical of the December Sentinel Report, the Mac Report and the
evidence of the respondents’ expert
witnesses as well as the
Bradford Hill Criteria, which seeks to establish causality in the
context of epidemiology and the public
health.
[363]
With regard to the issue of correlation and causation, the
respondents contend that:’
363.1
There is no legal basis for imposing a threshold of correlation
and
causation instead of correlation. This is particularly so at a time
of an unprecedented pandemic.
363.2
Irrespective of whether the threshold is one of causation
or
correlation, on the evidence both these thresholds have been met.
[364]
With regard to the respondent’s first contention, it must be
stated that the threshold of correlation and
causation was recognized
and applied in by the Court in
Media 24
as follows:
“
[28]
The second important aspect of the evidence of Professor Dunne was to
draw attention to the statistical principle usually
summarised in the
maxim that correlation does not imply causation. What this means is
that the fact that there is a correlation
between two things –
in this case the example sentences – does not necessarily mean
that the one is the cause or source
of the other. In other words, the
fact that there is correspondence between different example sentences
does not establish that
those that came into existence later in time,
were copied from the earlier ones. That is merely a one possibility.”
[365]
Turning to the assessment of the expert evidence, it must be stated
from the outset that as observedin the main
judgment, the RBB casts
aspersion on the credibility of the evidence on the efficacy of the
liquor ban contained in the answering
affidavit of the second
respondent relies on the observed correlation between the
implementation/lifting of the liquor bans and
ignores the effect of
other lockdown measures. It then concludes thus:
“
Thus,
the evidence is unlikely to be probative as to the effects of the
liquor ban.”
This
conclusion is impermissible as it is ultimately the court that must
decide on the credibility and/or probative value of a witness’s
evidence. Evidence tendered by an expert witness must not encroach on
the functions reserved for the court as this does not assist
with the
determination of the issues. Those aspects of the RBB report
commenting on the credibility of lay witnesses will, for
the purpose
of this judgment be ignore.
[366]
It is common cause between the experts that the liquor bans had an
impact on trauma presentations. The real question
is the
apportionment of that impact or the incremental impact of the liquor
bans. The assessment of that impact necessitates an
evaluation of the
liquor bans that account for all or most of the trauma reductions. In
terms of section 27(3) of the DMA, the
respondents must show a causal
link between the imposition of the impugned wholesale liquor ban and
the reduction in trauma cases.
The respondents in the first answering
affidavit place reliance on the MAC report which estimates the likely
impact of a further
ban (after the first ban) on trauma cases at 49,
550 over an eight-week period saving 124-424 general ward bed days
and 46 248
ICU bed days which in turn, would enable 17,755 more
Covid-19 patients to be treated in general wards and, 12, 947 more
Covid-19
patients to be treated in ICU wards. It specifically states
that: “the estimated number of alcohol related trauma
presentations
over eight weeks would be 49,500 . . . These cases
could be averted through a prohibition of alcohol sale.”
[367]
The applicants object to the Ministerial Advisory Committee’s
(“MAC”) ban impact multiplier
and the assumed proportion
of trauma cases that are alcohol related on several grounds, inter
alia, that:
367.1
It reflects the assumed percentage reduction in the number
of trauma
cases that would arise if the liquor ban were imposed, but does not
estimate it;
367.2
the multiplier is biased upwards causing it to significantly
overstate the impact of the liquor ban on hospital trauma cases and
therefore to overstate the hospital resources that will be
saved by
the imposition of such bans.
367.3`the MAC model is
based on a very high degree of statistical uncertainty and that the
starting point for the analysis of the
total number of trauma
presentations in 2020, is extrapolated from 1999 – 21 years
earlier.
[368]
In my view, very little reliance can be placed on the MAC report
because the ban impact multiplier in the model
is based on only five
hospitals in the Western Cape, and the assumed proportion of trauma
presentations that are alcohol related
is based on observations of
only two hospitals in Johannesburg and the assumed fall as a result
of three lockdown measures is based
on observations from six
hospitals (5 in the Western Cape and 1 in KwaZulu Natal). This is
especially so when regard is had to
the fact that ther are 605
hospitals in the country, of which 380 are public. This creates
statistical uncertainty.
[369]
In these papers, the applicants repeatedly emphasise that the
requirement of a causal relationship between an
action and an outcome
is standard in economics and econometrics and that a high degree of
correlation between a variable (in this
case the liquor ban) and the
outcome (trauma presentations) does not mean that a change in the
former will have a causal impact
on the latter. Where there are other
correlating factors (such as curfews, and restrictions on gathering),
the effects of these
factors need to be disentangled. Dr Makgetla
acknowledges and identifies statistical techniques that can be
applied to non-experimental
data, whilst Dr Parry suggests
experiments that would be required to isolate the impact of the
liquor ban. The method he suggests
would in effect show how the
imposition of the liquor ban would affect trauma cases in the absence
of other measures. This would
however, leave the real question
unanswered to the extent that it does not include other restrictions.
What is clear though, is
that both Dr Makgetla and Dr Parry
acknowledge that there must be some evidence of causation to support
the proposition that the
alcohol bans were “necessary” to
decrease trauma presentations and therefore protect the capacity of
the health service
from the demands made on it by the pandemic.
[370]
Regarding the Bradford Hill criteria, Professor Parry and Dr Ismail
assert that the standard has been met. The
applicants retort by
stating that the criterion cannot be satisfied because the reduction
in trauma presentations cannot be attributable
to the liquor ban in
the presence of other correlating policy measures. The Bradford Hill
criteria are a group of nine principle
that can be useful in
establishing epidemiologic evidence of a causal relationship between
a presumed cause and an observed effect.
[64]
They were established in 1965 by the English epidemiologist SIr
Austin Bradford Hill. These criteria include the strength of the
association, consistency, specificity, temporal sequence biological
gradient, coherence, experimental evidence, and analogous
evidence.
[65]
[371]
The applicants contend that Professor Parry, Dr Ismail and Professor
Matzopoulos’ reliance on the Bradford
Hill criteria is
questionable because they are not a definite framework for
determining causality nor are they the only set of
criteria capable
of determining causality, both across the disciplines or even within
the public health field. According to the
applicants, Dr Hill himself
does not claim this. He says:
“
None
of my nine viewpoints can bring indisputable evidence for or against
the cause and effect hypothesis and none can be required
as a sine
qua non. What they can do, with greater or less strength, is to help
us to make up our minds on the fundamental question
– is there
any other way of explaining the set of facts before us, is there any
other answer equally, or more, likely than
cause and effect?”
[66]
[372]
Professor Parry, Dr Ismail and Professor Matzopoulos assert that the
criteria has been met because “there
is specificity in that
natural causes are not affected by the ban (i.e. only acute effects
[injuries])”. The applicants state
that the condition of
specificity has not been met. Besides, so goes the argument, there
are now more sophisticated methods available
to help determine causal
inference and several statistical techniques which could also be
employed to assess the impact of the
liquor bans. The applicants
state that the condition of specificity refers to the principle that
the outcome of interest should
be specifically attributable to the
explanatory factor being examined, in other words, that the decline
in trauma cases is specific
or attributable to the implementation of
the liquor ban.
[373]
It must be stated from the outset that the Bradford Hill criteria is
merely a guideline for establishing causality
and is not meant to be
the be and all of causality. When one has regard to the Bradford Hill
Criteria in the context of the present
matter, it is difficult to
find that the condition of specificity has been satisfied. This is
so, as acknowledged by Professor
Parry, because “
the same
can be said of mobility, they also fulfil the criteria for mobility
to be causally related to reductions and increases
in trauma
presentations.”
[374]
In the light of the fact that other restrictions have an impact on
the trauma presentations, and most importantly,
were implemented
concurrently alongside the liquor bans, even if the liquor bans meet
the Bradford Hill criteria, it still does
not provide a basis for
attributing all, or even a significant part of the observed changes
in trauma presentations to the alcohol
bans themselves. In short, the
Bradford Hill criteria do not purport to determine whether the liquor
ban was the most important
intervention or what its incremental
impact over and above other interventions was. I reiterate that even
if it were to be assumed
that the Bradford Hill criteria established
the relationship between liquor bans and trauma cases, there is no
reason why the relationship
between every other policy measure and
trauma cases would also not satisfy the criteria. Put differently,
since other restrictions
are acknowledged to have impacted on trauma
case presentations and were often implemented concurrently alongside
liquor bans, this
suggests the finding that the liquor bans meet the
Bradford Hill criteria still does not provide a basis to attribute
all or even
a significant part of the observed changes in trauma
presentations to the alcohol bans themselves.
[375]
The respondents’ experts criticise the RBB report on the basis
that it provides no evidence that any of
the other restrictive
measures (i.e other than the liquor bans) had a substantive effect on
the number of the trauma cases. They
suggest that the first RBB
report seeks to attribute the reduction in trauma presentations
either largely or entirely to other
restrictions. Both Professor
Parry and Dr Ismail argue that mobility restrictions cannot explain a
significant amount of the change
in trauma presentations, Dr Ismail
states that it was the liquor ban that has the “substantial
impact”, whereas other
measures “only served to show an
added impact.” The applicants retort by highlighting the
following in respect of mobility:
375.1
There are a variety of ways in which mobility restrictions
(e.g,
curfews) would impact on trauma presentations as they reduce motor
vehicle travel and thus road-traffic trauma presentations.
375.2
Mobility restrictions reduce alcohol-related trauma cases,
such as
those caused by drunk driving, which are reduced by curfew and other
mobility restrictions.
375.3
Multiple international studies covering the United States
of America,
United Kingdom, Germany and Austria show significant reductions in
trauma admissions in countries that implemented
movement and
gathering controls, but did not introduce the liquor bans.
[376]
The fact of the matter is that the evidence establishes that the drop
in trauma presentations correlates to all
the restrictions. Whether
or not the alcohol bans had a substantial impact more than the
others, thereby justifying its necessity
in the context of the DMA,
remains to be determined.
[377]
I now turn to consider the Barron Impact Study Report.
[378]
The respondents, as I have already alluded to, place much reliance on
the Barron Report. The Barron Report evaluates
the impact of the 12
July 2020 to 17 August 2020 nation-wide alcohol ban on mortality due
to unnatural causes. According to the
report, the wholesale alcohol
ban reduced the number of unnatural deaths by 21 per day, or
approximately 740 over the five-week
period. This according to the
report constitutes a 14% decrease in the total number of deaths due
to natural causes.
[379]
The Barron Report study dismisses the impact of the curfew imposed
during the second alcohol ban but acknowledges
that if the curfew
affected unnatural mortality levels, then the result would be that
their model would have estimated the combined
effect of the second
alcohol ban and the curfew, rather than only the effect of the second
ban. In support of dismissing the curfew,
as a contributing factor to
unnatural mortality, the Report advances three reasons, namely, that:
379.1
The curfew would have had no material impact given the fact
that
during the Alert Level 3, period immediately prior to the liquor ban,
meeting in groups was already illegal; and people were
not permitted
outside their homes at night without a valid reason. However, just
prior to the introduction of the second alcohol
ban, while social
gatherings were not permitted, people were still allowed to leave
their places of residence to work, to attend
to a learning
institution, to enjoy a meal at a restaurant, and to engage in
further leisure activities. Furthermore, the curfew
introduced
stricter limitations on mobility, such as prohibiting people from
leaving their household at all without a valid permit,
a
contravention of which was subject to a fine of R1,500.
379.2
The introduction of the curfew would not have had a material
impact
because the starting time of the curfew was put back by one hour
(from 21h00 to 22h00). It does this by adding a binary
explanatory
variable to the main model specification, and proceeds to find no
statistically significant change in mortality levels
due to the
shortening of the curfew. It then extrapolates from this result to
conclude that the curfew, more generally, had no
appreciable impact
since “if the curfew was effective in reducing mortality, one
might expect that this shift to a later
start-time to be associated
with an increase in mortality levels.
379.3
The study draws an inference that after the second alcohol
ban, (i.e.
after 17 August 2020), unnatural mortality increased despite the
ongoing curfew.
[380]
The applicants contend that the Barron study is unreliable because it
does not account for several factors that
will affect unnatural
mortality. According to the applicants the RBB Report identified
tests that would disclose whether serial
correlation was present, and
none of those were done in the study. The applicants further point
out that the following implications
of the Barron report:
(a)
It undertakes two steps:
(i)
It estimates the impact of the alcohol ban on unnatural deaths using
the regression analysis.
(According to the applicants the regression
analysis means that the Barron report uses the same data series over
time and does
not account for several factors that will affect
unnatural mortality.).
(ii)
It then translates the estimated impact (i.e. unnatural deaths
avoided due to the alcohol ban)
into trauma presentations.
(b)
In order to carry out the second step, the Barron study takes its
estimate of 20.57 unnatural deaths
per day less during the alcohol
bans and multiplies it by 36 (the number of days of the ban) giving a
total of 740.
[381]
The upshot of the aforegoing is, according to the applicants, that
the Barron study is flawed and unreliable because:
381.1
It fails to adequately account for the curfew – a significant
omitted variable bias, that, by itself, completely undermines the
reliability of the study;
381.2
It fails to address the very likely issue of serial correlation
which
means that, even if unbiased, it is not possible to test the
estimates for their statistical significance, and therefore
to have
confidence in them.
380.3
The estimates suffer from a high degree of statistical uncertainty,
making it impossible to conclude that the alcohol ban had any
substantial impact (by itself) on trauma presentations.
[382]
The difficulty I have with the Barron report is that if the curfew,
which affects mobility, which in turn impacts
on the trauma
presentations, is not accounted for, the impact of the alcohol ban on
unnatural deaths, is in my view uncertain.
Furthermore, the fact that
the putting back of the starting time of the curfew by one hour of a
seven-hour curfew is not equivalent
(in terms of impact on behaviour)
to the removal of the curfew in its entirety. The curfew, is further
in my view, a relevant variable
that ought to have been included in
the report as it correlates positively with the introduction of the
alcohol bans. Its exclusion
is likely to cause the model to overstate
the true impact of the alcohol bans.
[383]
The respondents, through Professor Moultrie sought to introduce
evidence regarding the relationship between alcohol
prohibitions and
demand reductions in demand on hospital resources.
[384]
Professor Moultrie states that “the evidence regarding the link
between alcohol prohibitions and a natural
demand for hospital
resources is quite clear.” In support of this Professor
Moultrie refers at length to a report dealing
with “unnatural
deaths from 29 December 2020 to 27 March 2021.” He opines that
there is a significant link between
alcohol bans and the reduced
demand for hospital resources based on the fact that those periods of
reduction observed in unnatural
deaths (for example motor vehicle
accidents, suicide, murder and culpable homicide) coincided with the
periods of the alcohol ban.
It will be recalled from the summary of
the expert evidence that Professor Matzopoulos also refers to this
correlation. Professor
Moultrie and Professor Matzopoulos assert a
significant link between the alcohol bans and the reduced demand for
hospital resources
derived from a reduction in unnatural deaths.
Professor Moultrie tries to disentangle the liquor bans from other
measures, for
example he observes that natural deaths rose rapidly
after the lifting of the first alcohol ban. Furthermore, he also
observes
that unnatural deaths fell after 12 July 2020 when the
second alcohol ban was implemented. In similar vein, he states that
there
was a sharp decrease in natural deaths after the third full
alcohol ban was implemented on 29 December 2020.
[386]
Professor Moultrie’s observations bring very little value to
the justification of the liquor bans because,
first, they do not take
into account that on 1 June 2020, (the day of the lifting of the
first alcohol ban), the nine-hour curfew
ban was also completely
lifted. Second, the observation regarding the decrease in unnatural
deaths ignores the implementation of
a seven-hour curfew (with not
curfew having been in place immediately prior to the second full
alcohol ban). As correctly contended
by the applicants, unnatural
deaths are a poor proxy for assessing the impact of the liquor bans
on the demand for hospital resources
because they do not imply any
necessary demand on hospital resources without evidence of how many
of those deaths were preceded
by hospital treatment. Put in another
way, they do not address the rationale for the alcohol bans –
demands on hospital resources.
For these reasons, a comparison of
unnatural deaths during, and after the first alcohol does not yield
credible results regarding
the impact of the ban of alcohol itself.
Besides, the respondents have never sought to justify the alcohol by
way of reference
to the number of unnatural deaths. Professor
Moultrie has not expressed a view on the relationship between the
alcohol prohibition
and the demands on hospital resources.
[387]
Turning to the probative value of the expert testimony, Professor
Matzopoulos stated in his affidavit that he
has grave reservations as
to whether the RBB report has been subject to the traditional
double-blind peer review process that is
standard for most reputable
journals and other academic formats. He also noted that the report is
“not available through
the standard platforms through which
scientific research is disseminated”. The above comment is
clearly mistaken as peer
review is not required for expert reports
when they are made for litigation purposes. For this reason, the
opinion of peers is
not relevant as it is the Court that must decide
on its probative value. In his affidavit he states that the first RBB
report,
is not worthy because it is “
not available through
the standard platforms through which scientific research is
disseminated.”
It however cannot be said that the mistaken
understanding, diminishes the probative value of his own evidence.
But as I have already
said, Professor Matzopoulos did not express a
view on the relationship between the alcohol prohibition and the
demands on hospital
resources.
[388]
Professor Matzopoulos also describes the respondent’s approach
concerning the liquor ban as “entirely
reasonable and
pragmatic”. This conclusion is impermissible as the
reasonableness of the second respondent’s approach
must be
determined by this court. Expert testimony is not permitted to answer
the ultimate question in litigation. However, this
finding does not
suggest that all of his evidence should be rejected, but that this
aspect shall be ignored.
[389]
Professor Parry in his second affidavit, rejects the notion that the
exercise of disentangling the alcohol ban
is necessary prior to any
decision being taken to impose a temporary suspension on alcohol
sales. He specifically states that “it
was unnecessary for the
Minister to disentangle the impact of the temporary suspension from
all other factors that can reasonably
be expected to affect trauma
presentations.” Professor Parry is fully entitled to hold this
opinion, and there is nothing
in his evidence that besmirches his
testimony and it must be accepted its entirety as it complies with
the principles relating
to expert testimony.
[390]
Insofar as Dr Ismail is concerned, it will be recalled that he is the
author of both the December and the January
Sentinel Reports. The
January Sentinel Report came after the full alcohol ban of 29
December 2020 had been implemented, and it
cannot therefore be used
as justification for it, although to some degree, it may be
statistically relevant for determining causation.
The applicants
contend that Dr Ismail is, because of his association with the two
above-mentioned reports, is unable to discharge
his primary duty to
the court as an expert witness because he is in the unenviable
position of having to defend his own work and
is therefore not an
independent witness, thus the probative value of his evidence is very
low.
[391]
Bell
[67]
opines that:
“
An
expert’s association with a particular side of an argument
creates an inherent bias that is difficult to overcome. The
process
of extracting conclusions from particular facts may begin to look
less like the objective analysis of a scholar and more
like the
persuasive argument of an advocate. Courts are cognizant of the fact
that there is category of experts who have developed
a ‘scientific
prejudice’ and who, as a consequence, permit their convictions
to lead their analysis. It is perfectly
proper for a judge to be
suspicious of a partisan and rigid expert.”
Ultimately,
a court will accept evidence of a witness if and when it is satisfied
that such an opinion has a logical basis, in other
words, the expert
has considered comparative risks and benefits and has reached a
‘defensible conclusion’.
[68]
[392]
It will be recalled that the nub of Dr Ismail’s evidence
regarding the impact of alcohol bans on weekends
is that trauma
presentations usually spike during weekends. To this end, he cites
both anecdotal experience as well as the 2018
Western Cape Injury
Mortality Profile. It must be accepted that anecdotal evidence by
medical personnel as pointed out in the main
judgment cannot be
ignored. Dr Ismail states that “during the complete alcohol
bans, these weekend spikes show the most dramatic
decrease”. As
with other reports, the issue with the Sentinel Report is that it
takes no account of the of inter-provincial
travel, which is known to
be particularly high during the period of assessment. For example,
the January Sentinel Report compares
the number of trauma
presentations on the Day of Reconciliation (before the 29 December
2020 alcohol ban to New Year’s day
2021 (two days after the
implementation of the ban), and compares trauma presentations between
New Year’s day 2020 and New
Year’s day 2021. Dr Ismail
notes the drop in presentations between these data sets and infers
that public holidays in December
cannot explain why trauma
presentations were higher before the alcohol ban than after it.
However, the applicants contend, correctly
in my view, that the
report loses sight of the fact that there three public holidays (Days
of Reconciliation, Christmas Day and
day of Goodwill) before the
third alcohol ban (New Year’s day) leading to increased
mobility and therefore higher trauma
presentations before the alcohol
ban. Furthermore, the report does not take into account curfews and
prohibitions on social gatherings
imposed at the same time as the
December 29 liquor ban. Dr Ismail has also not presented any evidence
supporting his conclusion
to the effect that most trauma
presentations are not travel related and that most motor vehicle
accidents resulting from alcohol
intake are not in the course of
long-distance travel, and therefore the inter-provincial travel
cannot substantially explain the
reduction in trauma presentations
after the 29 December 2020 alcohol ban. In the December Sentinel
Report, Dr Ismail cites the
WHO’s recommendations as support
for the second respondent’s position. The WHO recommendations
well-intended as they
are, are unhelpful in the determination of the
issues in this application, namely, what reduction is attributable to
the alcohol
ban over and above reductions caused by other
restrictions. Therein, lies the answer into whether the wholesale
alcohol ban was
necessary.
[393]
Because of Dr Ismail’s involvement in the Sentinel Report, I
cautiously accept his evidence. However, I
hold that it does not have
much probative value, as it is does not take into account other
measures such as curfews and travelling
prohibitions. Neither does it
unequivocally establish that alcohol is substantially responsible for
trauma presentations.
[394]
I have indicated in this judgment that the
respondents filed further affidavits in attempt to prove “a
causal connection”
between the imposition of the full alcohol
ban and the reduction of trauma cases. I emphasise that these
constitutes ex post facto
justification as the information contained
therein was not considered by the second respondent when the alcohol
ban of 29 December
was implemented. I have said that the information
may be relevant for statistical purpose. However, even the belated
affidavits
do not disclose a causal connection between the full
alcohol ban and the trauma cases. In my judgment, whilst the
correlation has
been established between alcohol availability and
trauma cases has been established, the causal connection between the
imposition
of the total alcohol ban has not been proved. It therefore
is clear to me that the second respondent did not consider the issue
of the causal connection at all when the decision was taken.
It
therefore is my judgment that the respondents have not shown that the
impugned regulations were necessary as required by section
27(3) of
the DMA.
It follows that the respondents
have failed to satisfy the requirements of section 27(3) of the DMA.
In the result, the decision
to impose the alcohol ban of 29 December
2020 was unlawful and
ultra vires
of section 27(3) of the DMA.
THE
CONSTITUTIONAL CHALLENGE
[395]
All the applicants allege a violation of their constitutional rights.
The respondents deny that there has been
a violation of the
applicants’ constitutional rights. I deem it expedient to first
give an outline of the Bill of Rights
in the Constitution. Section 1
of the Constitution defines South Africa as a “democratic
state” founded on “human
dignity” and the
advancement of human rights and freedoms, with the Constitution and
the rule of law supreme. Section 2 provides
that the Constitution “is
the supreme law of the Republic” and that “law or conduct
inconsistent with it is invalid”
and that the obligations
imposed by the Constitution must be fulfilled.
[396]
Chapter 2 of the Constitution contains the Bill of Rights. Section 7
provides that the Bill of Rights “is
a corner stone of
democracy in South Africa, which enshrines the rights of citizens and
affirms the democratic values of human
dignity, equality and freedom.
The State has an obligation to “respect, protect, promote and
fulfil the rights in the Bill
of Rights which are subject only to
limitations set out in section 36 of the Constitution. Section 8
provides that it applies to
all law and binds the executive and all
organs of state. Section 8(4) provides that a juristic person “is
entitled to the
rights in the Bill of Rights to the extent required
by the nature of the rights and the nature of that juristic person.
[397]
In
Law
Society of South Africa and Others v Minister for Transport and
Others
[69]
,
Moseneke DCJ, observed (in the context of a constitutional challenge
to a statute) thus:
“
Unlike
many other written constitutions, our supreme law provides for
rigorous judicial scrutiny of statutes which are challenged
for the
reason that they infringe fundamental rights. The scrutiny is
accomplished, not by resorting to the rationality standard,
but by
means of a proportionality analysis. Our Constitution instructs that
no law may limit a fundamental right except if it is
of general
application and the limitation is reasonable and justifiable in an
open and democratic society.”
[398]
Against this backdrop I turn to consider whether there has been a
violation of each of the applicants’s
rights.
Freedom
to trade
[399]
The first applicant has outlined the impact of the total alcohol ban
has allegedly had on its freedom to trade.
Section 22 of the
Constitution provides that every citizen has the right to choose
their trade, occupation, or profession, freely.
The first applicant
alleges that based on this section, it has a right to manufacture and
distribute beer and other alcoholic beverages
as its chosen trade.
Likewise, the second and third applicants assert their rights to
engage in their chosen trade as a tavern
proprietor and owner-driver
respectively.
[400]
In
Affordable
Medicines Trust and Others v Minister of Health and Others
[70]
,
the leading case in the interpretation of the rights in section 22,
Ngcobo J (as he then was) captured the importance of the right
as
follows:
“
What
is at stake is more than one’s right to earn a living,
important though that is. Freedom to choose a vocation is intrinsic
to the nature of a society based on human dignity as contemplated by
the Constitution. One’s work is part of one’s
identity
and is constitutive of one’s dignity. Every individual has a
right to take up any activity which he or she believes
himself or
herself prepared to undertake as a profession and to make that
activity the very basis of his or her life. And there
is a
relationship between the work and the human personality as a whole,
that it is a relationship that shapes and completes the
individual
over a lifetime of devoted activity. It is the foundation of person’s
existence.”
[401]
It cannot be seriously disputed that the applicants have a right to
engage in their chosen trade. The second respondent
concedes that the
impugned regulations partially impacted on the manner in which the
applicants and others could carry on their
business. However, it is
plain from the wording of the regulations that they in fact
prohibited the applicants from carrying on
their businesses. The
second respondent further avers that the impugned regulations merely
regulate the practice of these chosen
trades and therefore needs to
pass only a rationality test. It seems that this averment is premised
on
Affordable Medicines
where the Court held that it “
was
difficult to fathom”
how a person who has chosen to pursue
a medical profession could be “deterred from that ambition by
the requirement that,
if, upon qualification, he or she wishes to
dispense medicine as part of his or her practice, he or she would be
required, amongst
other things to dispense medicine from premises
that comply with good dispensing practice”. It further held
that restrictions
on the right to practice a profession are subject
to a less stringent test than restrictions on the choice of a
profession.
[402]
In
South
African Diamond Producers Organisation v Minister of Minerals and
Energy and Others
[71]
wherein the court concluded that section 20A of the Diamonds Act 56
of 1986 did not limit the freedom to choose one’s profession
as
it only regulated the practice of the trade of diamond producing and
dealing the court applied
Affordable
Medicines
,
held as follows:
“
Though
both choice of trade and its practice are protected by section 22 the
level of constitutional scrutiny that attaches to the
limitations on
each of these aspects differ. If a legislative provision would, if
analysed have a negative impact on choice of
trade, occupation,
profession, it must be tested in terms of the criterion of
reasonableness in section 36(1). If, however, the
provision only
regulates the practice of that trade and does not affect negatively
the choice of trade, occupation or profession,
the provision will
pass constitutional muster so long as it passes the rationality test
and does not violate any other rights in
the Bill of rights.”
(internal footnotes omitted).
[403]
At this stage, the standard of scrutiny applicable is not relevant,
suffice to state that the applicants have
established that the total
alcohol ban constituted an infringement on their rights to trade.
Whether or not that is justified is
another question.
Dignity
and the right to work and earn a living
[404]
The applicants allege that the wholesale ban violates their right to
dignity in that their right to work and earn
a living –
something that is necessary for their survival has been infringed.
The respondents contend that the applicants’
“foundational
basis for an infringement is lacking in the spirit of Ubuntu”.
The right to work and earn a living somewhat
conflates with the right
to trade. It cannot be denied that the wholesale alcohol ban deprived
those for who earning a living or
working depended on the sale,
distribution and related jobs. In
Somali
Association of South Africa v Limpopo Department of Economic
Development Environment and Tourism
[72]
the Supreme Court of Appeal reaffirmed the link between dignity and
one’s ability to earn a living. At paragraph 43, Navsa
JA, said
the following:
“
where
persons have no other means to support themselves and will as a
result be left destitute, the constitutional right to dignity
is
implicated. I can see no impediment to extending the principle there
stated in relation to wage-earning employment. Put differently,
if,
because of circumstances, a [person] is unable to obtain wage-earning
employment and is on the brink of starvation, which brings
with it
humiliation and degradation and that person can only sustain him-or
herself by engaging in trade, that such a person ought
to be able to
rely on the constitutional right to dignity in order to advance a
case for the granting of a licence to trade as
aforesaid.”
[405]
Counsel for the applicants contend that the repeated imposition of
the wholesale ban on alcohol has threatened
the very existence of the
first applicant and the taverns, such as the one owned by Ms Sibiya
and the consequence is that the employees
of these entities, many of
whom rely solely on the income they earn from these entities will
become jobless and destitute.
[406]
Although the above remarks were made in the context of refugees, they
are equally applicable to the facts in
casu
. It may well be
that the applicant’s foundational basis for the infringement
lacks Ubuntu. However, this contention is relevant
for the purpose of
proportionality, for now, it suffices for the applicants establish an
infringement.
[407]
The second respondent further asserts that “while the purchase
of alcohol may be the exercise of human autonomy
which occurs in a
private space (such as one’s home) any impediment thereto does
not constitute a breach of the right to
human dignity”. This
contention applies particularly to the fourth applicant, Mr Mabaso.
The applicants, and indeed the fourth
applicant contend on the other
hand that the mere purchase of alcohol involves “the exercise
of human autonomy”
simpliciter
. The second respondent
retorts that the total alcohol ban did not infringe the right to
dignity, because any limitation is “incidental”.
[408]
The right to dignity is guaranteed in section 10 of the Constitution.
In
Barkhuzen
v Napier
[73]
,
Ngcobo J stated the following
“
Self-autonomy,
or the ability to regulate one’s affairs, even to one own
detriment, is the very essence of freedom and a vital
part of
dignity.”
In
Beadica
231 CC and Others v Trustees of the Oregon Trus
t
[74]
,
affirmed this principle stating that the Constitution requires
courts:
“
employ
[the Constitution] and its values to achieve a balance that strikes
down the unacceptable excesses of freedom of contract,
while seeking
to permit individuals the dignity and autonomy of regulating their
own lives.” (internal footnotes omitted).
[409]
It is plain from the aforegoing that when the right to self-autonomy
is infringed, the right to dignity is compromised.
I emphasise that
the extent to which it may be permissible to sacrifice the right to
dignity of certain individuals for the higher
good of the country
comes into play during the proportionality exercise.
The
right to privacy
[410]
The applicants allege that the total alcohol bans violated the right
to privacy. More specifically, they say that
by precluding the
consumption of alcohol even within the confines of one’s home,
the wholesale ban unjustifiably infringes
on the right to privacy.
Furthermore, in so doing, the impugned regulation violated the rights
of adult South Africans to enjoy
an alcoholic beverage without
interfering with the rights of anyone else.
[411]
The second respondent disputes that the wholesale bans infringed on
the right to privacy on the basis that any
infringement is
incidental. In addition, so goes the contention, the fourth
applicant’s right to privacy was not infringed
because “in
the context of a global health emergency, (similar to a war or
natural disaster), it is common to sacrifice individual
rights for
the common good.” The second respondent also notes that Mr
Mabaso “expects to continue to enjoy the amenities
and
pleasures of his life as if South Africa is not grappling with a
pandemic.” Once again, the aforegoing averments are
relevant
for justification of a limitation.
[412]
The second respondent’s expert’s, Professor Myers’s
response to Mr Mabaso’s assertion
of his right to privacy is
somewhat puzzling. She ventures opinions on Mr Mabaso’s mental
health and perceived dependence
on alcohol whereas she had not met or
consulted with him, and even if she had, this would constitute
confidential information.
This part of her evidence is not only
irrelevant for the purpose of an enquiry into whether the fourth
applicant’s rights
have been limited by the wholesale ban of
alcohol, it also casts aspersions on her impartiality. Professor
Myers concedes that
“there were other evidence-based tools at
the Government’s disposal to reduce alcohol-related harms”
but adds
that “these alternatives are not readily available”
because of the restrictions on mobility introduced by the Government
“due to a number of factors.”
[414]
In
Minister
of Justice and Constitutional Development and Others v Prince
[75]
,
the Court explained that the right to privacy entails ‘the
right to be left alone’. In
Bernstein
v Bester and Others NNO
[76]
,
Ackermann J, articulated the right to privacy as follows:
“
A
very high level of protection is given to the individual’s
intimate personal sphere of life and the maintenance of its basic
preconditions and there is a final untouchable sphere of human
freedom that is beyond interference from any public authority. So
much so that, in regard to this most intimate core of privacy, no
justifiable limitation thereof can take place. But this most
intimate
core is narrowly construed. This inviolable core is left behind once
an individual enters into relationships with persons
outside this
closest intimate sphere, the individual’s activities then
acquire a social dimension and the right of privacy
becomes subject
to limitation.” (internal footnotes omitted)
[415]
The respondent’s contention that in a state of disaster certain
individual rights may be sacrificed for
the greater good is incorrect
because a state of disaster does not suspend the Constitution, rights
under it remain intact and
limitations on them must be justified
under the limitation clause. To this end, in
Freedom
Front Plus v President of the Republic of South Africa
[77]
,
the Court said the following:
“
The
DMA does not permit a deviation from the normal constitutional order.
It permits the executive to enact regulations or issue
directions. It
may well be that these regulations will limit fundamental rights. But
the fundamental rights remain intact in the
sense that any limitation
is still subject to being tested against section 36 of the
Constitution. For this simple reason, it is
not for the DMA to
include a specific provision preserving the competence of courts to
rule on the validity of the regulations.
Under states of disaster,
this competence remains intact. It is never removed or suspended to
begin with.”
[416]
It follows therefore that the impugned Regulations, insofar as the
fourth applicant is concerned limit the right
to privacy. Whether or
not that passes the s 36 constitutional requirement is yet to be
determined.
JUSTIFICATION
[417]
Section 36 of the Constitution provides thus:
“
36.
Limitation of rights
1. The rights in the Bill
of Rights may be limited only in terms of law of general application
to the extent that the limitation
is reasonable and in an open
justifiable and democratic society based on human dignity, equality
and freedom, taking into account
all relevant factors, including:
a.
the nature of the right;
b.
the importance of the purpose of the limitation;
c.
the nature and extent of the limitation;
d.
the relationship between the limitation and its purpose; and
e.
less restrictive means to achieve the purpose.
2.
Except as provided in subsection (1) or in any other provision of the
Constitution no law
may limit any right entrenched in the Bill of
Rights.
[418]
The way a court must approach a s 36 enquiry is set out in S v
Makwanyane
[78]
thus:
“
[135]
The limitation of constitutional rights for a purpose that
is
reasonable and necessary in a democratic society involves the
weighing up of competing values, and ultimately an assessment
based
on proportionality. This is implicit in the provisions of s 33(1).
The fact that different rights have different implications
for
democracy and, in the case of our Constitution, “for an open
and democratic society based on freedom and equality”
means
that that there is no absolute standard which can be laid down for
determining reasonableness and necessity. Principles can
be
established, but the application of those principles to particular
circumstances can only be done on a case by case basis. This
is
inherent in the requirement of proportionality, which calls for the
balancing of different interests. In the balancing process,
the
relevant considerations will include the nature of the right that is
limited and its importance to an open and democratic society
based on
freedom and equality, the purpose for which the rights limited and
the importance of that purpose to such a society, the
extent of the
limitation, its efficacy and, particularly where the limitation has
to be necessary, whether the desired ends could
reasonably be
achieved through other means less damaging to the right in question.”
LIMITATION:ANALYSIS
[419] I have
in this judgment found that the applicants’ constitutional
rights have been violated. The applicants
contend that the second
respondent has not shown that the alcohol bans’ s stated
objective (i.e. to free up health resources
for Covid-19 patients)
could not be achieved through the use of other measures that fall
short of a total ban on the sale of alcohol.
The
importance and purpose of the limitation
[420]
Counsel for the respondents emphasised that the main purpose of the
impugned regulations is the respondents’
duty to save lives in
the face of the threat of the Covid-19 pandemic. It is undisputed
that the rationale for the liquor bans
therefore was to relieve the
pressure on the healthcare system created by alcohol-induced trauma
as the rate of the infections
was rising rapidly and there was an
increase in hospitalisations.
[421]
I accept that, as already alluded to in this judgment that the
limitation posed by the impugned regulations serves
a legitimate and
compelling government purpose.
The
nature and extent of the limitation
.
[422]
With regard to the nature and extent of the limitation, I have
already held that the impugned regulations encroach
on the
applicants’ right to dignity, the right to privacy and the
right to trade.
The
relationship between the limitation and its purpose
[423]
The respondents aver that there is evidence before court that the
alcohol bans decreased trauma presentations
in hospitals. In the
section dealing with necessity in terms of section 27(3) of the DMA,
I have set out why I consider the impugned
provisions to be
ultra
vires
. The principles applicable therein, are equally applicable
to the proportionality considerations.
[424]
To recap, I have held that the respondents did not prove that the
wholesale bans of alcohol on its own had the
effect of reducing the
demands on hospitals, trauma and emergency units as there were other
restrictive measures implemented. Put
in another way, when the
impugned provisions were invoked during December 2020, there was only
correlation and no clear causal
connection between the imposition and
any reduction in trauma cases because of other restrictions which
also had the same effect.
That there was correlation between alcohol
availability and trauma cases did not establish the requisite
causation.
[425]
With regard to the economic impact of the bans of alcohol, there is
no dispute between the parties that the lockdown
restrictions, have
generally negatively affected the South African economy and the
labour market. This is in fact the case worldwide.
What is in dispute
is the extent of that impact. According to the founding affidavit,
the economic loss to the country as a result
of the alcohol bans in
summary includes:
(a)
Lost taxes (VAT, CIT, PAYE), estimated at R25 billion in the 2020
calendar year.
(b)
Job losses are estimated at 165,000.
(c)
Cancellation of a R6 billion investment in the country by Heineken
resulting in additional loss of 117,000
jobs.
[426]
Insofar as the other applicants are concerned, I have already
indicated that in the summary of the standing of
the parties that the
second applicant lost her means of livelihood, and so did six of her
eight employees assisting her in her
tavern. Likewise, the third
applicant attests to the fact that in order for the business to meet
its overheads, he has had to dig
into his own savings, resulting in
loss of about R1 500, 000.00 worth of savings. Insofar as the fourth
applicant is concerned,
when his right to privacy (the right to
indulge in alcohol in the privacy of his own home) is put on a
proportionality scale, I
find that the purpose of the regulations as
advanced by the respondents is far more important and weightier than
the fourth applicant’s
right toprivacy. This is so because our
constitution is communal, invoking as it does the values and spirit
of Ubuntu, as correctly
pointed out by the second respondent.
Therefore, the limitation on the fourth applicant’s right is
justified.
Less
restrictive means to achieve the purpose
[427]
The Constitutional Court has emphasised that a limitation will not be
proportional if other less restrictive means
could have been used to
achieve the same end.
[79]
And if it is disproportionate it is unlikely that the limitation will
meet the standard set by the Constitution, for section 36
“
does
not permit a sledgehammer to be used to crack a nut”
.
[80]
In
Albutt
v Centre for the Study of Violence and Reconciliation and
Others
[81]
Ngcobo
CJ explains the principle as follows:
“
[51]
The Executive has a wide discretion in selecting the means to achieve
its constitutionally permissible objectives.
Courts may not interfere
with the means selected simply because they do not like them, or
because there are more appropriate means
that could have been
selected. But, where the decision is challenged on the grounds of
rationality, courts are obliged to examine
the means selected to
determine whether they are rationally related to the objective sought
to be achieved. What must be stressed
is that the purpose of the
enquiry is to determine not whether there are other means that could
have been used, but whether the
means selected are rationally related
to the objective sought to be achieved. And, if objectively, speaking
they are not, they
fall short of the standard demanded by the
Constitution.
[428] On the
question of proportionality, the second respondent states that:
“
As
regards less restrictive means, I respectfully submit that there are
no less restrictive means to achieve the purpose of the
limitation.
Mechanisms such as reducing trading hours or restricting points of
sale or advertising are not feasible alternatives
to the temporary
suspension. They do not have the equivalent (or even near equivalent
savings on increasing capacity in the health
system as quickly as
what a temporary suspension is able to do.”
However, no evidence is
put up in support of this averment. The second respondent further
states that less restrictive measures
“have been imposed
earlier in the month with no desired result on the scale that was
required.”
[429] The
respondents presented on this point the evidence of Dr Parry who
stated that “a partial ban” (meaning
a ban on on-premises
liquor sales only) would increase trauma presentations by
approximately 50% as compared to the full ban.
[430] Counsel
for the applicants points out that Professor Parry’s estimate
is incorrect and the error arose because
he assumes that the period
in June 2020, involved a “
partial liquor sales ban”
whereas Regulation 44 of 28 May 2020 did not prohibit the sale of
liquor for on-premises consumption and the country was in Alert
Level
4. This assertion is uncontroverted by the respondents. According to
the applicants, there therefore is no evidence supporting
the
respondents’ contention there are no other less restrictive
measures that could be effective in reducing the demand for
trauma
beds. The upshot of the aforegoing is that the second respondent has
not discharged the burden to prove that the impugned
regulations are
proportionate or why other measures would not achieve the alcohol
ban’s stated goal.
[431]
The respondent’s expert witnesses, Dr Makgetla and Professor
Parry say that the second respondent could
not be expected to do an
exercise showing that no other restrictive measures could be
effective in reducing the demands on the
trauma beds. The second
respondent on the other hand accepts in her affidavit that
proportionality requires her to assess whether
the impugned
regulation “invades the fundamental right as little as
possible”. It is important to note that section
36 (1) (e) of
the Constitution requires that regard must be had to “
less
restrictive means to achieve the purpose
”.
In
Teddy
Bear Clinic
[82]
the
court said the following:
“
As
a starting point, it is important to note that where a justification
analysis rests on factual or policy considerations, the
party seeking
to justify the impugned law - usually the organ of state responsible
for its administration must put material regarding
such
considerations before the court. Furthermore “[w]here the State
fails to produce data and there are cogent objective
factors pointing
in the opposite direction the state will have failed to establish
that the limitation is reasonable and justifiable.”
(internal
footnotes omitted)
[432]
The evidence in this matter establishes that other restrictive
measures would be effective in reducing the demand
for trauma beds.
Whilst alcohol is but one of the factors increasing trauma
presentations thereby burdening hospitals, no evidence
establishes
the extent to which alcohol bans, on its own reduces trauma
presentations. This is exacerbated by the fact that the
data provided
by Professor Parry is incorrect as alluded to in this judgment. In my
view, based on the evidence, there are clearly
less restrictive means
available for the achievement of the goals of the impugned
regulations. Furthermore, with the first alcohol
ban in March 2020,
it is understandable that the second respondent could not have been
expected to have done an exercise showing
that no other restrictive
measures could be effective as the pandemic was relatively new. The
impugned regulations came into effect
during December 2020 and
constituted the third total alcohol ban. The second respondent did
not only have to consider whether her
stated objective could be
achieved by other less restrictive measures, she also had to consider
whether the economic costs attendant
on a total ban could be
mitigated by the use of less restrictive measures that fell short of
a total ban. In the matter at hand,
without extricating the impact of
alcohol on trauma presentations, it is nigh impossible to find
justification for the wholesale
ban of alcohol imposed on 29 December
2020. This is particularly so because “a provision which limits
fundamental rights
must, if it is to withstand scrutiny, be
appropriately tailored and narrowly focused.”
[83]
CONCLUSION
[433]
In conclusion, I have in this judgment held that the respondents the
impugned provisions violated the applicants’
constitutional
rights, and that with regard to the first to the third applicants,
the prohibition is not justified in an open and
democratic society. I
have also held that the respondents have failed to satisfy the
requirement of necessity as envisaged in 27(3)
of the DMA. It follows
that I would issue the following order:
433.1
It is declared that Regulation 44 and Regulation 86 promulgated
in
Government Gazette No 1423 on 29 December 2020 by the Second
Respondent are unlawful and have no force and effect.
433.2.
The respondents are to pay the costs of this application including
the costs of two counsel.
NDITA
J
Adv
for the Applicants
:
John
Campbell
SC
jcampbell@36commercial.co.uk
082 446 5010
Alfred
Cockrell
SC
acockrel@law.co.za
083 296 4270
Michael
Tsele
mvtsele@gmail.com
083 301 2182
Instructed
by
:
Bowman
Filfillan Inc, Sandton
Ref: Mr Suhail Mohammed
071 174 7675
Suhail.mohammed@bowmanslaw.com
c/o Bowman Gilfillan Inc,
Cape Town
Ref: A Anderson
021-480 7818
alan.wright@bowmanslaw.com
For
the Respondents
:
Nazreen
Bawa
SC
nazbawa@iafrica.com
021-424 9222
Karrisha
Pillay
SC
karrisha@capebar.co.za
083 411 0385
Ncumisa
Mayosi
ncumisamayosi@capebar.co.za
083 299 8659
Adiel
Nacerodien
nacerodien@capebar.co.za
072 299 7932
Instructed
by
:
State Attorney
Ref: Shireen Karjiker
082 545 8520
skarjiker@justice.gov.za
cvisagie@justice.gov.za
[1]
Natal
Rugby Union v Gould
[1998] ZASCA 62
;
1999 (1) SA 432
(SCA).
[2]
Independent
Electoral Commission v Langeberg Municipality
[2001] ZACC 23
;
2001 (3) SA 925
(CC)
at
[11]
.
## [3]S
v Manamelaand
Another (Director-General of Justice Intervening) 200(3) SA 1 at
[12].
[3]
S
v Manamela
and
Another (Director-General of Justice Intervening) 200(3) SA 1 at
[12].
## [4]Normandien
Farms v South African Agency for the Promotion of Petroleum
Exploration & Exploitation SOC Ltd & Another
2020
(4) SA 409 (CC).
[4]
Normandien
Farms v South African Agency for the Promotion of Petroleum
Exploration & Exploitation SOC Ltd & Another
2020
(4) SA 409 (CC).
[5]
AA
Investments (Pty) Ltd v Micro Finance Regulatory Council
[2006] ZACC 9
;
2007
(1) SA 343
(CC).
[6]
2000 (2) SA 1 (CC) (2000 (1).
# [7]Pheko
and Others v Ekurhuleni Metropolitan Municipality (Socio-Economic
Rights Institute of SA as Amicus Curiae)
2012
(2) SA 598 (CC).
[7]
Pheko
and Others v Ekurhuleni Metropolitan Municipality (Socio-Economic
Rights Institute of SA as Amicus Curiae)
2012
(2) SA 598 (CC).
[8]
Minister
of Justice and Correctional Services and Others v Estate Late James
Stransham-Ford and Others
2017 (3) SA 152
(SCA) at [21]-[27].
[9]
2016 (6) SA 210 (LT).
[10]
(835/2018)
[2019] ZASCA 140
(1 October 2019).
[11]
Baleni
and Others v Regional Manager Eastern Cape Department of Mineral
Resources and Others
2021 (1) SA 110
(GP);
[2020] ZAGPPHC 485 (11
September 2020) at [96]; [97] to [101].
[12]
2018
(3) SA 515
(GP) at [51] to [53].
[13]
2011
(4) SA 113
(CC) at [ 84]
[14]
Esau
and
Others v Minister of Co-Operative Governance and Traditional Affairs
and Others
2021 (3) SA 593 (SCA).
[15]
(1741/2021)
[2021] ZAWCHC 261
(3 December 2021).
[16]
1997
(3) SA 514 (CC).
[17]
Fair-Trade Independent Tobacco Association v President, RSA and
Another
2020(6) SA 513 (GP) at [82].
## [18]
2019
(4) SA 406 (CC).
[18]
2019
(4) SA 406 (CC).
## [19]Minister
ofCo-Operative
Governance and Traditional Affairsv
De Beer & Another[2021]
3 All SA 723 (SCA);Esausupra.
[19]
Minister
of
Co-Operative
Governance and Traditional Affairs
v
De Beer & Another
[2021]
3 All SA 723 (SCA);
Esau
supra.
## [20]"The
Principle of Legality In South African Administrative Law" by
Cora Hoexter [2004] MqLawJl 8; (2004) 4 Maquarie Law Journal
165.
[20]
"
The
Principle of Legality In South African Administrative Law" by
Cora Hoexter [2004] MqLawJl 8; (2004) 4 Maquarie Law Journal
165.
## [21]MEC
for Environmental Affairs and Development Planning v Clairison CC
2013 (6) SA 235 (SCA) at [19].
[21]
MEC
for Environmental Affairs and Development Planning v Clairison CC
2013 (6) SA 235 (SCA) at [19].
[22]
(451/12)
[2015] ZASCA 2
(4 March 2015)
at [98].
[23]
National
Justice Compania Naviera SA v Prudential Assurance Co Ltd ('The
Ikarian Reefer') [1993] 2 Lloyd's Rep 68 [QB (Com Ct)]
at 81 –
82. Approved in Pasquale Della Gatta, MV; MV Filippo Lembo; Imperial
Marine Co v Deiulemar Compagnia Di Navigazione
Spa
2012 (1) SA 58
(SCA) para 27, fn 12 and Schneider NO and Another v AA and Another
2010 (5) SA 203
(WCC) at 211E-I.
[24]
Stock
v Stock
1981 (3) SA 1280
(A) at 1296 E-G. See also Jacobs and
Another v Transnet Ltd t/a Metrorail and Another
2015 (1) SA 139
(SCA) at [15].
[25]
[2018]All SA 297 (GJ) at [18].
[26]
2017
(2) SA 1 (SCA).
[27]
Holtzhauzen v Roodt
1997
(4) SA 766
(W) at 772C-D.
[28]
Esau
supra
at
[118] and [121].
[29]
Bato Star Fishing Ltd v Minister of Environmental Affairs &
Tourism and Others
[2004] ZACC 15
;
2004 (4) SA 490
(CC) at
[46]
to [49].
[30]
Barkhuizen v Napier
[2007] ZACC 5
;
2007 (5) SA 323
(CC) at
[57]
.
[31]
Somali Association of South Africa v Limpopo Department of Economic
Development Environment and Tourism
2015 (1) SA 151
(SCA) at [43].
## [32]S
v Makwanyane & Another
1995
(3) SA 391 (CC).
[32]
S
v Makwanyane & Another
1995
(3) SA 391 (CC).
[33]
Minister of Justice v Hofmeyer [1993] 2 ALL SA 232 (A).
## [34]Esausupraat
[131] to [132].
[34]
Esau
supra
at
[131] to [132].
[35]
Esau
supra
at
[14] to [16].
## [36]Natal
Joint Municipal Pension Fund v Endumeni Municipality
2012 (4) SA 593
(SCA) at [18].
[36]
Natal
Joint Municipal Pension Fund v Endumeni Municipality
2012 (4) SA 593
(SCA) at [18].
[37]
See footnote 14
supra
at
[84] to [87].
[38]
2021
(7) BCLR 735
(WCC) at [195] to [199].
[39]
Smit v Minister of Justice and Correctional Services & Others
2021 (1) SACR 472
(CC) at [31].
[40]
Esau
supra
at
[58] to [60].
[41]
Moise
v Greater Germiston Transitional Local Council: Minister of Justice
and Constitutional Development Intervening (Women’s
Legal
Centre as amicus curiae)
[2001] ZACC 21
;
2001
(4) SA 491
(CC) at [18]; Minister of Home Affairs v NICRO
[2004] ZACC 10
;
2005 (3) SA 280
(CC) at
[36]
.
## [42]Esausupraat
[139] to [141].
[42]
Esau
supra
at
[139] to [141].
## [43]S
v Manamela and Another (Director General of Justice Intervening)
2000
(3) SA 1 (CC) at [32].
[43]
S
v Manamela and Another (Director General of Justice Intervening)
2000
(3) SA 1 (CC) at [32].
[44]
Qwelane v SAHRC & Another
[2021] ZACC 22
(20 July 2021).
## [45]Minister
of Cooperative Governance and Traditional Affairs v De Beer and
Another
[2021] ZASCA 95; [2021] at [101]; [105]-[106].
[45]
Minister
of Cooperative Governance and Traditional Affairs v De Beer and
Another
[2021] ZASCA 95; [2021] at [101]; [105]-[106].
## [46]City
of Tshwane Metropolitan Municipality v Cable City (Pty) Ltd
2010 (3)
SA 589 (SCA) at [10].
[46]
City
of Tshwane Metropolitan Municipality v Cable City (Pty) Ltd
2010 (3)
SA 589 (SCA) at [10].
[47]
Sizabonke
Civils CC t/a Pilcon Projects v Zululand District Municipality &
Others
2011 (4) SA 406
(KZP) at [17].
[48]
Bato Star Fishing Ltd
supra
at [91] to [92].
[49]
Minister
of Health and Another v New Clicks SA (Pty) Ltd and Others
2006
(2) SA 311
(CC) at [126].
## [50]Esausupraat
[101].
[50]
Esau
supra
at
[101].
## [51]Biowatch
Trust v Registrar Genetic Resources and Others
2009 (6) SA 232 (CC)
at [56].
[51]
Biowatch
Trust v Registrar Genetic Resources and Others
2009 (6) SA 232 (CC)
at [56].
[52]
2017
(3) 152 SCA
[53]
See
also Baleni v Regional Manager, Eastern Cape Mineral Resources and
Others
2021 (1) SA 110
(GP);
[2020] ZAGPPHC 485 (11 September 2020)
[54]
2011
(4) SA 113
(CC) at 84
[55]
Essau
and Others v Minister of Co-Operative Governance and Traditional
Affairs and Others
2021 (3) SA 593 (SCA)
[56]
1984(1)
SA 623 (A) 634-635.
[57]
2017
(2) SA 1
SCA 35-52
[58]
[2018]
All SA 297
(GJ) at [[18]
[59]
2012
(2) SA 598
(CC) 2012 (4) SA BCLR 388
[60]
Case
no 22311/2020
[2021] ZAGPPHC 168 (24 March 2021)
[61]
[1999] ZACC 5
;
1999
(3) SA 191
(CC) para 1. See also paras 123-124 ‘Reagan J
dissenting)
[62]
S
v Makwanyane and Another 1195(3) SA
[63]
Price
Waterhouse Coopers Inc & others v National Potato Co-Operative
Ltd & another (451/12)(2015)ZASCA (4March 2015) at
[98]
[64]
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bradford
Hill criteria
[65]
https:\\neuro.psychiatryonline.org
Ibid
[66]
Sir
Austen Bradford Hill ‘The environment and disease: association
or causation?’ Journal of the Royal Society of
Medicine, 2015
Volume 108 (1). P32-37, at p36 (first publishes in the JRSM Vol 58,
Issue 5, May 1965
[67]
Bell
E
,
Judicial Assessment of Expert Evidence (2010) Judicial Studies
Institute Journal at p 77
[68]
Michael
v Linksfield Park Clinic (Pty) Ltd 2001 (3) SA 1188
[69]
2011
(1) SA 400
(CC)at para 36
[70]
2006(3)
SA 247 (CC) para 59
[71]
2006(3)
SA 247
[72]
2015(1)
SA 151
[73]
2007(5)
SA 323 (CC) para 57
[74]
2020(5)
SA 247 (CC) at para 71
[75]
2018
(6) SA 393
(CC) para 45
[76]
[1996] ZACC 2
;
1996
(2) SA 751
(CC) para 77
[77]
[2020]
All SA 782
(GP) para 65
[78]
Fn
12 above
[79]
Teddy
Bear Clinic for Abused Children and Another v Minister of Justice
and Constitutional Development and Another 2014 (2) SA168
CC para 95
[80]
S
v Manamela and Another (Director-General Justice Intervening
(CCT25/99)
[2000] ZACC 5
(14 April 2000)
[81]
2010
(3) SA 293
CC para 49-51
[82]
Fn
24 para 94
[83]
Fn
29 para
98
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