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# South Africa: Supreme Court of Appeal
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## Road Accident Fund v Sarah Wilson Lewis (1209/2023)
[2025] ZASCA 174; [2026] 1 All SA 70 (SCA) (18 November 2025)
Road Accident Fund v Sarah Wilson Lewis (1209/2023)
[2025] ZASCA 174; [2026] 1 All SA 70 (SCA) (18 November 2025)
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sino date 18 November 2025
THE
SUPREME COURT OF APPEAL OF SOUTH AFRICA
JUDGMENT
Reportable
Case
no: 1209/2023
In
the matter between:
ROAD
ACCIDENT FUND
APPLICANT
and
SARAH
WILSON LEWIS
RESPONDENT
Neutral
citation:
Road
Accident Fund v Sarah Wilson Lewis
(1209/2023)
[2025] ZASCA 174
(18 November 2025)
Coram
:
PETSE, MBHA AND DLODLO AJJA
Heard
:
25 August 2025
Delivered
:
18 November 2025
Summary:
Constitutional law
–
whether the
refusal of the applicant’s application for leave to amend its
plea, violated its right to have a dispute capable
of resolution by
the application of law decided in a fair public hearing before a
court, as contemplated in s 34 of the Constitution
of the Republic of
South Africa – whether the lapsed application for leave to
appeal should be reinstated – whether
the compromise concluded
between the parties was actuated by common incorrect assumption of a
present or past fact and therefore
void – whether the amendment
sought by the applicant was mala fide or not – whether the
applicant has demonstrated
exceptional circumstances warranting
variation of the order refusing leave to appeal – if leave to
appeal is granted, whether
the judgment of the court a quo should be
overturned.
ORDER
On
application for reconsideration
: referred by Molemela P in terms
of
s 17(2)(
f
) of the
Superior Courts Act 10 of 2013
:
The
application for reconsideration in terms of
s 17(2)
(f)
is
dismissed with costs, including costs of two counsel.
JUDGMENT
Dlodlo AJA (Petse and
Mbha AJJA concurring):
[1]
On 18 May 2023, the Western Cape Division of the High Court, Cape
Town (the high court), refused
an application by the applicant, the
Road Accident Fund (RAF), to amend its plea by withdrawing an
admission therein. On 27 July
2023, the high court refused an
application for leave to appeal against its order. On 18 October
2023, the Supreme Court of Appeal
(per Weiner JA and Musi AJA)
refused the application to this Court in terms of s 17(2)
(b)
of the Superior Courts Act 10 of 2013 (the
Superior Courts Act). On
4
April 2024, the President of this Court referred the order refusing
leave to appeal to this Court for reconsideration and, if
necessary,
variation in terms of
s 17(2)
(f)
of the
Superior Courts Act.
This
application arises from the high court’s refusal to grant
the RAF leave to amend its plea in circumstances where it had
previously
admitted liability for 100 per cent of the respondent’s
proven or agreed damages following the death of her husband in a
motor vehicle accident. The RAF now seeks to withdraw that admission
based on the later opinion of a new expert, Dr Khan, and to
repudiate
the joint experts’ agreement in relation to causation and
quantum, which was subsequently endorsed by the high
court pursuant
to an agreement between the parties.
[2]
The respondent, Ms Sarah Lewis, instituted a claim against the RAF
arising from a motor vehicle
accident in November 2006 in which her
husband died. Summons was issued in September 2009, and the matter
endured a long procedural
history involving multiple legal
representatives and experts over the years. The respondent’s
claim included damages for:
past and future loss of earnings and/or
earning capacity; loss of support; general damages; and medical
expenses.
Both parties appointed
psychiatrists and clinical psychologists, whose joint expert minutes
agreed that the respondent suffered
a serious psychiatric injury as a
result of her husband’s death in the accident.
[3]
An industrial psychologist, Dr Lourens, was jointly appointed by the
parties to assess the respondent’s
loss of earnings and earning
capacity. His assessments were based on the prior consensus among
psychiatrists that the respondent’s
psychiatric injury was
accident-related. The RAF admitted liability for 100 per cent of the
respondent’s proven or agreed
damages in its 2022 amended plea,
and settled claims for general damages and medical expenses on the
basis of her psychiatric injury.
However, after appointing a new
psychiatrist, Dr Khan (based in the USA), and receiving her reports
in late 2022, the RAF attempted
to amend its plea. It sought, inter
alia, to deny that the respondent had suffered a psychiatric injury
caused by the accident;
to argue that there was no causal link
between her mental state and the collision; and to assert that she
retained residual earning
capacity.
[4]
The respondent opposed the amendment, arguing that the RAF had
already compromised the issue of
causality and, as a result, could
not now withdraw its prior admissions or repudiate expert agreements
reached in pre-trial proceedings.
The RAF also attempted to repudiate
the findings of an Industrial Psychologist, Dr Lourens, despite his
appointment having been
proposed by the RAF itself and based on joint
instructions. When the matter came before the high court, it found in
favour of the
RAF in this regard, and thus leave to appeal was not
sought pertaining to this aspect.
[5]
The causal connection between the demise of the respondent’s
husband on
18 November 2006, in the motor vehicle accident, and
her subsequent psychiatric injury is central to the respondent’s
claims
in the action. Four of the respondent’s claims, namely
her claims for past medical expenses, future medical expenses,
general
damages, and loss of earnings and/or earning capacity, are
directly dependent upon the issue of causality.
[6]
The issues before this Court presently are: (a) whether the lapsed
application for leave to appeal
should be reinstated; (b) whether the
compromise concluded between the parties was actuated by a correct
assumption of a present
or past fact and is therefore voidable; and
(c) whether the amendment sought to be effected by the RAF was mala
fide or not.
Whether
the lapsed application for leave to appeal should be reinstated.
[7]
The RAF seeks to revive its application that lapsed due to
non-compliance with procedural rules.
This then raises the question
of whether the RAF meets the legal standard for reinstating its
application. For reasons that will
become apparent in this judgment,
the RAF has failed to meet the threshold for such exceptional relief.
The applicable legal framework
is indeed well settled.
[8]
In
Uitenhage
Transitional Local Council v South African Revenue Service
(
Uitenhage
),
[1]
this Court
emphasised
that
condonation should not to be granted merely for the asking. The Court
held that a full, detailed, and accurate account of the
causes of the
delay and their effects must be furnished so as to enable the court
to understand clearly the reasons and assess
the responsibility.
Where the non-compliance is time-related, the applicant must spell
out the dates, duration, and extent of any
obstacle relied upon. This
Court put it thus:
‘
One
would have hoped that the many admonitions concerning, what is
required of an applicant in a condonation application would be
trite
knowledge among practitioners who are entrusted with the preparation
of appeals to this Court: condonation is not to be had
merely for the
asking; a full, detailed and accurate account of the causes of the
delay and their effects must be furnished so
as to enable the Court
to understand clearly the reasons and to assess the responsibility.
It must be obvious that if the non-compliance
is time-related then
the date, duration and extent of any obstacle on which reliance is
placed must be spelled out
.’
This
principle was reaffirmed in
Mulaudzi
v Old Mutual Life Insurance Company (South Africa) Limited and Others
(
Mulaudzi
)
[2]
where Ponnan JA stressed that:
‘
What
calls for an explanation is not only the delay in the timeous
prosecution of the appeal, but also the delay in seeking condonation.
An appellant should, whenever he
realises
that
he has not complied with a rule of this [C]ourt, apply for
condonation without delay. A full, detailed and accurate account
of
the causes of the delay and their effects must be furnished so as to
enable the Court to understand clearly the reasons and
to assess the
responsibility. Factors which usually weigh with this [C]ourt in
considering an application for condonation include
the degree of
non-compliance, the explanation therefor, the importance of the case,
a respondent’s interest in the finality
of the judgment of the
court below, the convenience of this [C]ourt and the avoidance of
unnecessary delay in the administration
of justice.’
[3]
[9]
In
Member
of the Executive Council for Health, Eastern Cape Province v Y N obo
E N
(
Y
N obo E N
)
[4]
Goosen JA reiterated that the touchstone for reinstatement is the
‘interests of justice’, which must be assessed with
reference to the facts and circumstances of the particular case.
Although prospects of success on appeal are generally important,
they
are not decisive. The Court made it clear that:
‘
The
factors relevant to this enquiry include the nature of the relief
sought, the extent and cause of the delay, the effect of the
delay on
the administration of justice and other litigants, and the prospects
of success.
[5]
…
Although
the prospects of success on appeal is generally an important
consideration in relation to the reinstatement of an appeal,
it is
not decisive. Where the degree of non-compliance is flagrant and
substantial, condonation may be refused irrespective of
the prospects
of success. If the explanation for such flagrant and substantial
non-compliance is manifestly inadequate or there
is no explanation at
all, the prospects of success need not be considered.’
[6]
[10]
Applying these principles to the facts of this case, the RAF’s
position falls far short of the required
standard. On 4 April 2024,
the President granted the RAF a lifeline under
s 17(2)
(f)
,
recognising that the RAF had been denied leave both by the high court
and this Court, on the basis that the case potentially implicated
issues of grave injustice. In terms of
rule 10
, read with
rule 10A
,
of this Court’s rules, the RAF was required to file its heads
of argument and practice note within six weeks of lodging
the appeal
record. This meant the RAF had until 15 August 2024 to do so.
However, the RAF failed to meet this deadline. It did
not file its
heads of argument or practice note timeously. Instead, it attempted
to lodge these documents on 15 August 2024, the
last possible day,
outside the Registrar’s business hours of filing of documents
with this Court. Understandably, the Registrar
refused to accept the
documents. There is also no proper explanation as to why it took the
RAF almost four weeks (25 days) from
15 August 2024 to 9 September
2024 to prepare and file a reinstatement and condonation application
after the appeal had lapsed.
[11]
The RAF should have known that this failure to comply with the rules
would not be without consequences. It
had already benefitted from the
exceptional indulgence of a
s17(2)
(f)
directive. Once that
directive was granted, one would have expected the RAF to act with
heightened diligence in prosecuting the
appeal. Instead, it failed to
comply with a mandatory filing requirement, and provided no
satisfactory explanation for its failure.
The RAF has not offered a
full, detailed, or accurate account of why it did not file earlier,
what steps it took to ensure compliance,
or why it left compliance to
the very last day. This is a textbook example of the kind of conduct
cautioned against in
Uitenhage
and
Mulaudzi
.
[12]
What is more is that both the delay and tactical about-turns are
highly prejudicial to the respondent. The
RAF is ultimately seeking
an indulgence from this Court, and one would have expected it to
prosecute its appeal not with ineptitude,
but with a sense of
urgency, given that this litigation has already spanned over 14
years. Even if the Court were to consider the
RAF’s prospects
of success, those, too, are slim. The RAF argues that the parties’
compromise was based on a common
incorrect assumption that the
respondent had suffered a psychiatric injury, thereby rendering the
agreement void in terms of the
principles analysed in
Osman
v Standard Bank National Credit Corp Ltd
(
Osman
)
.
[7]
However, this argument is not borne out by the facts. At the time the
settlement was reached, all expert reports, on both sides,
confirmed
the respondent’s psychiatric injury. Dr Khan’s opinion
came many years later and does not retroactively render
that
consensus mistaken. In totality, the RAF’s application is
characterised by inexcusable delay, a lack of a full and frank
explanation, procedural prejudice to the respondent, and weak
prospects of success. Goosen JA’s warning in
YN
obo EN
applies squarely: where non-compliance is flagrant and the
explanation is deficient, condonation may be refused regardless of
the merits.
[8]
Whether
the compromise concluded between the parties was induced by an
incorrect assumption of a present or past fact and is therefore
voidable.
[13]
Our law recognises that a contract, including a compromise or
settlement agreement, may be set aside if it
was entered into on the
basis of a common mistake of fact. The mistake must relate to an
existing or past fact that is material
to the agreement, and must be
shared by both parties at the time the agreement was concluded. This
principle was authoritatively
considered in
Osman
where
the court held that ‘what is required in order to render a
contract void is a common assumption which turns out to be
unfounded’.
[9]
A contract
may be void if both parties operated under a common incorrect
assumption concerning a fact that formed the basis of
their
agreement. However, not every mistake justifies setting aside a
compromise. It is important to note that where only one party
labours
under a mistaken belief and the other does not share that mistake,
the contract will not be voidable. As stated in
Osman
,
and captured in the quote below, the fact that one party is mistaken
unilaterally does not suffice to undo the agreement:
‘
The
fact that plaintiff’s assumption that he could settle his
indebtedness to Porter Sigma by paying R1 400 turned out to
be
unfounded, does not, in the circumstances, avail plaintiff and does
not constitute a ground for avoiding the settlement concluded
with
defendant. Whatever assumption plaintiff might have made, the
compromise concluded between the parties was not entered into
on the
basis of that assumption as far as defendant was concerned.’
[10]
[14]
This quote affirms that a unilateral assumption that turns out to be
wrong does not amount to a mutual mistake
and does not vitiate the
compromise. In the instant case, the RAF seeks to avoid the binding
effect of its pre-trial admissions
and the settlement of certain
claims by essentially contending that the parties laboured under a
common incorrect assumption, namely,
that the respondent had suffered
a psychiatric injury caused by the motor vehicle accident. This
argument, however, does not withstand
scrutiny when viewed through
the lens of the legal principles set out above. At the time the
compromise was concluded, there was
extensive evidence supporting the
psychiatric diagnosis. The parties’ respective psychiatrists
(Dr Le Fevre and Prof. Zabow)
and psychologists (Ms Coetzee and Ms
Burke) had produced joint minutes confirming the causal link between
the respondent’s
psychiatric condition and the accident. The
industrial psychologist, Dr Lourens, whose reports underpinned the
quantification of
damages, based his findings on the consensus
reached by these mental health professionals. The RAF explicitly
admitted in its amended
plea that the respondent had suffered a
“significant psychiatric injury” as a result of the
accident. It settled damages
accordingly. The agreement was reached
on the strength of expert consensus, and there is no evidence that
the RAF was labouring
under any mistaken belief or that it
misunderstood the facts at the time. On the contrary, what is beyond
question from the facts,
is that both parties were under no illusion
as to the ambit of their agreement that culminated in the compromise.
[15]
The later emergence of Dr Khan’s opinion (years after the
settlement) does not retrospectively prove
that the original
assumption was incorrect, much less that it was shared by both
parties and material at the time of contracting.
The high court
correctly found that the assumption was not incorrect, and even if it
were later disputed, it was not a mutual mistake.
The court a quo
held the following:
‘
In
President Versekeringsmaatskappy Bpk
v Moodley
, two guiding rules were
distilled from the various authorities under discussion in that
matter. Firstly, there must have been a
bona
fide
mistake on the part of the
party seeking to amend and secondly, the amendment must not cause
prejudice to the other side which
cannot be cured by an appropriate
order as to costs.
In
this instance there was clearly no
mistake
on the part of RAF when it made the admission
.
The
admission in fact, was based on the advice received from the experts
it consulted on this issue, namely a psychiatrist, Professor
Zabow,
and a clinical psychologist, Ms Burke. At the time of making the
admission, RAF’s experts had also met with the experts
consulted by the Plaintiff on this issue, namely Dr le Fèvre,
a psychiatrist, and Ms Coetzee, a psychologist. These experts
were
all in agreement regarding the issue of causality. The mere fact that
Dr Khan at a later stage expressed an opinion which
differs from the
other experts on whose advice(s) RAF relied on when it elected to
make the election, cannot in this instance be
a good reason to
withdraw the admission made. It is not a new ground of defence in the
true sense of the word that comes to RAF’s
knowledge for the
first time after it filed its Amended Plea. It is merely a different
opinion by another expert on an issue which
was already within the
knowledge of the parties. When RAF elected to make the admission, it
surely must have known a possibility
exists that another expert may
hold a different opinion. However, it was prepared to accept that
risk in the interest of limiting
the issues for trial
.’
(Own Underlining.)
As it was explained in
Osman
,
a party cannot escape a valid compromise by pointing to a
later-disproved or contested belief, especially where the other party
did not share that belief and the agreement was not based on it.
Here, the RAF now disputes the psychiatric diagnosis, but that
does
not mean that the respondent also shared any incorrect belief at the
time. As already stated, the compromise was deliberately
and
unequivocally entered into by both parties on the basis of
agreed-upon expert evidence.
[16]
The RAF now seeks to transform a belated change of its litigation
strategy into a ground for undoing a compromise
which was final,
considered, and based on consensus. The circumstances do not support
the conclusion that the compromise was entered
into on the basis of a
common incorrect assumption. To adopt the court’s reasoning in
Osman
, whatever assumption the RAF might now claim to have
made, the compromise concluded between the parties was not entered
into on
the basis of that assumption as far as the respondent was
concerned. A compromise is not lightly set aside. Unless both parties
laboured under a common, material, and mutual mistake of fact
existing at the time of the agreement, the compromise remains valid
and binding. In this case, the agreement was based on extensive
expert consensus, deliberate litigation conduct, and pre-trial
admissions. The RAF’s later dissatisfaction with the medical
evidence does not undo the settlement. Its attempt to resile
from the
compromise must fail, as the legal standard for voiding an agreement
on the basis of an incorrect assumption has not been
met.
Whether
the amendment sought to be effected by the RAF was mala fide or not.
[17]
The amendment of pleadings is a mechanism central to procedural
fairness and the proper adjudication of disputes
in civil litigation.
It enables parties to clarify and refine their cases, and ensures
that matters are adjudicated on their true
merits. However, this
liberal discretion to permit amendments is not absolute. Where an
amendment entails the withdrawal of an
admission, particularly an
admission relied upon by the other party, it is treated with greater
caution. The foundation of the
law on amendment of pleadings lies in
the principle that amendments should ordinarily be allowed to ensure
that the real dispute
between the parties is properly aired. This was
clearly articulated in
Trans-Drakensberg
Bank Ltd
(
Under
Judicial Management
)
v
Combined Engineering
(
Pty
)
Ltd
and another and Commercial Union Assurance Co Ltd v Waymark NO
(
Trans-Drakensberg
),
[11]
where the court held:
‘
The
primary principle appears to be that an amendment will be allowed in
order to obtain a proper ventilation of the dispute between
the
parties, to determine the real issues between them, so that justice
may be done. Overall, however, is the vital consideration
that no
amendment will be allowed in circumstances which will cause the other
party such prejudice as cannot be cured by an order
for costs and,
where appropriate, a postponement.’
[12]
Similarly,
in
Moolman
v Estate Moolman
(
Moolman
),
[13]
the court held that an amendment will generally be granted unless it
is mala fide or would cause injustice that cannot be remedied
by
costs or other procedural protections. The court further held:
‘…
[T]he
practical rule adopted seems to be that amendments will always be
allowed unless the application to amend is mala fide or
unless such
amendment would cause an injustice to the other side which cannot be
compensated by costs, or in other words unless
the parties cannot be
put back for the purposes of justice in the same position as they
were when the pleading which is sought
to amend was filed.’
[14]
[18]
Amendments that seek to withdraw admissions, particularly factual
admissions, are scrutinised more rigorously.
In
President
Versekeringsmaatskappy v Moodley
(
Moodley
)
[15]
the court held that the amendment of a pleading involving the
withdrawal of an admission stands on a somewhat different footing
because it involves a change of stance and is more likely to
prejudice the other party. The court further stated that the
applicant
must first convince the court of his bona fides; but even
if he has done so, the respondent can still stave off the amendment
by
showing prejudice which cannot be cured by an order as to
costs.
[16]
The court
continued:
‘
An
application for an amendment of a plea involving a withdrawal of an
admission stands on the same basis as any other application
for the
amendment of pleadings, viz., the Court generally leans towards the
granting thereof provided there has been a
bona
fide
mistake on the party seeking to amend and the amendment does not
cause prejudice to the other side which cannot be cured by an
appropriate order as to costs. But though the approach is the same,
the withdrawal of an admission is usually more difficult to
achieve
because it involves a change of front which requires full explanation
to convince the Court of the bona fides thereof,
and it is more
likely to prejudice the other party, who had by the admission been
led to believe that he need to prove the relevant
fact and might for
that reason have omitted to gather the necessary evidence.’
[17]
[19]
In
Zarug
v Parvathie N O
[18]
the court discussed the withdrawal of an admission by stating the
following:
‘
[I]t
seems that the general tendency of the decisions of our Courts,
following in this respect the trend of English judicial opinion,
has
been in the direction of allowing amendments where this can be done
without prejudice to the other party, and, I think that
the following
legal principles can be gathered from the decisions quoted to me:
1.
That the Court will allow an amendment,
even though it may be a drastic one, if it raises no
new question
that the other party should not be prepared to meet.
2.
With its large powers of allowing
amendments, the Court will always allow a defendant, even up to the
last moment, to raise a defence,
such as prescription, which might
bar the action.
3.
No matter how negligent or careless the
mistake or omission may have been and no matter how late the
application for amendment may
be made, the application can be granted
if the necessity for the amendment has arisen through some reasonable
cause, even though
it be only a
bona
fide
mistake.
An
amendment cannot however be had for the mere asking. Some explanation
must be offered as to why the amendment is required and
if the
application for amendment is not timeously made some reasonable
satisfactory account must be given for the delay. Of course,
if the
application to amend is
mala fide
or if the amendment causes
an injustice to the other side which cannot be compensated by costs,
or in other words, if the parties
cannot be put back for the purposes
of justice in the same position as they were in when the pleading it
is sought to amend was
filed, the application will not be granted…
An
amendment to a pleading involving the withdrawal of an admission has,
however, been regarded in a somewhat different light from
that of
other amendments. In
Rishton v Rishton
,
1912 T.P.D. 718
, the
Court held that it would only allow an admission in the pleading to
be withdrawn on proof that it was made in error and that
no prejudice
was thereby caused to the other side. In that case WESSELS, J., as he
then was, said at p. 720:
“
In
judging whether it ought or ought not to grant an amendment its very
necessary for the Court to consider whether the admission
as
contained in the pleading is exactly as the client would have wished
the admission to have been made before the Court.”
And at p.721
“
I
think it is the duty of the court to have recorded on the pleadings
exactly what the parties estimate the facts to be and what
they think
are the defences that they ought to lay before the Court. Under these
circumstances, I think, whatever the consequences
of such an
amendment may be, that it is the duty of the court to allow the
amendment, because it is the duty of the court to see
that the facts
are correctly represented before it and that it is not being deceived
by some mere technicality.”
In
the same case CURLEWIS, J., said at p. 722:
“
When
the application was made yesterday, I personally felt, as I feel now,
that the only question to consider was whether it was
a bona fide
application for amendment, and whether, if the amendment was allowed,
it would cause an injustice to the other side.”
The
modern practice is in favour of granting applications for leave to
amend whenever the amendment facilitates the proper ventilation
of
the dispute between the parties.’
[19]
[20]
In this case, the RAF applied to amend its plea in order to withdraw
its admission that the respondent
had suffered a psychiatric injury
caused as a result of the motor vehicle accident. This admission had
been made expressly in the
RAF’s amended plea and was also
reflected in multiple pre-trial minutes where liability for 100% of
proven damages was accepted.
The RAF now argues that the admission
only related to the merits of the collision, and that the issue of
causation remains unresolved
– particularly in light of a new
report by Dr Khan, which disputes the causal link between the
accident and the respondent’s
psychiatric condition. The RAF
contends that the new report introduced a new ground of defence not
previously available.
[21]
The high court rightly rejected this
argument. At the time of the original admission, there was expert
consensus between the respondent’s
and the defendant’s
psychiatrists and psychologists confirming the respondent’s
psychiatric injury and its causal connection
to the accident. The
RAF’s own CEO, when applying for the respondent to be assessed
by Dr Khan, asserted under oath that
the purpose of the examination
was to assess the current residual earning capacity, and not to
dispute causation or gain a strategic
advantage. This context
undermines any claim to bona fides. The timing of the amendment
(after trial readiness had been declared
and after years of
litigation), is highly prejudicial to the respondent. The respondent
had reasonably relied on the RAF’s
admission and did not
prepare to re-litigate causation. The withdrawal of the admission
would force the respondent to secure new
expert evidence and reargue
an issue long considered settled, which violates the
Moodley
test of prejudice
.
Thus,
it is curious that the RAF so late in the day contends that the
admission ‘related to the merits’ – presumably
this
being a reference to the issue of liability – thereby leaving
the issue of causation unresolved. This contention needs
only to be
stated to be rejected. It smacks of lack of bona fides on the part of
the RAF. It also raises the question as to why
the RAF now seeks to
amend its plea if, as it now professes, the admission had no bearing
on the issue of quantum. Had this been
its case all along, its
amended plea would have been crafted differently, making plain to the
respondent that causation remained
in contention. However, the
amended plea woefully failed to do so. Instead, it put matters beyond
doubt by explicitly admitting
that the respondent’s psychiatric
injury was causally connected to the accident.
[22]
Further, as held
in
Coppermoon Trading v Government of the Province of the
Eastern Cape and Another Eastern Cape Province
:
[20]
‘A defendant will ordinarily be allowed to amend his plea
where a new ground for defence comes to the defendant’s
knowledge
for the first time after he has filed his plea, provided
the application is bona fide and is not prejudicial to the
plaintiff’.
[21]
A
differing opinion by a new expert does not constitute a new fact but
merely a different interpretation of facts that were already
in the
domain of both parties. If this type of argument were accepted, it
would encourage litigants to retreat from their admissions
whenever a
newly appointed expert expressed a contrary view, thereby
destabilising the integrity of judicial case management. The
bona
fides of the RAF are definitely undermined, and there is no question
that the respondent would be prejudiced. In
Frenkel,
Wise & Co Ltd v Cuthbert
,
[22]
the court reaffirmed the principle set out in
Moolman
and considered the bona fides of the application for amendment. The
court held that it is unable to hold that, that this was a
mala fide
defence, and that any prejudice which the respondent will suffer by
the granting of the amendment can be rectified by
an order as to
costs.
[23]
[23]
The RAF’s justification that the settlement was made ‘in
good faith with the available information
at the time’ is
insufficient. The legal principles governing amendment of pleadings,
while flexible, impose clear constraints
where the amendment involves
the withdrawal of an admission. Courts are justifiably cautious in
such cases, especially where the
amendment entails a change of front
on a central factual issue, is sought at a late stage, and prejudices
the other party. In this
case, the proposed amendment fails on all
these counts. The RAF did not act in good faith, it failed to provide
a compelling explanation
of its change of stance, and sought to
introduce uncertainty on an issue already resolved through expert
consensus. The high court
was therefore correct in refusing the
amendment, and the applicable legal principles fully support that
outcome.
Legal
framework and jurisdictional standard under
s 17(2)(f).
[24]
Prior to its amendment on 3 April 2024,
s 17(2)
(f)
required that the President of this Court be satisfied of the
existence of exceptional circumstances before referring a decision
for reconsideration. Because the RAF’s application was made
prior to the amendment, this is the applicable standard. The
subsequent amendment, which allows referral if there is a risk of
grave injustice or the administration of justice being brought
into
disrepute, does not change the essence of the President’s
discretion, as explained by Smith JA in
Tarentaal
Centre Investments (Pty) Ltd v Beneficio Developments
.
[24]
This Court held that:
‘
When
the President referred the matter for reconsideration, the
jurisdictional requirement for the exercise of her discretion in
terms of
s 17(2)
(f)
was the existence of “exceptional circumstances”. That
section was subsequently amended by s 28 of the Judicial Matters
Amendment Act 15 of 2023, which came into operation on 3 April 2024.
In terms of the amended section the jurisdictional facts for
the
exercise for the President’s discretion are, “circumstances
where a grave failure of justice would otherwise result
or the
administration of justice may be brought into disrepute”. The
amendment did not alter the nature of the President’s
discretion in any way since the Constitutional Court in
S
v Liesching and Others
(
Liesching
)
– which was decided before the amendment – held that the
phrase “exceptional circumstances” encompasses
the
aforementioned jurisdictional factors.’
[25]
[25]
In
Anvit
v First Rand Bank Ltd
(
Avnit
),
[26]
Mpati P clarified the purpose of
s 17(2)
(f)
:
it is not a mechanism for disappointed litigant to secure another
opportunity for appeal, but rather a safeguard to avoid manifest
injustice. He further held that:
‘
In
the context of s 17(2)
(f)
the President will need to be satisfied that the circumstances are
truly exceptional before referring the considered view of two
judges
of this court to the court for reconsideration. I emphasise that the
section is not intended to afford disappointed litigant
a further
attempt to procure relief that has already been refused. It is
intended to enable the President of this Court to deal
with a
situation where otherwise injustice might result. An application that
merely rehearses the arguments that have already been
made,
considered and rejected will not succeed, unless it is strongly
arguable that justice will be denied unless the possibility
of an
appeal can be pursued. A case such as
Van
der Walt
may, but not necessarily will, warrant the exercise of the power. In
such a case the President may hold the view that the grant
of leave
to appeal in the other case was inappropriate.’
[27]
An
application must not merely rehearse earlier arguments; it must
demonstrate that, absent reconsideration, justice will be denied.
This position was echoed in
Motsoeneng
v South African Broadcasting Corporation Soc Ltd and Others
(
Motsoeneng
)
[28]
where the Court held that exceptional circumstances are a
jurisdictional threshold and that, without them, the application
cannot
proceed: it is ‘not out of the starting stalls’.
[29]
[26]
Similarly, in
Bidvest
Protea Coin Security (Pty) Ltd v Mandla
Wellem
Mabena
,
[30]
this Court reaffirmed that it must first consider whether exceptional
circumstances exist. If they do not, the matter ends there.
Minister
of Police and Another v Ramabanta
(
Ramabanta
)
[31]
underscores that reconsideration is not a routine remedy but an
extraordinary one, requiring “markedly unusual”
circumstances
akin to a grave failure of justice. It stated the
following:
‘
The
jurisprudence on s 17(2)
(f)
establishes that reconsideration is an extraordinary remedy, not a
routine second chance.
Avnit
,
Liesching
I
and
Liesching
II
clarify that it is not an appeal on the merits but a safeguard
against manifest injustice, requiring circumstances so exceptional
that the initial refusal of leave would bring the administration of
justice on disrepute.
Mbatha
and
Manyike
further hold that such circumstances must be ‘markedly
unusual’, not merely arguable errors.’
[32]
This
jurisprudence has been reaffirmed consistently in several subsequent
cases of this Court.
[33]
Have
exceptional circumstances been established?
[27]
The RAF argues that the matter warrants reconsideration due to the
emergence of a new expert opinion by Dr
Khan, which contradicts
earlier expert consensus regarding the plaintiff’s psychiatric
injury and its causal link to the
accident. It contends that this new
report justifies a fresh defence on causation and that the high court
erred in refusing its
amendment application. The RAF seeks to frame
this as a matter of procedural injustice. It further argues that this
matter is of
great importance to the RAF because it deals with an
astronomical amount of money, namely R133 Million.
[28]
This argument does not rise to the level of exceptional circumstances
as required by s 17(2)
(f)
.
The SCA had made clear, notably in
Ramabanta
,
[34]
that reconsideration requires circumstances so exceptional that the
initial refusal of leave would bring the administration of
justice
into disrepute. Here, no such danger is present. The RAF had multiple
opportunities to challenge causation and raise a
defence based on
psychiatric evidence. It appointed its own expert, Prof Zabow,
participated in joint expert meetings, and explicitly
conceded
causation in its amended plea. It later settled certain heads of
damages premised on that very causal link. The question
of the amount
of money claimed by the respondent is thus of no moment; the RAF had
been aware of this from the onset and still
conceded liability. The
introduction of Dr Khan’s divergent view, obtained after the
trial was ready and following several
years of litigation, does not
amount to a new fact or miscarriage of justice. At most, it is a
change in litigation strategy. Ponnan
JA explained in
Motsoeneng
,
‘the requirement for the existence of exceptional
circumstances…is a jurisdictional fact’.
[35]
It cannot be presumed from the existence of a different expert
opinion. The President’s referral under s 17(2)
(f)
does not relieve the RAF of its burden to prove that truly
exceptional circumstances exist. As
Bidvest
confirmed, if the Court is not satisfied that such circumstances
exist, ‘we need not to consider whether the refusal to grant
leave…was correctly decided, much less whether the judgment
and order of the [court below] are correct’.
[36]
[29]
The RAF’s procedural conduct undermines any claim to the
exceptionalism of its case. Following the
President’s referral
on 4 April 2024, the RAF failed to file its heads of argument and
practice note by the required date
(15 August 2024) in terms of SCA
rule 10, read with rule 10A. It belatedly attempted to lodge its
documents on the final day, but
they were refused by the Registrar.
This noncompliance with Court rules, without a full and satisfactory
explanation, reflects
indifference to procedural obligations and
contradicts the very purpose of an extraordinary remedy designed to
avoid injustice.
[30]
Section 17(2)
(f)
is not intended to bail out dissatisfied
litigants by affording them the proverbial third ‘bite at the
cherry’. Rather,
it is an extraordinary remedy reserved for
truly deserving cases where grave injustice would otherwise result if
relief were not
granted. In sum, the jurisprudence of this Court in
relation to s 17(2)
(f)
has been categorical: the threshold for
s 17(2)
(f)
is met only where exceptional circumstances exist,
signifying a real risk of grave injustice or disrepute to the
administration
of justice. In this case, the RAF has not demonstrated
any such circumstances. The attempt to rely on a new expert report
years
into the litigation, after clear admissions and partial
settlements based on contrary expert consensus, does not constitute a
jurisdictional
basis for reconsideration. Nor does the RAF’s
failure to comply with this Court’s rules, after the
President’s
referral, lend credence to any claim of injustice.
The intended appeal would not even make it out of the starting
stalls.
[31]
It bears mentioning that litigants must always keep it at the
forefront of their minds that reconsideration
under s 17(2)
(f)
is a statutory dispensation designed to consider whether the judge or
judges of the high court and the two judges of this Court
were
correct in refusing leave to appeal. This Court, in reconsidering the
decision, essentially steps into the shoes of the two
judges.
[37]
Moreover, if the decision refusing leave is unassailable, it will be
left intact.
Order
[32]
In the result the following order is made:
The
application for reconsideration in terms of s 17(2)
(f)
is
dismissed with costs, including costs of two counsel.
D
V DLODLO
ACTING
JUDGE OF APPEAL
Appearances
For
the Appellant:
D
J Jacobs SC with P Van Wyk
Instructed
by:
State
Attorney, Cape Town
Modisenyane
Attorneys, Bloemfontein
For
the Respondent:
J
Roux SC with E Benade
Instructed
by:
DSC
Attorneys, Cape Town
Rosendorff Reits
Berry, Bloemfontein
[1]
Uitenhage
Transitional Local Council v South African Revenue Service
[2003] ZASCA 76
;
[2003] 4 All SA 37
(SCA);
2004 (1) SA 292
(SCA)
para 6.
[2]
Mulaudzi
v Old Mutual Life Insurance Company (South Africa) Limited and
Others, National Director of Public Prosecutions and Another
v
Mulaudzi
[2017] ZASCA 88
;
[2017] 3 All SA 520
(SCA);
2017 (6) SA 90
(SCA).
[3]
Ibid para 26.
[4]
Member
of the Executive Council for Health, Eastern Cape Province v Y N obo
E N
(056/2021)
[2023] ZASCA 32
(30 March 2023).
[5]
Ibid para 8. See also
Melane
v Santam Insurace Co Ltd
1962 (4) SA 531
(A) at 532C-D.
[6]
Ibid para 14.
Commissioner
for South African Revenue Services Gauteng West v Levue Investments
(
Pty
)
Ltd
[2007] ZASCA 22
;
[2007] 3 All SA 109
(SCA) para 11.
[7]
Osman v
Standard Bank National Credit Corporation Ltd
1985 (2) SA 378 (C).
[8]
YN obo
EN
para 14.
[9]
Osman
at 386E.
[10]
Ibid at 386I-J.
[11]
Trans-Drakensberg
Bank Ltd (Under Judicial Management) v Combined Engineering (Pty)
Ltd and Another
1967
(3) SA 632 (D).
[12]
Ibid at 638A. See also
Randa
v Radopile Projects CC
[2012] ZAGPJHC 151;
2012 (6) SA 128
(GSJ);
[2012] 4 All SA 434
(GSJ)
para 7.
[13]
Moolman
v Estate Moolman and Another
1927 CPD 27.
[14]
Ibid at 29. See also
Tjiroze
v Appeal Board of the Financial Services Board
[2020] ZACC 18
;
2021 (1) BCLR 59
(CC) para 26.
[15]
President
Versekeringwsmaatskappy BKP v Moodley
1964
(4) SA 109 (T).
[16]
Ibid at 110H-111A.
[17]
Ibid at 109G-H.
[18]
Zarug v
Parvathie N O
1962 (3) SA 872 (D).
[19]
Ibid at 876A-H.
[20]
Coppermoon
Trading 13 (Pty) Ltd v Government of the Province of the Eastern
Cape and Another
[2019]
ZAECBHC 16;
2020 (3) SA 391 (ECB).
[21]
Ibid para 16.
[22]
Frenkel,
Wise & Co, Ltd v Cuthbert
1947 (4) SA 715
(C).
[23]
Ibid at 718.
[24]
Tarentaal
Centre Investments (Pty) Ltd v Beneficio Developments
(15/2025)
[2025] ZASCA 38
(8 April 2025).
[25]
Ibid para 4.
[26]
Avnit v
First Rand Bank Ltd
(20233/14)
[2014] ZASCA 132
(23 September 2014).
[27]
Ibid
para 6.
[28]
Motsoeneng
v South African Broadcasting Corporation Soc Ltd and Others
[2024] ZASCA 80;
2025 (4) SA 122 (SCA).
[29]
Ibid para 19.
[30]
Bidvest
Protea Coin Security (Pty) Ltd v Mandla Wellem Mabena
[2025] ZASCA 23
;
2025 (3) SA 362
(SCA) para 23.
[31]
The
Minister of Police and Another v Ramabanta
(511/2024)
[2025] ZASCA 95
(24 June 2025).
[32]
Ibid para 22.
[33]
See, for example,
Bidvest
Protea Coin Security (Pty) Ltd v Mandla Wellem Mabena
[2025] ZASCA 23
;
2025 (3) SA 362
(SCA) para 23;
Spa
Group Limited and Others v Twelve Gods Supermarket (Pty) Ltd and
Others
[2025] ZASCA 7
;
2025 (3) SA 137
(SCA) para 2;
Doorware
CC v Mercury Fittings CC
(836/2023)
[2025] ZASCA 25
(27 March 2025) para 11;
Lorenzi
v S (1171/2023)
[2025] ZASCA 58
(13 May 2025)
paras
10-12;
Ekurhuleni
Metropolitan Municipality v Business Connexion (Pty) Ltd
(1186/2023)
[2025] ZASCA 41
(10 April 2025) para 3;
Tarentaal
Centre Investments (Pty) Ltd v Beneficio Developments
(15/2025)
[2025] ZASCA 38
(8 April 2025) para 4;
Nel
v S
(708/2023)
[2025] ZASCA 89
(12 June 2025) paras 5-6;
Japhta
v S
[2025] ZASCA 80
;
2025 (2) SACR 305
(SCA) para 7;
Ditlhakanyane
v The State
(775/2023)
[2025] ZASCA 90
(12 June 2025) para 2.
[34]
Ramabanta
para
22.
[35]
Motsoeneng
para
16.
[36]
Bidvest
para
17.
[37]
Mbatha
v S
(928/2018)
[2020] ZASCA 102
(15 September 2020) para 17.
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