Case Law[2024] ZAGPJHC 637South Africa
Coetzer v Wesbank A Division of Firstrand Bank Limited (7439/2020) [2024] ZAGPJHC 637 (10 July 2024)
High Court of South Africa (Gauteng Division, Johannesburg)
10 July 2024
Judgment
begin wrapper
begin container
begin header
begin slogan-floater
end slogan-floater
- About SAFLII
About SAFLII
- Databases
Databases
- Search
Search
- Terms of Use
Terms of Use
- RSS Feeds
RSS Feeds
end header
begin main
begin center
# South Africa: South Gauteng High Court, Johannesburg
South Africa: South Gauteng High Court, Johannesburg
You are here:
SAFLII
>>
Databases
>>
South Africa: South Gauteng High Court, Johannesburg
>>
2024
>>
[2024] ZAGPJHC 637
|
Noteup
|
LawCite
sino index
## Coetzer v Wesbank A Division of Firstrand Bank Limited (7439/2020) [2024] ZAGPJHC 637 (10 July 2024)
Coetzer v Wesbank A Division of Firstrand Bank Limited (7439/2020) [2024] ZAGPJHC 637 (10 July 2024)
Download original files
PDF format
RTF format
make_database: source=/home/saflii//raw/ZAGPJHC/Data/2024_637.html
sino date 10 July 2024
REPUBLIC
OF SOUTH AFRICA
IN
THE HIGH COURT OF SOUTH AFRICA,
GAUTENG
DIVISION, JOHANNESBURG
1.
REPORTABLE: NO
2.
OF INTEREST TO OTHER JUDGES: NO
3.
REVISED: NO
10
July 2024
CASE
NO: 7439/2020
In
the matter between:
ERIKA
COETZER
Applicant
and
WESBANK,
A DIVISION OF FIRSTRAND BANK LIMITED
Respondent
In
re:
WESBANK,
A DIVISION OF FIRSTRAND BANK LIMITED
Plaintiff
and
INVESTMENT
AUTO GROUP (PTY) LIMITED
1
st
Defendant
GAVIN
ANTHONY
SMITH
2
nd
Defendant
ERIKA
COETZER
3
rd
Defendant
Judgment
Mdalana-Mayisela
J
Introduction
[1]
The applicant (as third defendant in the action) has brought the
application in terms of Rule 35(7) of the Uniform Rules
of Court
compelling the respondent (as plaintiff in the action) to discover
and make available the documents listed in the applicant’s
Rule
35(3) notice served on 11 October 2022, in accordance with Rule
35(2); and the application in terms of Rule 21 compelling
the
respondent to provide further and better particulars. The
applications are opposed by the respondent. The Deputy Judge
President has directed that the two applications be heard together
with the issue of costs in the previous two similar applications.
Factual
background
[2]
In March 2020, the respondent instituted the action for damages
against the first defendant, second defendant and applicant.
The
applicant is sued as a surety for the debt of the first defendant.
The basis for the respondent’s claim is a Master Sale
Agreement
(“MSA”) concluded between the respondent and the first
defendant on 13 July 2017. The first and second defendants
have not
entered an appearance to defend. The action is defended by the
applicant.
[3]
In June 2020, the respondent applied for a default judgment against
the first and second defendants. On 10 December 2020
the default
judgment was granted against the defendants, including the applicant.
The respondent abandoned the whole default judgment
in terms of Rule
41(2) on 21 April 2021. The default judgment was rescinded on 23
August 2022 on the basis that it was erroneously
granted against the
applicant.
[4]
The applicant
served a notice in terms of Rule
35(3) of the Uniform Rules of Court on the respondent on 11 October
2022. The respondent replied
to the aforementioned notice on 25
October 2022. On 10 November 2022, the applicant brought the
application in terms of Rule 35(7)
to compel further and better
discovery. The respondent filed an answering affidavit in the Rule
35(7) application on 7 December
2022. The applicant filed a replying
affidavit in the Rule 35(7) application on 15 December 2022.
[5] On 11 October
2022, the applicant served a request for trial particulars. On 25
October 2022, the respondent replied to
the request for trial
particulars. The applicant brought the application in terms of Rule
21 to compel further and better particulars
on 15 November 2022. The
respondent filed the answering affidavit on 7 December 2022. The
applicant’s replying affidavit
was filed on 15 December 2022.
Application for
further and better discovery
[6] The pleadings
in the action are closed. The issues in dispute between the parties
in the action include the following:
[6.1] Whether there
was a breach of warranty as provided for in clause 6.1.2 (i.e. a
warranty that the dealer will in each
instance be able to give free
and unencumbered title to the goods concerned to the bank);
[6.2] The cause of
the respondent’s alleged damages; and
[6.3] Whether it
prejudiced the applicant as a surety in a manner which serves to
release her as a surety.
[7] On
11 October 2022, a notice in terms of Rule 35(3) was served upon the
respondent’s attorney of record.
The applicant believes that,
in addition to the documents disclosed in the respondent’s
discovery affidavit, there are additional
documents which may be
relevant to any matter in issue, in the possession of the respondent
or under its control or custody. Briefly,
the additional documents
sought by the applicant are related to the following:
[7.1] The signed
finance application submitted by Papa Mbodji to the respondent,
preceding the instalment sale agreement
concluded on 11 April 2019;
[7.2] The credit
assessment conducted by the respondent, in respect of Papa Mbodji, as
prescribed by the National Credit
Act, prior to the respondent
entering into the instalment sale agreement with Mbodji;
[7.3] The debit
order signed by Mbodji;
[7.4] The payment
history in respect of the instalment sale agreement concluded between
the respondent and Mbodji;
[7.5] The
confirmation by the respondent, as envisaged in clause 3 of the MSA
relied on, that the first defendant should sell
the vehicle described
in paragraph 10 of the particulars of claim to it;
[7.6] Documents
evidencing payment by the respondent of the purchase price of the
vehicle, as alleged in paragraph 13 of the
particulars of claim;
[7.7] The
respondent’s documentation requirements, applicable as at April
2019, as envisaged in clause 5.1.1 of the
MSA;
[7.8] The
respondent’s approval conditions, applicable as at April 2019,
as envisaged in clause 5.1.1 of the MSA; and
[7.9] The
registration certificate as envisaged in clause 5.3 of the MSA.
[8] On 24 October
2022, the respondent replied to Rule 35(3) notice. It made available
to the applicant the final financial
approval of Mbodji,
affordability assessment for Mbodji, identity document of Mbodji,
debit order authorization, statement of account,
instalment sale
agreement, proof of payment, and NATIS document.
[9] It also stated
that ‘
save for the documents that are made available herein,
the remainder of the documents sought are irrelevant to the disputes
that
arise for determination, are confidential and privileged, and
further protected in terms of the Protection of Personal Information
Act 4 of 2013 (“POPI Act”).’
[10] The
respondent also filed an affidavit in reply to Rule 35(3) notice
wherein it repeated the contents stated in paragraph
[9] above.
[11]
The object of mutual discovery is to give each party before
trial all documentary material of the other party so that
each can
consider its effect on his own case and his opponent's case and
decide how to carry on his proceedings or whether to carry
them on at
all. Another object is to enable each party to put before the court,
all relevant documentary evidence.
[1]
[12]
Rule 35(3) provides that ‘
if any party believes that there
are, in addition to documents or tape recordings disclosed as
aforesaid, other documents (including
copies thereof) or tape
recordings which may be relevant to any matter in question in the
possession of any party thereto, the
former may give notice to the
latter requiring such party to make the same available for inspection
in accordance with subrule
(6), or to state on oath within 10 days
that such documents or tape recordings are not in such party’s
possession, in which
event the party making the disclosure shall
state their whereabouts, if known.’
[13] Rule 35(7)
provides that:
“
If
any party fails to give discovery as aforesaid or, having been served
with a notice under subrule (6), omits to give notice of
a time for
inspection as aforesaid or fails to give inspection as required by
that subrule, the party desiring discovery or inspection
may apply to
a court, which may order compliance with this rule and, failing such
compliance, may dismiss the claim or strike out
the defence.”
[14] The applicant
in her Rule 35(7) application seeks
first
, that the respondent
discovers the documents listed in the Rule 35(3) notice dated 11
October 2022, in the manner prescribed by
Rule 35(2). Rule 35(2)
provides that:
“
The
party required to make discovery shall within 20 days or within the
time stated in any order of a judge make discovery of such
documents
on affidavit in accordance with Form 11 of the First Schedule,
specifying separately-
(a)
such documents and tape recordings
in the possession of a party or such party’s agent other than
the documents and tape recordings
mentioned in paragraph (b);
(b)
such documents and tape recordings
in respect of which such party has a valid objection to produce;
(c)
such documents and tape recordings
which a party or such party’s agent had, but no longer has
possession of the date of the
affidavit.
A
document shall be deemed to be sufficiently specified if it is
described as one of a bundle of documents of a specified nature,
which have been initialled and consecutively numbered by the
deponent. Statements of witnesses taken for purposes of the
proceedings,
communications between attorney and client and between
attorney and advocate, pleadings, affidavits and notices in the
action shall
be omitted from the schedules.
[15] In reply to
Rule 35(3) notice the respondent did not deny possession of documents
sought in Rule 35(3) notice. In terms
of Rule 35(1) the respondent is
required to specify on oath the documents and tape recordings in its
possession or under its control
‘
relating to any matter in
question in such action
’. In terms of Rule 35(2)(b) it is
obliged to specify separately such documents and tape recordings in
respect of which it
has a valid objection to produce. In its reply to
Rule 35(3) notice it has failed to specify which documents are
irrelevant or
confidential or protected in terms of POPI Act.
Although a privileged document need not be discovered, it must
nevertheless be
described in a separate schedule and the respondent
has failed to do so. It was necessary for the respondent to also
state the
nature of the privilege it is relying on, and it has failed
to do so. I find that its reply to Rule 35(3) notice is not in
accordance with Rule 35(2) read with Form 11 of the First Schedule.
[16]
The respondent has a burden to adduce evidence that the documents
referred to in paragraph [9] above are irrelevant or
privileged or
protected in terms of POPI Act.
[2]
The applicant is required to satisfy the Court on a balance of
probabilities that the aforementioned documents are relevant or
not
privileged.
[3]
The
non-compliance by the respondent with the requirements of Rule 35(2)
causes prejudice to the applicant by making it difficult
for her to
discharge onus, and unable to enforce her right in terms of Rule
35(10). It also makes it difficult for the Court to
determine whether
the defences raised by the respondent in this application are
sustainable. Accordingly, the application to compel
further and
better discovery should succeed.
[17]
Second
,
the applicant in her Rule 35(7) application seeks the order
compelling the respondent to make the documents referred to in
paragraph
1 thereof, but for a final financial approval of Mbodji
document; paragraph 2 thereof, save for affordability assessment for
Mbodji
document; paragraphs 5, 7 and 8 thereof available for
inspection. The said documents are mentioned in sub-paragraphs [7.1],
[7.2],
[7.5], [7.7] and [7.8] above.
[18] The
respondent in reply to rule 35(3) notice tendered to make available
for inspection the documents mentioned in paragraph
[8] above, save
for documents which are irrelevant, confidential or privileged or
protected in terms of POPI Act. It has not adduced
any evidence on
the contention that the documents it objected to make available for
inspection are irrelevant or confidential or
privileged or protected
in terms of POPI Act.
[19]
A Court will not make an order against the party to produce a
document that cannot be produced or is privileged or irrelevant.
[4]
The respondent has not specified which documents are irrelevant or
privileged or protected by POPI Act. In the circumstances, I
am
unable to determine whether the documents required for inspection are
irrelevant or protected in terms of POPI Act or privileged.
In my
view the respondent should first make a discovery in the manner
prescribed by Rule 35(2) read with Form 11 before the applicant
can
give a notice for aforementioned documents to be produced for
inspection. In the premises, I am not granting the order compelling
the production of the aforementioned documents for inspection.
Application to compel
further and better particulars
[20] On 11 October
2022 a request for further particulars for purposes of trial was
served on the respondent’s attorney
of record. On 25 October
2022 an answer to the request for further particulars was received.
[21] According to
the applicant the aforementioned answer is inadequate. She alleged
that she is prejudiced in her preparation
for trial. She seeks the
order compelling the respondent to provide the further particulars
sought in paragraphs 1.1; 1.2; 12.1
to 12.4; 15.4; and 18.1 to 18.4.1
of the applicant’s request for further particulars served on
the respondent on 11 October
2022. The further particulars sought are
as follows:
“
1.1
Precisely what was the Plaintiff’s “documentation
requirements” at the time of entering into the agreement
with
Mbodji? If such requirements were in writing, a copy is required.
1.2 Precisely what
was the Plaintiff’s “approved conditions”, or
“approval conditions”, at the time
of entering into the
agreement with Mbodji? If such conditions were reduced to writing, a
copy thereof is required.
12.1 The Third
Defendant pleaded that the MSA provides that:
12.1.1 the Plaintiff
would confirm to the First Defendant that it wanted to enter into an
agreement with a stated customer;
12.1.2 the Plaintiff
would nominate the person to whom the vehicle would be delivered;
12.1.3 the vehicle
would only be delivered against fulfillment of the Plaintiff’s
documentation requirements and approval
conditions;
12.1.4 the First
Defendant would procure the registration of the vehicle in the name
of the Plaintiff as the registered title holder
thereof, prior the
Plaintiff effecting payment of the purchase price to the First
Defendant.
12.2 The Plaintiff
has denied the aforesaid allegations.
12.3 Is it the
plaintiff’s case that the MSA does not contain the aforesaid
terms? If so, precisely which of the terms contended
for do not form
part of the MSA?
12.4 Is it the
plaintiff’s case that:
12.4.1 It did not
confirm to the First Defendant that it wanted to enter into an
agreement with Mbodji, prior to doing so?
12.4.2 It did not
nominate Mbodji as the person to whom the vehicle had to be
delivered;
12.4.3 It did not have
documentation requirements and approval conditions at the time of
entering into an agreement with Mbodji?
12.4.4 The vehicle was
delivered to Mbodji without its documentation requirements and
approval conditions being fulfilled?
12.4.5 The First
Defendant did not procure the registration of the vehicle in the name
of Mbodji, prior to the plaintiff effecting
payment of purchase price
to the First Defendant?
15.4 Precisely what
were the Plaintiff’s documentation requirements and approval
conditions at the time of delivery of the
vehicle to Mbodji? If in
writing, a copy thereof is required.
18.1 The Third
Defendant pleaded that the MSA provides that:
18.1.1 The vehicle
would be delivered to the customer against fulfilment of the bank’s
documentation requirements and approval
conditions:
18.1.2 The First
Defendant would procure that the Plaintiff was registered as the
title holder of the vehicle prior to the Plaintiff
effecting payment
of the purchase price.
18.2 The Plaintiff has
denied these allegations.
18.3 Is it the
Plaintiff’s case that the MSA does not contain the aforesaid
terms?
18.4 the plaintiff
admits that the MSA does contain such terms, the Third Defendant
requires particulars of the following:
18.4.1 the
Plaintiff’s documentation requirements and approval conditions
at the time of it concluding an agreement with
Mbodji. If such
requirements were in writing, a copy thereof is required;”
[22] Rule 21
provides that:
“
(1)
Subject to the provisions of subrules (2) and (4) further particulars
shall not be requested.
(2) After the close of
pleadings any party may, not less than 20 days before trial, deliver
a notice requesting only such further
particulars as are strictly
necessary to enable him or her to prepare for trial. Such request
shall be complied with within 10
days after receipt thereof.
(4)
If the party requested to furnish any particulars as aforesaid fails
to deliver them timeously or sufficiently, the party requesting
the
same may apply to court for an order for their delivery or for the
dismissal of the action or the striking out of the defence,
whereupon
the court may make such order as to it seems meet.”
[23]
The Court retains a discretion to grant or refuse an order for the
delivery of further particulars. The applicant is
not entitled to an
order compelling a reply as of right, but she must set out sufficient
information in the application to enable
the Court to consider
whether or not to exercise its discretion in her favour.
[5]
She bears the onus of satisfying the Court that the particulars are
strictly necessary and that she is entitled to them.
[6]
[24] In reply to
sub-paragraphs 1.1 and 1.2 of the
request
for further particulars the respondent contended that the applicant
is not entitled to such particulars or documents,
inter alia
on account of the fact that:
[24.1] Such information
does not form part of the disputes that arise for determination in
the action. The applicant impermissibly
conflates the relationship
between the bank and the dealer, and the bank and its customer;
[24.2] The documents
cannot be obtained through Rule 21; and
[24.3] Beyond such
response, the particulars requested are not strictly necessary for
the applicant to prepare for the trial, alternatively
are irrelevant
for determination of matter, further alternatively constitutes
impermissible interrogatories to which the plaintiff
is not obliged
to submit.
[25] The applicant
in her replying affidavit stated that she has received the further
particulars (documentation requirements
and approval conditions) she
sought in paragraphs 1.1 and 1.2 of her request for further
particulars from the respondent’s
answering affidavit filed in
the application for further and better discovery. Therefore, it is
not necessary for this Court to
determine whether she is entitled to
the aforementioned further particulars.
[26] In Paragraphs
12.1 to 12.1.4 the applicant repeated the terms of the MSA pleaded in
the particulars of claim relating
to delivery of the vehicle to a
nominated person and the payment of the purchase price to the first
defendant. Paragraph 12.2 refers
to the bare denial of the same by
the respondent. In paragraph 12.3 the applicant enquired whether ‘
is
it the Plaintiff’s case that the MSA does not contain the
aforesaid terms? If so, precisely which of the terms contended
for do
not form part of the MSA?
’ In paragraph 12.4 the applicant
sought further particulars relating to MSA terms denied by the
respondent.
[27]
Further particulars may only be sought for purposes of
preparation for trial as are strictly necessary. A party cannot,
however, be required to give particulars in relation to a mere
denial, i.e. where a party pleads a bare denial of allegations made
by his opponent, such a party cannot be required to furnish
particulars of any aspect placed in issue by such denial.
[7]
[28]
The pleadings must be phrased in such a manner and have such
particularity that they enable the other side to know what
the case
of his or her opponent is. It does not mean that the pleading must
give such particularity which tend to be evidence or
prove the case
of the pleader. The pleading should state every fact which it would
be necessary for the pleader to prove in order
to support his or her
right to obtain judgment of the Court.
[8]
The purpose of particulars for trial is not to elicit evidence or
information which will emerge on cross-examination.
[9]
[29] The further
particulars sought by the applicant in the paragraphs mentioned in
paragraph [26] above are not strictly
necessary for the preparation
for trial. The applicant is in possession of the MSA. The MSA
document speaks for itself. The interpretation
thereof will be done
by the trial Court. Further, the particulars sought are in relation
to the MSA terms placed in issue by the
respondent’s bare
denial, and the applicant is not entitled to them.
[30] In paragraph
15.4 of the request for further particulars, the applicant asked what
were the respondent’s documentation
requirements and approval
conditions at the time of the delivery of the vehicle to Mbodji? The
applicant in her replying affidavit
stated, ‘
it needs to be
stated that the respondent has filed an answer to an application to
compel discovery of documentation reflecting
its documentation
requirements and approval conditions.
’ The applicant has
received the information she alleged is necessary for preparation for
trial.
[31] In paragraphs
18.1 to 18.1.2 the applicant repeated the terms of the MSA pleaded by
her. In paragraph 18.2 she referred
to the denial by the respondent
of the aforesaid terms. In paragraph 18.3 she enquired whether it is
the respondent’s case
that the MSA does not contain the
aforesaid terms. In paragraph 18.4 to 18.4.1 she required the
respondent to furnish her with
the documentation requirements and
approval conditions at the time it concluded an agreement with
Mbodji.
[32] The contents
of paragraphs 18.4 and 18.4.1 are the repetition of the contents of
paragraphs 1.1 and 1.2 of the request
for further particulars. I have
already dealt with the further particulars required in the aforesaid
paragraphs in paragraph 25
above.
[33] The further
particulars sought by the applicant in paragraph 18.3 are not
strictly necessary for preparation for trial.
The applicant is in
possession of the MSA. The MSA document speaks for itself. Further,
the applicant is not allowed to elicit
details of evidence that would
be canvassed at trial.
[34] I conclude
that the applicant has failed to discharge onus of satisfying the
Court that the further particulars are
strictly necessary and that
she is entitled to them. In the premises, the application to compel
further and better particulars
must fail.
Costs
[35] The applicant
is successful in the application to compel further and better
discovery and therefore, she is entitled
to costs of the application.
[36] The applicant
has not succeeded in the application to compel further and better
particulars and therefore, she must
pay the costs of the application.
The costs of previous
applications
[37] The applicant
brought the application to compel further and better discovery dated
19 March 2021; and the application
to compel further particulars for
trial dated 30 March 2021 (“previous applications”). The
previous applications were
set down for 20 May 2021. They were heard
by Siwendu J and her judgment was delivered on 24 May 2021. Siwendu J
removed the previous
applications from the roll, and she ordered the
respondent to pay the costs of the hearing.
[38]
It is common cause that the wasted costs incurred in pursuing
the previous applications were not determined by Siwendu
J. The
applicant filed the affidavit and heads of argument on this issue.
The respondent filed no papers on this issue. The applicant
seeks the
costs of the previous applications for the following reasons. The
respondent obtained a default judgment against the
applicant on 10
December 2020. It did not serve the default judgment on the
applicant. The action has a duplicate file on CaseLines.
The judgment
was uploaded on the duplicate file. It was not uploaded on the main
file. The applicant and her attorney were not
aware of the existence
of a duplicate file, and they were not invited on it. The
respondent’s attorney filed an affidavit
in terms of the
Practice Directive of this Division declaring that no duplicate file
for the action exists on CaseLines.
[39] The previous
applications were brought after the default judgment was obtained.
The applicant submitted that if the respondent
disclosed the
existence of the duplicate file, or the judgment, neither of the
previous applications would have been issued.
[40] After the
applicant became aware of the default judgment, her attorney wrote to
the respondent’s attorney recording
that the previous
applications were abortive. The respondent persisted that the
previous applications had to proceed and compelled
the applicant to
file replying affidavits. It also persisted that the action must
proceed to trial. Siwendu J refused to entertain
the previous
applications because the Court had become
functus officio
and
its authority over the subject-matter had ceased.
[41] In conclusion
on the issue of costs, I find that the respondent caused the
applicant to incur wasted costs in pursuing
the previous
applications. The respondent had a duty to serve the default judgment
on the applicant and to disclose the existence
of a duplicate file,
and it failed to do so. I accept the applicant’s submission
that if the respondent disclosed the existence
of the duplicate file,
or served the judgment, neither of the previous applications would
have been issued.
ORDER
[42] Accordingly,
the following order is made:
1.
The respondent is ordered to discover all
the documents listed in the applicant’s notice in terms of Rule
35(3), in the manner
prescribed by Rule 35(2) of the Uniform Rules of
Court read with Form 11 within 10 days of service of this order upon
its attorneys
of record by the applicant’s attorneys of record.
2.
The respondent shall pay the costs of the
application to compel further and better discovery.
3.
The application to compel further and
better particulars is dismissed with costs.
4.
The respondent is ordered to pay the wasted
costs (excluding hearing costs) of the application to compel further
and better discovery
dated 19 March 2021.
5.
The respondent is ordered to pay the wasted
costs (excluding hearing costs) of the application to compel further
and better particulars
dated 30 March 2021.
MMP
Mdalana-Mayisela J
Judge
of the High Court
Gauteng
Division,
Johannesburg
DELIVERED:
This judgment was handed down electronically by circulation to the
parties’ legal representatives by e-mail and
publication on
CaseLines. The date for hand-down is deemed to be on 10 July 2024.
Appearances:
For
the Applicant:
Adv WHJ Van Reenen
Instructed
by:
Bezuidenhout Lak Attorneys
For
the Respondent:
Adv JC Viljoen
Instructed
by:
Rossouws, Lesley Inc
[1]
Crown Cork & Seal Co Inc and Another v Rheem SA (Pty) Ltd and
Others
1980 (3) SA 1093
(W) at 1095.
[2]
Centre
for Child Law v The Governing Body of Hoerskool Fochville (156/2015)
[2015] ZASCA 155
;
[2015] 4 ALL SA 571
(SCA);
2016 (2) SA 121
(SCA)
(8 October 2015) para [18].
[3]
Continental Ore Construction v Highveld Steel & Vanadium
Corporation Ltd
1971 (4) SA 589
(W) at 595.
[4]
Centre for Child Law supra.
[5]
Van der Walt v Van der Walt
2000 (4) SA 147
(E) at 150E-F.
[6]
Jansen v Jansen
1979 (4) SA 809
(W) at 811.
[7]
Swart v De Beer
1989 (3) SA 622
(E) at 625.
[8]
Oraclemed Health (Proprietary) Limited v The Hollard Life Assurance
Company Limited & Another (31338/2013) [2023] ZAGPJHC
469 (7 May
2023).
[9]
Von
Gordon v Von Gordon
1961 (4) SA 211
(T) at 213.
sino noindex
make_database footer start
Similar Cases
Cilliers and Others v Minister of Safety and Security (2007/62) [2024] ZAGPJHC 67 (31 January 2024)
[2024] ZAGPJHC 67High Court of South Africa (Gauteng Division, Johannesburg)99% similar
Coetzee and Others v Nedbank Limited (42242/2021) [2023] ZAGPJHC 566 (25 May 2023)
[2023] ZAGPJHC 566High Court of South Africa (Gauteng Division, Johannesburg)99% similar
Coetzee v Minister of Police and Another (2021/18449) [2024] ZAGPJHC 1133 (1 November 2024)
[2024] ZAGPJHC 1133High Court of South Africa (Gauteng Division, Johannesburg)99% similar
Schoeman v Morgan Abattoir (Pty) Limited and Others (24526/2019) [2024] ZAGPJHC 274 (15 March 2024)
[2024] ZAGPJHC 274High Court of South Africa (Gauteng Division, Johannesburg)99% similar
Coetzee and Others v Nedbank Limited (36425/2021) [2023] ZAGPJHC 565 (25 May 2023)
[2023] ZAGPJHC 565High Court of South Africa (Gauteng Division, Johannesburg)99% similar