Case Law[2023] ZAGPJHC 684South Africa
Makgalemele v Toyota Financial Services (South Africa) Ltd (56928/2021) [2023] ZAGPJHC 684 (12 June 2023)
High Court of South Africa (Gauteng Division, Johannesburg)
12 June 2023
Judgment
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## Makgalemele v Toyota Financial Services (South Africa) Ltd (56928/2021) [2023] ZAGPJHC 684 (12 June 2023)
Makgalemele v Toyota Financial Services (South Africa) Ltd (56928/2021) [2023] ZAGPJHC 684 (12 June 2023)
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sino date 12 June 2023
IN THE HIGH COURT OF
SOUTH AFRICA,
GAUTENG
LOCAL DIVISION, JOHANNESBURG
CASE NO
:
56928/2021
NOT REPORTABLE
NOT OF INTEREST TO OTHER
JUDGES
NOT REVISED
In the matter between:
CLENDA
LEDILE MAKGALEMELE
Applicant
and
TOYOTA
FINANCIAL SERVICES (SOUTH AFRICA) LTD
Respondent
JUDGMENT
Delivered:
By transmission to the parties via email and
uploading onto Case Lines Judgment is deemed to be delivered.
SENYATSI J
[1]
This
is an application for reconsideration and rescission of the judgment
obtained by default against the applicant on 24th February
2022. The
applicant also applies for the condonation of the late filing of the
application. The application is brought in terms
of rules 31(5)(d)
and 41(1) of the Uniform Rules of Court.
[2] The respondent
was the applicant in the main application in terms of which it had
sought and obtained the cancellation
of the instalment sale agreement
as well as the repossession of a motor vehicle financed in terms of
said instalment sale agreement.
The instalment sale agreement had
been concluded between the parties on 24 October 2017.
[3]
When the repossession order was granted, the applicant was in arrears
with her repayment obligations. She does not deny
this assertion in
her papers but states that she was a few months in arrears with her
repayment obligations. She contends that
when the default judgment
was obtained, the respondent had failed to comply with the provisions
of section 129 of the National
Credit Act (“the NCA”).
Furthermore, she contends that the default judgment was granted
prematurely before the
expiry of the
dies
as provided for by the Uniform Rules of
Court.
[4] The issues for
determination are as follows:
(a) whether
the respondent complied with sections 129 and 130 of the National
Credit Act (“NCA”) before
enforcing the instalment sale
agreement;
(b) whether the default
judgement was granted prematurely before the expiry of the
dies
as
provided for by the rules of Court;
(c) whether the
applicant has satisfied the requirements for condonation of the late
filing of the application; and
(d) whether the
applicant has satisfied the requirements for rescission of the
default judgment. The law on each of the issues
will be dealt with
hereunder.
[5] Section 129 of
the NCA makes provision for the required procedures before debt
enforcement could be implemented and reads
as follows:
“
(1)
consumer is in default under a credit agreement, the credit provider-
(a)
may draw the default to the notice of the
consumer in writing and propose that the consumer refer the credit
agreement to a debt
counsellor, alternative dispute resolution agent,
consumer court or ombud with jurisdiction, with the intent that the
parties resolve
any dispute under the agreement or develop and agree
on a plan to bring the payments under the agreement up to date; and
(b)
Subject to section 130 (2), may not
commence any legal proceedings to enforce the agreement before-
(i)
First providing notice to the consumer, as
contemplated in paragraph (a), or in section 86(10), as the case may
be; and
(ii)
Meeting any further requirements set out in
section 130.
(2) Subsection (1) does
not apply to a credit agreement that is subject to a debt
restructuring order, or to proceedings in a court
that could result
in such order.
(3) Subject to subsection
(4); a consumer may-
(a) at any time before
the credit provider has cancelled the agreement re-instate a credit
agreement that is in default by paying
to the credit provider all
amounts that are overdue, together with the credit providers
permitted default charges and the reasonable
costs of enforcing the
agreement up to the time of re-instatement; and-
(b) After complying with
paragraph (a), may resume possession of any property that has been
repossessed by the credit provider pursuant
to an attachment order.
(4) A consumer may not
re-instate a credit agreement after-
(a)
the sale of any property pursuant to-
(i)
an attachment order; or
(ii)
surrender of property in terms of section 127;
(b) the execution of any
other court order enforcing that agreement; or
(c)
the termination thereof in accordance with section 123.-”
[6] Section 130
makes provision for the enforcement of a debt procedures in court and
states as follows:
“
(1)
Subject to subsection (2), a credit provider may approach the court
for an order to enforce a credit agreement only if,
at that
time, the consumer is in default and has been in default
under that credit agreement for at least 20 business
days and -
(a)
at
least 10 business days have elapsed since the credit provider
delivered a notice to the consumer as contemplated in section
86
(9), or section 129 (1), as the case may be;
(b)
in the case of a notice contemplated in section 129 (1), the consumer
has-
(i)
not responded to that notice; or
(ii)
responded to the notice by rejecting the credit provider's proposals;
and
(c)
in the case of an instalment agreement. secured loan, or lease, the
consumer has not surrendered the relevant property to the
credit
provider as contemplated in section 127.
(2)
…
(3)
Despite any provision of law or contract to the contrary, in any
proceedings commenced in a court in respect of a credit agreement
to
which this Act applies, the court may determine the matter only if
the court is satisfied that-
(a)
in the case of proceedings to which sections 127, 129 or 131
apply, the procedures required by those sections have been
complied with;
(b)
…
(4)
In any proceedings contemplated in this section, if the court
determines that-
(a)
the credit agreement was reckless as described in section 80, the
court must make an order contemplated in section 83;
(
b) the
credit provider has not complied with the relevant
provisions
of this Act, as contemplated in subsection (3) (a), or has
approached the court in circumstances contemplated in
subsection (3)
(c) the court must-
(i) adjourn
the matter before it; and
(ii)
make an appropriate order setting out the steps the credit provider
must complete before the matter may be resumed;
(c)
…”
[7]
The purpose of section 129 of the NCA is to provide protection to
credit consumers by requiring that notice of default
must be given
before legal remedies could be enforced in the courts by credit
providers.
[1]
[8]
In
Amardien
and Others v Registrar of Deeds and Others
[2]
the Constitutional Court described the purpose of section 129 in the
following terms:
“
(
a)
It
brings to the attention of the consumer the default status of her
credit agreement
.
(c)
It provides the
consumer with an opportunity to rectify the default status of
the credit agreement in order to avoid legal
action being
instituted on the credit agreement or to regain possession of
the asset subject to the credit agreement
.”
(c)
It
is the only gateway for a credit provider to be able to
institute legal action against a consumer who is in default
under a credit agreement.
”
[9]
The applicant raises the non-compliance with sections 129 and
130 procedures in her heads of agreement and did not do
so in her
founding affidavit. I had regard to the section 129 notice letter
attached to the combined summons. It is evident from
the contents
thereof that it mentions the total balance, the amount of arrears
that need to be settled, the fact that the applicant
has various
options as prescribed by the NCA with regards to referring the matter
to a debt counsellor or credit ombud if she had
queries in regard to
the amount indicated in the letter as outstanding. The letter itself
was sent to the applicant by registered
post. The applicant is silent
on what she did with the options made available to her by the letter.
I am therefore satisfied that
the provisions of sections 129 and 130
of the NCA were complied with by the respondent. Accordingly, there
is no merit in the contention
that the sections were not complied
with.
[10]
I now deal with the contention that the default judgment was granted
prematurely by the Court. Rule 31(2) (a) of the Uniform
Rules state
as follows:
“
Whenever
in an action of the claim or, if there is more than one claim, any of
the claims is not for a debt or liquidated demand
and a defendant is
in default of delivery of notice of intention to defend or of a plea,
the plaintiff may set the action down
as provided in subrule (4) for
the default judgment and the court may, after hearing evidence, grant
judgment against the defendant
or make such order as it deems fit.”
The
applicant contends that the default judgement was granted by error
because the
dies
had not expired and seeks the judgment to be set aside in terms of
rule 42 (1) of the Uniform Rules.
[11]
Rule 42(1) (a) provides that the High Court may, in addition
to any other powers it may have,
mero
motu
or upon the application of any party affected, rescind, or vary an
order or judgment erroneously sought or erroneously granted
in the
absence of any party affected thereby
[3]
.
The argument before me therefore centres around the question whether
the facts upon which the applicant relies give rise to the
sort of
error for which the rule provides and, if so, whether the order was
erroneously sought or erroneously granted because of
it.
[12]
Rule 42 caters for mistake. Rescission or variation does not
follow automatically upon proof of a mistake. The rule
gives the
courts a discretion to order it, which must be exercised
judicially.
[4]
Not every
mistake or irregularity may be corrected in terms of the rule. It is,
for the most part at any rate, a restatement
of the common law. It
does not purport to amend or extend the common law.
[5]
[13]
Rule 42 is confined by its wording and context to the rescission or
variation of an ambiguous order containing a patent error
or omission
(rule 42(1) (b)); or an order resulting from a mistake common to the
parties (rule 42(1)(c)); order an order erroneously
sought or
erroneously granted in the absence of a party affected thereby (rule
42(1) (a)). In the present case the application
was, as far as the
rule is concerned, is only based on Rule 42(1) (a) and the crisp
question is whether the judgment was erroneously
granted. The
applicant contends that the
dies
had not expired when the
judgment was granted.
[14]
The combined summons was served by the sheriff at the chosen
domicilium
of the applicant on the 17th of December 2021 by affixing copies to
the outer or principal door at the given address. There was
no notice
of appearance to defend filed by the applicant. Service of the court
process to a given
domicilium
address
has been held to be a good service.
[6]
The
application for default judgment dated 31st of January 2022 was filed
at Court and on the 24 February 2022, the default judgment
was
granted in favour of the respondent for the cancellation of the
agreement between the parties and the applicant was ordered
to return
to the respondent a 2015 Toyota Avanza with the full details
described in the order.
[15]
The applicant contents that when judgment was sought and
obtained on the 24th of February 2022, the 10 days period had
not yet
elapsed, if regard is had to the fact that summons was served on 17
December 2021.This complaint has no basis because the
dies
elapsed on 5 January 2022 and not the 31st of January 2022 as
contended by the applicant. In any event, the order was granted only
on the 24th of February 2022. Accordingly, I find no basis to allege
that the court made an error in granting the default judgment.
When
the registrar of the Court referred the application for default
judgment to Court, it was dealt with by Court having considered
the
papers before it and it could not find anything untoward with the
papers. It follows therefore that there is no basis for this
Court to
reconsider the judgment under Rule 31(5)(d) or rescission in terms of
rule 42(1).
[16]
The third issue is whether the applicant has shown good cause
for application for condonation of the late filing of
this rescission
application. Rule 31 (2) (b) states that:
“
a
defendant may within 21 days after he or she has knowledge of such
judgment apply to court upon notice to the plaintiff to set
aside
such judgment, and the court may, upon good cause shown, set aside
the default judgment on such terms as it deems fit, if
it is
satisfied that good cause has been shown”.
[17]
Our courts have had an opportunity to explain what is meant in the
rule by “a good cause”. In
Bangus
Ranching (Pty) Ltd v Plaaskem (Pty) Ltd
[7]
it was held that:
“
19.
For rescission to be granted in terms of rule 51 (2) (b) the
appellant needs to establish ‘good cause’. In
Saraiva
Construction (Pty) Ltd v Zululand Electrical and Engineering
Wholesalers
(Pty)Ltd
1975(1) SA 612 (D
), Howard J (as he
then was) commented at page 613B-D that;
‘
In
terms of Rule 31 (2) (b) the Court has a discretion to set aside a
default judgment ‘upon good cause shown.’ The Rules
contain no definition of ‘good cause’ but the Courts have
provided one, in effect, by laying down certain requirements
which an
applicant must comply with before he can be held to have shown good
cause or, what is practically synonymous, ‘sufficient
cause’
for various kinds of procedural relief.’
[18]
In
Silber
v Ozen Wholesalers (Pty) Ltd
[8]
it was held as follows with regards to the definition of ‘good
cause’:
“
..
applicant had always been obliged to set out the reasons why he did
not appear, as well as the grounds of his defence, but it
was only in
1936 by another amendment that the application was required to be on
affidavit. It seems clear that by introducing
the words 'and if good
cause be shown' the regulating authority was imposing upon the
applicant for rescission the burden of actually
proving, as opposed
to merely alleging, good cause for rescission, such good cause
including but not being limited to the existence
of a substantial
defence. The onus is upon the applicant for rescission to establish
that such good cause exists in the circumstances
of each case.”
[19]
In
Colyn
v Tiger Food Industries Ltd t/a Meadow Feed Mills
(Cape)
[9]
the court held that:
“
..
the Courts generally expect an applicant to show good cause (a) by
giving a reasonable explanation of his default; (b) by showing
that
his application is made
bona fide
; and (c) by showing that he
has a
bona fide
defence to the plaintiff's claim which
prima
facie
has some prospect of success.”
[20]
Our Courts have also been reluctant to give the phrase “good
cause” a precise meaning. For instance, in
Kritzinger
v Northern Natal Implement Co Ltd
[10]
it was stated by James JP that:
“
A
consideration of the various cases on the subject of good cause shows
that there is an understandable reluctance to give the phrase
a
circumscribed and inelastic meaning and it is, I think, clear that
each case must stand on its own facts. It appears, however,
to be
generally accepted that good cause cannot be held to be satisfied
unless there is evidence not only of the existence of a
substantial
defence but, in addition, of a
bona
fide
desire by the applicant to
raise the defence if the application is granted.”
[21]
Again in
Construction
(Pty) Ltd v Wait
[11]
Smalberger J held that:
“
In
determining whether or not good cause has been shown, and more
particularly in the present matter, whether the defendant has
given a
reasonable explanation for his default, the Court is given a wide
discretion in terms of Rule 31 (2) (b). When dealing
with words such
as ‘good cause’ and ‘sufficient cause’ in
other Rules and enactments the Appellate Division
has refrained from
attempting an exhaustive definition of their meaning in order not to
abridge or fetter in any way the wide discretion
implied by these
words (Cairn's Executors v Gaarn
1912
AD 181
at
186; Silber v Ozen Wholesalers (Pty) Ltd
1954
(2) SA 345
(A)
at 352 - 3). The Court's discretion must be exercised after a proper
consideration of all the relevant circumstances
.
”
[22]
In
the instant case, the applicant states in her founding affidavit that
she was sceptical that the sheriff was authorised to repossess
the
vehicle as respondent had previously, around September 2021 sent its
agent to her house for the purposed of surrendering the
vehicle and
she states that she refused as she was still making payments. She
does not deny that her account was in arrears but
states that she
queried some of the line items indicated on her statements such as
the extended warranty of the motor vehicle.
She furthermore avers
that she only became aware of the judgment on the 22nd of April 2022
when the sheriff came to her house with
the warrant of delivery to
repossess the vehicle. She then states that during May 2022 she
forwarded an e-mail to the respondents’
attendees requesting
copies of documents related to the possession of the vehicle and the
judgment against her. She received the
requested documents on the 4th
of May 2022. She then launched the application during June 2022.Based
on her explanation, I have
no difficulty in condoning the late
application for re-consideration and rescission of the default
judgment.
[23]
I now deal with the final issue of whether the requirements for
rescission of the default judgment have been met. I have covered
the
law on the ‘good cause’ to be shown for a rescission
application to be favourably considered. It is critical,
inter
alia
, that the applicant bears the onus of showing a defence to
the claim. The applicant does not deny that her account is in
arrears.
She contends that the reason she fell behind with her
repayments obligations was due to the imposition of the State of
Disaster
in response to the Covid-19 pandemic by Government which had
an adverse effect on her business. The question is whether this
so-called
defence can be sustained to avoid the contractual
obligations. I am of the view that it cannot and accordingly, this
does not meet
the requirement of good defence.
[24]
The applicant also contends that she queried some of the line items
on her statement of account from the respondent. The question
is
whether those items are in fact and at law valid defences which can
entitle the applicant to have the judgment rescinded and
therefore
allow the case to proceed to trial. It should be remembered that the
agreement and its terms are not in dispute together
with the fact
that in the event of any litigation, the respondent will seek the
applicant to pay on the scale as between attorney
and client.
[25]
I hold the view that there are no valid defences to justify
rescinding the default judgment and that in any event the so-called
reasons for default are not raised as
bona
fide
defence
to resist the litigation. Accordingly, the requirements for
rescission of the default judgment have in my view, not been
established. Consequently, the application stands to be dismissed.
ORDER
[26]
Consequently, the following order is made:
(a)
Condonation for the late filling of the application is granted;
(b)
The application for rescission of the default judgment is dismissed;
and
(c)
The applicant is ordered to pay costs on the scale as between
attorney and client.
ML SENYATSI
JUDGE OF THE HIGH
COURT OF SOUTH AFRICA
GAUTENG DIVISION,
JOHANNESBURG
DATE
APPLICATION HEARD
: 24 April 2023
DATE
JUDGMENT HANDED DOWN
:
12 June 2023
APPEARANCES
Counsel
for the Applicant/Defendant:
Adv
O Leketi
Instructed
by:
Baepi
Dyasi Attorneys
Counsel
for the
Respondent/Plaintiff:
Adv
J Govender
Instructed
by:
Smith
Van Der Watt Inc.
[1]
See
First Rand Bank Ltd t/a First National Bank v Moonsammy (07747/2018)
[2020]- ZAGPJHC 105;
2021 (1) SA 225(GJ)
(15 April 2020) at para 17.
[2]
2019
(3) SA 341
(CC) at para 56.
[3]
See
Colyn v Tiger Foods Industries Ltd t/a Meadow Feed Mills Cape
(127/2002)
[2003] ZASCA 36
;
2 All SA 113(SCA)
(13 March 2003) at
para 3.
[4]
See
Theron NO v United Democratic Front (Western Cape Region) and Others
1984(2) SA (C) at 536G; Tshivhase Royal Council and another
v
Tshivhase and another; Tshivhase and another v Tshivhase and another
[1992] ZASCA 185
; 1992(4) SA 852(A) 862J-863A.
[5]
See
Harms, Civil Procedure in the Supreme Court, B42-1.
[6]
See Chris Mulder Genote v Louis Meintjies Konstruksie (Edms) Bpk
1988 (2) SA 433
(T).
[7]
2011(3)
SA 447(KZP) at para 19.
[8]
1954
(2) SA 345
(AD) at 352F-G
[9]
Above
footnote 3 at 9E-F.
[10]
1973(4)
SA 542 (N) at 546 A-C.
[11]
1979(2)
SA 298 (E) at 300H-301A.
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