Case Law[2024] ZAGPPHC 561South Africa
Topigs Norsvin SA Proprietary Limited v Eskom Holdings SOC Ltd and Others (013715/2022) [2024] ZAGPPHC 561 (19 June 2024)
Judgment
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# South Africa: North Gauteng High Court, Pretoria
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## Topigs Norsvin SA Proprietary Limited v Eskom Holdings SOC Ltd and Others (013715/2022) [2024] ZAGPPHC 561 (19 June 2024)
Topigs Norsvin SA Proprietary Limited v Eskom Holdings SOC Ltd and Others (013715/2022) [2024] ZAGPPHC 561 (19 June 2024)
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sino date 19 June 2024
SAFLII
Note:
Certain
personal/private details of parties or witnesses have been
redacted from this document in compliance with the law
and
SAFLII
Policy
FLYNOTES:
ENVIRONMENT – Water resources –
Structural
interdict
–
Alleged
non-compliance by Eskom with conditions of environmental
authorizations and water use licences – Failure to
enforce
compliance by Eskom with conditions and legal requirements –
Applicant falls short on requirement – Unable
to prove it
does not have an alternative remedy or sufficient redress in due
course – Failure of applicant to invoke
provision of NEMA
and NWA infringes on principle of subsidiarity – Application
dismissed – National Environmental
Management Act 107 of
1998 –
National Water Act 36 of 1998
.
IN
THE HIGH COURT OF SOUTH AFRICA
GAUTENG DIVISION,
PRETORIA
CASE NO: 013715/2022
(1) REPORTABLE: NO
(2) OF INTEREST TO
OTHER JUDGES: NO
(3) REVISED.
DATE:
19/06/24
ML TWALA
In
the matter between:
TOPIGS
NORSVIN SA PROPRIETARY
LIMITED
APPLICANT
And
ESKOM
HOLDINGS SOC LTD
FIRST
RESPONDENT
ANDRE MARINUS de
RUYTER
SECOND
RESPONDENT
CALIB
CASSIM
THIRD
RESPONDENT
MALEGAPURU
WILLIAM MAKGOBA
FOURTH
RESPONDENT
BANOTHILE
CHARITY MAKHUBELA
FIFTH
RESPONDENT
PULANE
ELSIE MOLOKWANE
SIXTH
RESPONDENT
BUSISIWE
MAVUSO
SEVETH RESPONDENT
RODERICK
de BRASSIC CROMPTON
EIGHT
RESPONDENT
TSHEPO
HERBERT TONG-MONGALO
NINTH
RESPONDENT
MLAWULI
MAYOR MAJINGOLO
TENTH RESPONDENT
DEIDRE
HERBST
ELEVENTH RESPONDENT
BONGUMUSA
MASHAZI
TWELFTH
RESPONDENT
LESIBA
KGOBE
THIRTEENTH RESPONDENT
MINSTER
OF WATER AND SANITATION
FOURTEENTH
RESPONDENT
DIRECTOR-GENERAL:
DEPARTMENT OF
WATER
AND SANITATION
FIFTEENTH RESPONDENT
MINSTER
OF FORESTRY, FISHERIES
AND
THE ENVIRONMENT
SIXTEENTH RESPONDENT
DIRECTOR-GENERAL:
DEPARTMENT OF
FORESTRY,
FISHERIES AND THE
ENVIRONMENT
SEVENTEEN RESPONDENT
MINISTER
OF MINRAL RESOURCES
AND
ENERGY
EIGHTEENTH RESPONDENT
NATIONAL
ERGY REGULATOR OF
SOUTH
AFRICA
NINETEENTH RESPONDENT
CLIVE
RAYMOND LE ROUX
TWENTIETH RESPONDENT
PAUL
MPHO MAKWANA
TWENTY-
FIRST RESPONDENT
AUSTIN
LESLIE MKHABELA
TWENTY-SECOND RESPONDENT
BUSISIWE
VILAKAZI
TWENTY-THIRD RESPONDENT
LWAZI
LEON GOQWANA
TWENTY-FOURTH
RESPONDENT
FATHIMA
BEE BEE ABDUL GANY
TWENTY-FIFTH RESPONDENT
ANYANDA
PEARL ZINHLE
MAFULEKA
TWENTY-SIXTH
RESPONDENT
TSKANI
LOTTEN MTHOMBENI
TWENTY-SEVENTH
RESPONDENT
BEKI
ZACHARIA NTSHALINTSHALI
TWENTY-EIGHT
RESPONDENT
NTETO
NYATHI
TWENTY-NINETH RESPONDENT
TRYPHOSA
RAMANO
THIRTIETH RESPONDENT
CLAUSELLE
von ECK
THIRTY-FIRST
RESPONDENT
JUDGMENT
TWALA
J
Introduction
[1]
It is a constitutional imperative under the bill of rights in the
Republic that, everyone has
the right to an environment that is not
harmful to their health or wellbeing and to have the environment
protected for the benefit
of the present and future generation. This
is to be achieved through the adoption of reasonable measures and
legislation that prevent
pollution and ecological degradation,
promote conservation and secure ecologically sustainable development
and use of natural resources
while promoting justifiable economic and
social development.
[2]
In this application, the applicant, Topigs Norsvin SA (Pty) Ltd seeks
an order against the first
to thirty-first respondents as prayed for
in the amended notice of motion in the following terms:
2.1 declaring
that the respondents (excluding the second, fourth, fifth and seventh
respondents) are under a constitutional
duty and or legal duty and or
statutory duty to ensure that the water resources downstream from the
Kusile Power Station are not
polluted or are likely to be polluted by
the construction and or operation and or management of the Kusile
Power Station and or
to ensure that no substances are discharged or
allowed to escape from the Kusile Power Station so as to:
i.
Pollute or likely pollute a water resource; and or
ii.
Detrimentally affect or likely affect a water resource; and or
iii.
Degrade or damage the environment; and or
iv.
Cause or likely cause a threat for human health;
2.2 declaring
that the respondents (excluding the second fourth, fifth and seventh
respondents) are in breach of the
duty or duties referred to in
prayer 2.1 above;
2.3 declaring
that the conduct of the respondents (excluding the second, fourth,
fifth and seventh respondents), in
failing to prevent and or allowing
and or causing directly or indirectly and by act or omission the
discharge or escape of substances
from the Kusile Power Station
which:
i.
Pollutes or likely to pollute a water resource; and or
ii.
Detrimentally affects or is likely to affect a water resource; and or
iii.
Degrade or damage the environment; and or
iv.
Cause or likely cause a threat for human health;
is unconstitutional and a
breach of the following fundamental rights of the applicant, its
directors, and its employees and or the
potential water users
downstream of the Kusile Power Station, namely:
2.3.1
the right to equality in section 9 of the Constitution
of the
Republic of South Africa, 1996 (hereinafter “the 1996
Constitution”);
2.3.2
the right to human dignity in section 10 of the 1996
Constitution;
2.3.3
the right to life in section 11 of the 1996 Constitution;
2.3.4
the right to freedom and security of the person in
section 12(1)(c)
of the 1996 Constitution;
2.3.5
the right to freedom and security of the person in
section 12(2) of
the 1996 Constitution;
2.3.6
the right to freedom of trade, occupation and profession
in section
22 of the 1996 Constitution; the environmental right in section 24(a)
of the Constitution;
2.3.7
the environmental right in section 24(a) of the Constitution;
2.3.8
the environmental right in section 24(b) of the Constitution;
and or
2.3.9
the right to property in section 25 of the Constitution;
2.4
that the first respondent (Eskom Holdings) and the third, sixth,
eighth to tenth and twenty
to thirty-first respondents (the current
Board of Directors of Eskom Holdings) take all necessary steps within
thirty (30) days
of the date of this order:
2.4.1
to ensure that the water resources downstream from
the Kusile Power
Station are not polluted or are likely to be polluted by the
construction and or operation and or management of
the Kusile Power
Station;
2.4.2
to ensure that no substances
are discharged or allowed to escape from
the Kusile Power Station so as to:
i.
Pollutes or likely to pollute a water resource; and or
ii.
Detrimentally affects or is likely to affect a water resource; and or
iii.
Degrade or damage the environment; and or
iv.
Cause or likely cause a threat for human health;
2.4.3
to ensure that the Kusile Power Station is properly
constructed and
or operated and or managed fully in accordance with the terms and
conditions of:
i.
the approved Environmental Management Programme (2014) for the Kusile
Power Station,
as approved in terms of section 24N of the National
Environmental Management Act, 107 of 1998 (hereinafter
(“the
NEMA”)
;
ii.
Water Use Licence with reference […] as amended, granted to
the first respondent
in terms of the provisions of chapter 4 of the
National Water Act 36 of 1998 (hereinafter “
the
NWA”)
;..
iii.
Water Use Licence with reference […] as amended, granted to
the first respondent
in terms of the provisions of chapter 4 of the
NWA;
iv.
Water Use Licence with reference […], granted to the first
respondent in terms
of the provisions of chapter 4 of the NWA;
v.
Water Use Licence with reference […] granted to the first
respondent in terms
of the provisions of chapter 4 of the NWA;
vi.
Water Use Licence with reference [….], granted to the first
respondent in terms
of the provisions of chapter 4 of the NWA; and
vii.
Any other legislative instrument pertaining to the environmental
governance of the
construction, operation and or management of the
Kusile power Station;
2.4.4
to refrain from threatening and or infringing and or
breaching the
fundamental rights of the applicant, its directors, and its employees
and or the potential water users downstream
of the Kusile Power
Station as contemplated in prayer 2.3 above.
2.5
that the first respondent (Eskom Holdings) and the third, sixth,
eighth to tenth and twenty
to thirty-first respondents (the current
Board of Directors of Eskom Holdings) and the eleventh to thirteenth
respondents within
ten (10) days of this order each file at this
Court under oath, and provide to the applicant, the action plan and
programme which
they will implement without delay so as to ensure
that the duties and obligations referred to in payer 2.3 and 2.4
above are performed
or carried out and which address the following
matters:
2.5.1
the steps taken to ensure that the officials, staff,
employees,
agents, consultants or contractors of the first respondent will give
effect to the duties and obligation referred to
in prayer 2.3 and 2.4
above;
2.5.2
what further steps will be
taken in this regard;
2.5.3
who will be responsible for
taking each step, as well as reporting
thereon; and
2.5.4
when each of such further steps
will be taken;
2.6
that the first respondent (Eskom Holdings) and the third, sixth,
eighth to tenth and twenty
to thirty-first respondent (the current
Board of Directors of Eskom Holdings) and the eleventh respondent to
the thirteenth respondent
take all necessary steps to ensure
compliance with the obligations emanating from the action plan and
programme as contemplated
in prayer 2.5 within thirty (30) days of
this order;
2.7
that the first respondent (Eskom Holdings) and the third, sixth,
eighth to tenth and twenty
to thirty-first respondents (the current
Board of Directors of Eskom Holdings) and the eleventh to the
thirteenth respondents each
file affidavits with this court,
supported by technical reports compiled by or on behalf of the first
respondent in respect of
the environmental management of the Kusile
Power Station, and provide copies to the applicant, every fifteen
(15) days calculated
from the expiry of the date contemplated in
prayer 2.6 above, until the order is discharged by this court,
setting out or specifying
the steps taken to give effect to this
order, when such steps were taken, what the results of those steps
have been, what further
steps will be taken, who will be responsible
for taking such further steps, and the time-frame within which each
such step will
be taken;
2.8
that the applicant is granted leave to file further affidavits in
response to any affidavit
or report from the first respondent (Eskom
Holdings) and the third, sixth, eighth to tenth and twenty to
thirty-first respondents
(the current Board of Directors of Eskom
Holdings) and the eleventh to thirteenth respondents as contemplated
in this order and
is granted leave to approach the court for such
further orders and or directives and or relief as need be, regarding
compliance
with the orders contained in 2.4 to 2.7 above (including
an order for contempt of court);
2.9
that the fourteenth to nineteenth respondents within ten (10) days of
this order file at
this court under oath, and provide to the
applicant, the action plan and programme which they will implement
without delay so as
to ensure that the duties and obligation referred
to in payer 2.4 to 2.7 above are performed or carried out and which
address the
following matters:
2.9.1
the steps taken to ensure that
the officials, staff, employees,
agents, consultants or contractors of the first respondent will give
effect to the duties and
obligations referred to in prayer 2.4 to 2.7
above;
2.9.2
what further steps will be
taken in this regard;
2.9.3
who will be responsible for
taken each step, as well as reporting
thereon; and
2.9.4
when each of such steps will
be taken;
2.10 that the
fourteenth to nineteenth respondent take all necessary steps to
ensure that compliance with the obligations
emanating from the action
plan and program as contemplated in prayer 2.9 above within thirty
(30) days of this order;
2.11 that the
fourteenth to nineteenth respondents file affidavits with this court,
supported by technical reports compiled
by their officials
responsible for oversight over or inspection of the environmental
management of Kusile Power Station, and provide
copies to the
applicant, every fifteen (15) days calculated form the expiry of the
date contemplated in prayer 2.10 above, until
the order is discharged
by this court, setting out or specifying the steps taken to give
effect to this order, when such steps
were taken, what the results of
those steps have been, what further steps will be taken, who will be
responsible for taking such
steps, and time-frame within which each
such step will be taken;
2.12 that the
applicant is granted leave to file further affidavits in response to
any affidavit or report from the
fourteenth to twenty-first
respondents as contemplated in this order and is granted leave to
approach the court for such further
orders and or directives and or
relief as need be, regarding compliance with the orders contained in
prayer 2.9 to 2.11 above (including
an order for contempt of court;
2.13 that the
first respondent, in terms of section 32(3)(b) of the NEMA, pay the
reasonable costs incurred by the applicant
in the investigation of
this matter and its preparation of r these proceedings (including the
reservation fees as well as the qualifying
costs and expenses of the
expert witness Dr James Andries Meyer);
2.14 that the
costs of this application be paid by the respondents (excluding the
second, fourth, fifth and seventh
respondents) jointly and severally,
the one respondent to pay the other respondents to be absolved, and
on a punitive scale as
between attorney and client;
2.15 that
such further and or alternative relief be granted as the court deems
fit and or appropriate and or just and
equitable and or in the public
interest.
The
Parties
[3]
The applicant is Topigs Norsvin SA (Pty) Limited
(“the
applicant”)
, a private company duly incorporated in
accordance with the Companies Act, 71 of 2008
(“The
Companies Act&rdquo
;)
, having its registered office at Suite […],
Block […], D[…] G[…] C[…] O[…]
Park, […]
S[…] Drive, R[…] […] C[…]
Park, Irene, Pretoria, Gauteng Province.
[4]
The applicant is a swine genetics producer responsible for supplying
specific pathogen –
free breeding material to the South African
and Sothern African Development Community (SADC) pork market. The
applicant provides
direct employment to about 144 people and conducts
its swine genetics business also on Portions 9 and 10 of the Farm
B[…]
[…] JR which portions are held by the applicant
under and by Title Deed Numbers T[...] and T[...] respectively. These
portions
of land where the applicant conduct its business are
adjacent to the Kusile Power Station
(“Kusile”)
.
[5]
The first respondent is Eskom Holdings (S0C) Ltd
(“Eskom”)
,
a state-owned company duly incorporated in accordance with the
Companies Act, read
with the Eskom Conversion Act, 13 of 2001 with
its registered office at the Eskom Headquarters, M[…] Park,
[…] M[…]
Drive, S[…], Gauteng Province.
[6]
Eskom is a state-owned company with a mandate for the generation,
transmission, and distribution
of electricity in the Republic. In
pursuit of its mandate, Eskom is responsible for the construction,
operation and maintenance
of the partially established coal fired
Kusile Power Station, which is situate at […] K[…] and
B[…] Road,
Farm H[…], Witbank, Mpumalanga Province.
[7]
The second to the tenth and the twentieth to thirty-first respondents
are cited herein in their
capacities as directors of Eskom and I
propose not to devote any more time and space in describing them
individually and their
involvement in this case.
[8]
The eleventh to thirteen respondents are employees of Eskom in
managerial positions and in particular
dealing with the issues of
environment. I do not intend to devote any time to describe them as
well as their involvement in this
matter will be dealt with later in
this judgment. Where necessary, I will refer to these respondents
collectively as the Eskom
respondents.
[9]
The fourteenth respondent is the Minister of Water and Sanitation
(“the Minister”)
, a Cabinet and National Executive
member in the Republic of South Africa in charge of the Department of
Water and Sanitation
(“DWS”)
. The Minister and the
Director-General in his department are responsible for the
administration, implementation, and enforcement
of compliance with
the provisions of the
National Water Act
>(“the NWA”)
.
[10]
The sixteenth respondent is the Minister of Forestry, Fisheries and
Environment, a Cabinet and National Executive
member in the Republic
of South Africa in charge of the Department of Environment, Forestry
and Fisheries
(“the DFFE”).
The Minister and the
Director-General in his department are responsible for the
administration, implementation, and enforcement
of compliance with
the provisions of the National Environmental Management Act, 107 of
1998
(“NEMA”).
[11]
The eighteenth respondent is the Minister of Mineral Resources and
Energy, a Cabinet and Executive member
in the Republic of South
Africa in charge of the department of mineral resources and energy.
The Minister and the Director-General
in his/her department are
responsible for the administration, implementation, and enforcement
of compliance with the provisions
of the National Energy Regulator
Act, 40 of 2004
(“NERA”)
and the Electricity
Regulation Act, 4 of 2006
(“ERA”)
.
[12]
The nineteenth respondent is the National Energy Regulator of South
Africa
(“NERSA”)
, a juristic person established in
terms of
section 3
of the
National Energy Regulator Act with
a
mandate to regulate the electricity industry. I propose to refer to
the fourteenth to the nineteenth respondents collectively
as the
State respondents. However, it is noteworthy that the eighteenth
respondent did not file any opposition and is therefore
not
participating in this case.
[13]
The application is opposed by the respondents, and they have filed
substantial answering and further affidavits
in this regard. It is
only the nineteenth respondent who initially did not oppose the
application and filed its notice to abide
the decision of this court,
but later filed what it termed an explanatory affidavit. Furthermore,
at the hearing of this matter,
the nineteenth respondent chose not to
make any submissions when afforded an opportunity to do so. Further,
it should be noted
that I did not devote any attention to the
fifteenth and seventeenth respondents since they are part of the two
departments, the
DWS and the DFFE.
The
Preliminary
[14] At
the commencement of the hearing, it was agreed amongst the parties
that the issues of misjoinder and non-joinder
of the parties to these
proceedings should not be commenced with but should be part of the
main body of argument. Put differently,
instead of dealing with the
issues of points in limine and the determination thereof at the
beginning of the hearing, these issues
were argued together with the
merits of the case. However, I proposed to start with these points in
limine in this judgment.
[15]
For the sake of convenience in this judgment, I propose to refer to
the parties as the applicant and with
regard to the respondents
related to Eskom, collectively as Eskom and those related to the
State collectively as the State respondents
save for the eighteenth
respondent who is not participating in these proceedings. However,
where it is necessary to refer to a
particular respondent, I shall do
so by referring to such respondent by its number.
[16]
The issue of the condonation application by the fourteenth to
seventeenth respondents was not argued in court
but left for the
court to determine same from the papers. There was no opposition to
the application for condonation for the late
filing of the fourteenth
to the seventeenth respondents’ answering and supplementary
answering affidavits. The fourteenth
to seventeenth respondents
attributed the delay in the termination of the brief to its initial
lead counsel and that the supplementary
answering affidavit was
necessitated by the events that took place after the answering
affidavit was filed and that it covers the
steps that were taken in
the execution of their duties and continuous drive to enforce the
provisions of the NWA and the NEMA.
[17] In
Van Wyk
v Unital Hospital and Another
[1]
the Constitutional Court
stated the following:
“
[20] This Court
has held that the standard for considering an application for
condonation is the interests of justice. Whether it
is in the
interests of justice to grant condonation depends on the facts and
circumstances of each case. Factors that are relevant
to this enquiry
include but are not limited to the nature of the relief sought, the
extent and cause of the delay, the effect of
the delay on the
administration of justice and other litigants, the reasonableness of
the explanation for the delay, the importance
of the issue to be
raised in the intended appeal and the prospects of success.”
[18]
The Constitutional Court continued and stated that:
“
[22] An applicant
for condonation must give a full explanation for the delay. In
addition, the explanation must cover the entire
period of delay. And,
what is more, the explanation given must be reasonable.”
[19] It
is my considered view that the reasons proffered for the delay in
filing the answering affidavit and the
supplementary affidavit are
sound and reasonable in the circumstances of this case. Further, none
of the parties suffered any prejudice
as a result of the delay and
the applicant had an opportunity to and replied to the answering
affidavit. Furthermore, this application
is of utmost importance to
the State respondents that finalising it without hearing the
respondents’ version would amount
to a miscarriage of justice.
[20]
Since it is not for this court to close the door on a litigant who
proffers plausible reasons for the delay
in filing its papers, it
would not serve the interests of justice to not grant condonation in
this case. It cannot be correct to
punish a litigant for changing its
lead counsel and appointing another during litigation of the matter.
In cases of this nature,
it is necessary and in the interest of
justice to allow all the issues to be ventilated by the parties. The
ineluctable conclusion
is therefore that the Court condone the late
filing of the answering affidavit and the supplementary affidavit.
The Court further
accepts the apology for the late filing of the
heads of argument tendered by the fourteenth to the seventeenth
respondents.
[21]
The Eskom respondents say in their answering affidavit that the
applicant does not have locus standi to bring
these proceedings on
behalf of the downstream water users. The applicant does not identify
who the group of the downstream water
users comprises and does not
provide any mandate to act on their behalf. It is therefore denied
that the applicant brought this
application not only in its own
interests but as well as on behalf of the group of water users using
water from the water resources
downstream of Kusile.
[22]
The applicant contends that it brought this application primarily
based on a public right and the primary
intention is to claim relief
in its own interest, but which will result necessarily also affecting
and benefitting the rights of
others – being all water users
downstream from Kusile which include the farming communities and
previously disadvantage communities
taking their domestic water
required for agricultural purposes directly from these downstream
water resources. Eskom has continuously
failed to notify local
communities around Kusile about water pollution incidents –
hence the necessity to bring this application.
[23]
Section 38 of the Constitution of the Republic of South Africa, 108
of 1996
(“The Constitution”)
provides as follows:
“
Enforcement of rights
Anyone listed in this
section has the right to approach a competent court, alleging that a
right in the Bill of Rights has been
infringed or threatened, and the
court may grant appropriate relief, including a declaration of
rights. The persons who may approach
a court are –
(a)
anyone acting in their own interest;
(b)
anyone acting on behalf of another person who cannot act in their own
name;
(c)
anyone acting as a member of, or in the interest of, a group or class of
persons;
(d)
anyone acting in the public interest; and
(e) an association acting in the interest of its members.
[24] It
is trite that the primary purpose of section 38 of the Constitution
is to broaden the standing in constitutional
litigation – hence
it permits anyone to act in his personal interests, the interest of
others or public interest to approach
the court for the relief where
there is an infringement of a constitutional right. Section 38 allows
people acting on behalf of
others who cannot act on their own to
approach the courts for relief which will benefit not only themselves
but in the interests
of others or of the public. Section 38 should be
interpreted as giving access to the courts and justice to those that
are unable
to access justice on their own.
[25] In
Ferreira
v Levin NO and Others; Vryenhoek and Others v Powell NO and
Others
[2]
the Court stated the
following:
“
[229]
There can be little doubt that section 7(4) provides for a generous
and expanded approach to standing in the constitutional
context. The
categories of persons who are granted standing to seek relief are far
broader than our common law has ever permitted.
(See, for a
discussion, Erasmus
Superior
Court Practice
(1994) A2-17 to A2-33.) In this respect, I agree with Chaskalson P
(at paras 165 - 166). This expanded approach to standing is
quite
appropriate for constitutional litigation. Existing common law
rules of standing have often developed in the context
of private
litigation. As a general rule, private litigation is concerned
with the determination of a dispute between
two individuals, in which
relief will be specific and, often, retrospective, in that it applies
to a set of past events. Such litigation
will generally not directly
affect people who are not parties to the litigation. In such cases,
the plaintiff is both the victim
of the harm and the beneficiary of
the relief. In litigation of a public character, however, that nexus
is rarely so intimate.
The relief sought is generally forward-looking
and general in its application, so that it may directly affect a wide
range of people.
In addition, the harm alleged may often be quite
diffuse or amorphous. Of course, these categories are ideal types: no
bright line
can be drawn between private litigation and litigation of
a public or constitutional nature. Not all non-constitutional
litigation
is private in nature. Nor can it be said that all
constitutional challenges involve litigation of a purely public
character: a
challenge to a particular administrative act or decision
may be of a private rather than a public character. But it is clear
that
in litigation of a public character, different considerations
may be appropriate to determine who should have standing to launch
litigation. In recognition of this, section 7(4) casts a wider net
for standing than has traditionally been cast by the common
law.”
[26]
Based on the above, it is my respectful view that the applicant has
locus standi to bring this application
which will not only benefit
the applicant but the communities which are the users of water from
the downstream water resources
of Kusile. Since everyone has the
right to an environment that is not harmful to their health or
well-being and to have the environment
protected for the benefit of
the present and the future generations, I hold the view that there is
no merit in Eskom’s argument,
and it falls to be dismissed.
[27]
The applicant says that there is no merit in the argument by Eskom
respondents that there is a misjoinder
of the Eskom employees in
these proceedings because they do not have any personal interest in
the matter. The eleventh to the thirteenth
respondents have been
joined in these proceeding since they are responsible specifically
for the environmental management and effective
practical enforcement
of compliance with the terms and conditions of the various
legislative instruments issued to Eskom. It is
contended further that
there is nothing in the NWA and the NEMA that suggests that employees
of a company are excluded from personal
liability for their acts
which cause negative impact on the environment or degradation
thereof.
[28]
The obligation imposed on Eskom for ensuring compliance with the
environmental authorisations and water use
licences, so it was
contended, does not only affect Eskom but also any person acting on
behalf of Eskom including its employees.
The rule is that any party
who has a direct and substantial interest in the order that the court
might grant must be joined in
the proceedings. The relief sought by
the applicant, so it was argued, cannot be given effect to without
the eleventh to thirteenth
respondents. The NEMA imposes a positive
statutory duty on these respondents as it provides for every person
who causes or may
cause significant pollution or degradation to the
environment to minimise and rectify such pollution or degradation.
[29]
Furthermore, the applicant says that there was no need to join the
Environmental Monitoring Committee (“the
EMC
”) in
these proceedings, for it is just a committee with no legal standing.
It is not a legal entity and does not have the
capacity to sue or be
sued in law. Further, so it was argued, no relief is sought against
it since it does not have any legitimate
and substantial interest in
the case. The relief sought against the respondents will not have any
adverse effect on the EMC, so
it was contended.
[30]
Eskom says that the applicant has unnecessarily joined the eleventh
to the thirteenth respondents since they
are just employees of Eskom
and do not have any substantial and legitimate interest in this case.
The applicant’s argument
that there is nothing in the NWA and
or the NEMA which suggests that employees cannot also be held
personally liable has no merit.
A party can be joined in the
proceedings, so it was contended, if that party has a direct and
substantial interest which may be
affected prejudicially by the
judgment and order of the court.
[31] It
has now become settled law that the joinder of a party is only
required as a matter of necessity, as opposed
to a matter of
convenience, if a party has a direct and substantial interest in the
case. Put in another way, it is necessary to
join a party to the
proceedings if his or her interest will be prejudicially affected by
the judgment of the court in the proceedings
concerned.
[32] In
Absa v
Naude NO
[3]
the Court stated the
following:
“
[10] The test
whether there has been non-joinder is whether a party has a direct
and substantial interest in the subject matter
of the litigation
which may prejudice the party that has not been joined. In
Gordon
v Department of Health, KwaZulu-Natal
[2008] ZASCA 99
;
2008 (6) SA 522
(SCA) it was held that if an order or judgment cannot
be sustained without necessarily prejudicing the interest of third
parties
that had not been joined, then those third parties have a
legal interest in the matter and must be joined. That is the position
here. If the creditors are not joined their position would be
prejudicially affected; a business rescue plan that they had voted
for would be set aside; money that they had anticipated they would
receive for the following ten years to extinguish debts owing
to
them, would not be paid; the money that they had received, for
a period of thirty months, would have to be repaid; and
according to
the adopted business rescue plan the benefit that concurrent
creditors would have received namely a proposed dividend
of 100 per
cent of the debts owing to them, might be slashed to a 5,5 per cent
dividend if the company is liquidated.”
[33]
Section 24N of NEMA provides as follows:
“
(1)
…………………
(8)
Notwithstanding the Companies Act, 2008 (Act No. 71 of 2008), or the
Close Corporations Act, 1984
(Act No. 69 of 1984), the directors of a
company or members of a close corporation are jointly and severally
liable for any negative
impact on the environment, whether
advertently or inadvertently caused by the company or close
corporation which they represent,
including damage, degradation or
pollution.”
[34] It
is now settled that, in interpreting statutory provisions, the Court
must first have regard to the plain,
ordinary, grammatical meaning of
the words used in the statute. While maintaining that words
should generally be given their
grammatical meaning, it has long been
established that a contextual and purposive approach must be applied
to statutory interpretation.
Section 39 (2) of the Constitution of
the Republic of South Africa enjoins the Courts, when interpreting
any legislation and when
developing the common law or customary law,
to promote the spirit, purport and objects of the Bill of Rights.
[35]
More recently, in
Independent
Institution of Education (Pty) Limited v KwaZulu Natal Law Society
and Others
[4]
the Constitutional Court
again had an opportunity of addressing the issue of interpretation of
a statute and stated the following:
“
[1] It would be a
woeful misrepresentation of the true character of our constitutional
democracy to resolve any legal issue of consequence
without due
deference to the pre-eminent or overarching role of our Constitution.
[2] The interpretive
exercise is no exception. For, section 39(2) of the Constitution
dictates that ‘when interpreting any
legislation … every
court, tribunal, or forum must promote the spirit, purpose and
objects of the Bill of Rights’.
Meaning, every opportunity
courts have to interpret legislation, must be seen and utilised as a
platform for the promotion of the
Bill of Rights by infusing its
central purpose into the very essence of the legislation itself.”
[36]
The Court continued and stated the following:
“
[18] To concretise
this approach, the following must never be lost sight of. First, a
special meaning ascribed to a word or phrase
in a statue ordinarily
applies to that statute alone. Second, even in instances where that
statute applies, the context might dictate
that the special meaning
be departed from. Third, where the application of the definition,
even where the same statute in which
it is located applies, would
give rise to an injustice or incongruity or absurdity that is at odds
with the purpose of the statute,
then the defined meaning would be
inappropriate for use and should therefore be ignored. Fourth, a
definition of a word in the
one statute does not automatically or
compulsorily apply to the same word in another statute. Fifth, a word
or phrase is to be
given its ordinary meaning unless it is defined in
the statute where it is located. Sixth, where one of the meanings
that could
be given to a word or expression in a statute, without
straining the language, ‘promotes the spirit, purport and
objects
of the Bill of Rights’, then that is the meaning to be
adopted even if it is at odds with any other meaning in other
statutes.”
[38] It is a
well-established canon of statutory construction that ‘every
part of a statute should be construed so as to be
consistent, so far
as possible, with every other part of that statue, and with every
other unrepealed statute enacted by the Legislature’.
Statutes
dealing with the same subject matter, or which are
in pari
material
, should be construed together and harmoniously. This
imperative has the effect of harmonising conflicts and differences
between
statutes. The canon derives its force from the presumption
that the Legislature is consistent with itself. In other words, that
the Legislature knows and has in mind the existing law when it passes
new legislation, and frames new legislation with reference
to the
existing law. Statutes relating to the same subject matter should be
read together because they should be seen as part of
a single
harmonious legal system.
[41] The canon is
consistent with a contextual approach to statutory interpretation. It
is now trite that courts must properly contextualise
statutory
provisions when ascribing meaning to the words used therein. While
maintaining that word should generally be given their
ordinary
grammatical meaning, this Court has long recognised that a contextual
and purposive must be applied to statutory interpretation.
Courts
must have due regard to the context in which the words appear, even
where ‘the words to be construed are clear and
unambiguous’.
[42] This Court has taken
a broad approach to contextualising legislative provisions having
regard to both the internal and external
context in statutory
interpretation. A contextual approach requires that legislative
provisions are interpreted in of the text
of the legislation as a
whole (internal context). This Court has also recognised that context
included, amongst others, the mischief
which the legislation aims to
address, the social and historical background of the legislation,
and, most pertinently for the purposes
of this, other legislation
(external context). That a contextual approach mandates consideration
of other legislation is clearly
demonstrated in Shaik. In Shaik, this
Court considered context to be ‘all-important’ in the
interpretative exercise.
The context to which the Court had regard
included the ‘well-established’ rules of criminal
procedure and evidence
and, in particular, the provisions of the
Criminal Procedure Act.”
[37]
Textually, section 24N (8) of NEMA is clear, plain, and unambiguous.
I do not agree with the applicant that
since it does not expressly
exclude the employees then it means that the employees are included.
It is a basic principle of interpreting
a statute not to read into it
anything more than what is contained therein. Section 24N (8)
specifically mentions the directors
of a company and or the members
of a close corporation. This is so because the directors of a company
and the members of a close
corporation have the duty and power to
oversee and control, direct, and are accountable on behalf the
company whilst the employees
perform their duties in terms of the
terms and conditions of their employment by the company. If the
legislature intended section
24N (8) to include the employees, it
would have expressly done so and it did not.
[38]
Furthermore, the applicant places reliance on the general conditions
for the Water Use Licence Number […]
for joining the eleventh
to thirteenth respondents in these proceedings which conditions
provide the following:
“
1 General
1.1
…
1.4
The conditions of the authorisation must be brought to the attention
of all persons
(employees, sub-consultants, contractors etc.)
associated with the undertaking of these activities and the licensee
must take such
measures that are necessary to bind such persons to
the conditions of this licence.”
[39]
The condition of the water use licence is clear and unambiguous in
that it provides and creates a duty on
the licensee, which is Eskom
in this case, to take the necessary measures that its employees,
including consultants that are employed
by Eskom, to inform such
persons and to ascertain that they comply with the conditions of the
licence. The condition does not make
the employees personally liable
for non-compliance with the condition. It is Eskom that is liable for
non-compliance should its
employees fail to comply with the
conditions of the licence and Eskom must make sure that the employees
bind themselves to comply
with the conditions of license otherwise
Eskom will not be able to use the employees or consultants as an
excuse for non-compliance.
[40]
The employees of Eskom are working at Kusile to execute the mandate
given to them by Eskom. They are not
working at Kusile to further
their personal interests but that of Eskom, on the instructions and
directions of Eskom and in terms
of the terms and conditions of their
employment. The employees of Eskom therefore do not have a
substantial and direct interest
in this case. The unavoidable
conclusion is therefore that it was not necessary for the eleventh to
the thirteenth respondents
to be joined in these proceeding. Thus,
the application against the eleventh to thirteenth respondents falls
to be dismissed.
[41] I
do not agree with the respondents that the EMC should have been
joined in these proceedings. Applying the
same test as laid down by
the Supreme Court of Appeal in the
Absa
case
[5]
,
the EMC is a committee which performs the function of collating
reports regarding the environment and its duty is to report to
the
relevant authorities. It is not a legal entity capable of being sued
or sue on its own account. It does not have any substantial
and
direct interest in the matter. The EMC will suffer no prejudice in
the judgment in this matter since its mandate is to receive
and keep
record of reports and to report non-compliance to the relevant
departments. The irresistible conclusion is therefore that
it is not
necessary to join the EMC in these proceedings and the point in
limine in this regard therefore falls to be dismissed.
Factual
Background
[42]
The genesis of this case arose well before 2008 when the planning of
the Kusile Power Station
(“Kusile”)
started.
On 17 March 2008 Eskom was awarded the necessary environmental
authorisation issued under the Environment Conservation
Act, 73 of
1989
(“the ECA”)
which has to date not been
amended. The applicant only became aware of the Kusile project later
in 2008 when construction on the
site adjacent to it commenced.
Although the applicant is directly adjacent to the Kusile site, it
was never involved and was not
given notice nor was there any public
participation process before the construction of Kusile commenced.
[43]
The clauses of the authorisation stipulate specific conditions that
all polluted water must be recycled until
all pollutants are captured
as waste for disposal with the ash deposition. Further, that a
water use license had to be applied
for in order to adequately deal
with the storage of ash from the ash dump and the disposal of wet
waste from the Flue Gas Desulphurisation
Process. Eskom had to
establish the Environmental Monitoring Committee whose purpose is to
monitor and audit compliance with the
conditions of the environmental
authorisation, legislation and specific mitigation requirements as
stipulated in the environmental
impact report and the environmental
management plan.
[44] On
the 21
st
of February 2012 the applicant directed
correspondence to Eskom requesting a guarantee on potable water and
acceptable air quality
in view of the farming work valuable but
sensitive genetic material next to Kusile. No guarantees were
forthcoming from Eskom.
Concerned with the potential air and water
quality impacts on the environment and on its swine genetics
business, the applicant
appointed Dr James Andries Meyer as its
stakeholder representative on the EMC at Kusile. The EMC is
constituted by amongst others,
representatives of the DFFE, DWS and
the Environment Control Officer
(“the ECO”)
who is
the secretariat of the EMC responsible for receiving and keeping
record of monitoring data and reports and reporting any
non-compliance to the Minister of Environment
[45] It
is not in dispute that Eskom was required to prepare and provide
monitoring data and other reports on
regular basis to the EMC.
However, this was not done or was done late and the delivery thereof
to the EMC was delayed and the monitoring
data became dated or
submitted to the EMC with glaring deficiencies. When the issues of
non-compliance came to the fore in the
EMC, the plans proposed by
Eskom purporting to address the issues over the years were not
carried out as promised and the reasons
for that being either lack of
resources or procurement issues. Most of the undertakings given by
Eskom in response to these issues
were reneged upon and
investigations would be on going without any meaningful conclusion.
[46] In
2014 an Environmental Management Programme
(“the EMPr”)
was submitted to the Minister of the Environment on behalf of
Eskom. On 8 November 2021 the applicant obtained an electronic
version
of the EMPr from the ECO for Kusile with the title
‘
Environmental Management Programme for the Co-Disposal of
Ash and Gypsum at the Kusile Power Station’.
On 17 July
2015 and in terms of the
National Environmental Management: Waste Act
59 of 2008
, Eskom was issued with the Integrated Environmental
Authorisation for the construction of an ash disposal facility and
the disposal
of the dry ash generated by the conduction of coal in
the electricity generation process to the ash disposal facility.
[47]
The 2015 environmental authorisation, dealing with the locations and
monitoring of surface water, stipulated
that Eskom shall be
responsible for ensuring compliance with the conditions contained
therein and that the EMPr which was submitted
as part of the
application was approved and must be implemented and adhered to.
Further, Eskom was required to keep the EMC in
place and functioning
for the normal operative lifetime of the site operational process and
for a period of at least two years
after Eskom has ceased operations
at Kusile. It further provided for Eskom to obtain a water use
license from the DWS prior to
the commencement of the project should
it impact on any wetland or water resource.
[48]
Eskom was also required in terms of the 2015 authorisation to design
and manage storage areas so that there
is no escape of contaminants
into the environment; that all run-offs must be prevented from
entering local watercourses including
wetlands. Furthermore, Eskom
must not allow effluent or wastewater to be discharged into any
stormwater drain or furrow, whether
by commission or omission, and
must prevent the occurrence of nuisance conditions or health hazards.
Eskom must construct and maintain
works to divert and drain all
run-off water arising on land adjacent to the site to avoid flooding
and for the water to become
contaminated.
[49]
Section 1
of the EMPr states that its purpose is to describe the
manner in which activities associated with the construction and
operation
of the ash/gypsum co-disposal facility and associated dams
and the K-3 and spoil areas, which have the potential to cause
pollution
or degradation of the environment will be managed and
controlled in accordance with the relevant environmental legislation
and
standards and practices. Furthermore, the EMPr is for the
construction, operation and closure of the ash-gypsum co-disposal
facility
and associated dams and is applicable through-out its life.
[50] In
terms of the EMPr all potentially contaminated water on Kusile will
be managed in a closed system. No
potentially contaminated water at
all will be discharged, released or allowed to escape the Kusile
site. The EMPr provides further
that the Kusile site is zero-liquid
effluent discharge site, the wastewater from a flue gas
desulphurisation process will require
specialised treatment before it
is discharged to the environment. Uncontrolled releases of polluted
water from the ash dirty dam
into the water resources shall not be
permitted and water quality monitoring must be conducted at regular
monthly intervals.
[51]
Under the Water Use Licence […] issued to Eskom on 1 April
2011 in terms of the NWA, Eskom is required
to investigate all
uncontrolled leakages and must propose and implement mitigating
measures. Further, Eskom shall monitor surface
water resources at
upstream and downstream points within the drainage line to determine
the impact of the facility and other activities
on the water quality.
The results from the monitoring shall be compiled and submitted to
the department on monthly basis. With
regard to surface water, the
impact of the activities of Kusile shall not exceed the in-stream
water quality objectives.
[52]
The water use licence of April 2011 provides further that storm water
leaving Kusile shall in no way be contaminated
by any substance,
whether such substance is a solid, liquid, vapour or gas dumped or
spilled from the Kusile. The polluted storm
water captured in the
storm water control dams shall be pumped to the settling facilities
for recycling and reuse.
[53] On
20 June 2012 Eskom was issued with Water Use Licence […] in
terms of the NWA which deals with the
facility to manage dirty water
run-off from the ash dump to a lined storage dam. It requires that
the wastewater management facilities
be operated in such a manner
that it is at all times capable of handling the 1:5 years flood-event
on top of its mean operating
level to achieve the zero-effluent
discharge. It provides further for the quality of water containing
waste to be disposed of into
the storage dam and the monitoring of
surface water to determine the impact of the facility.
[54] On
12 November 2018 Eskom was issued with a Water Use Licence […]
in terms of the NWA which licence
was valid for a period of four
years. It provides that wastewater is to be used for dust suppression
on the haul roads at Kusile.
It further provides the maximum volume
of wastewater to be used as dust suppression of haul roads and
stipulates that the quality
of water containing waste which is
disposed of into the pollution control dam shall not exceed maximum
permissible limits.
[55] It
provides further that Eskom shall monitor surface water on a monthly
basis to determine the impact of
the dust suppression on the quality,
by taking samples at two specified monitoring points. Stormwater
leaving Kusile shall in no
way be contaminated by any substance,
whether such substance is a solid, liquid, vapour or gas or a
combination thereof which is
produced, used dumped or spilled on the
Kusile.
[56] On
12 November 2018 Eskom was issued with Water Use Licence […]
in terms of the NWA which was valid
for a period of four years and
contemplates the discharging of waste or water containing waste into
a water resource through a
pipe, canal, sewer, or other conduit
allowing Eskom to discharge wastewater into the water resource
downstream from Kusile.
It is a condition of this water
use licence that it is subject to all the applicable provisions of
the NWA and shall in no way
be construed as exempting Eskom from
compliance with the provisions of any other applicable legislation.
[57] It
further provides that Eskom shall mitigate against potential impacts
to surface water quality and shall
ensure that the holding recycle
dam water containing waste and the station dirty dam water containing
waste are not discharged
into the water resources. It shall monitor
water resources at the tributaries of the Wilge River to South and
West of Kusile and
which traverse the adjacent properties of the
applicant and other agricultural properties. It shall establish a
monitoring point
between the said wetland and the Wilge River to
determine the quality of the water from the wetland and assess the
impact thereof
on the Wilge River.
[58] On
23 September 2021, Eskom was issued with a Water Use Licence […]
in terms of the NWA defined as
the disposing of waste in a manner
which may detrimentally impact on a water resource. It cautions that
it shall not be construed
to be exempting Eskom from compliance with
the provisions of any other applicable legislation. Further, it
provides that Eskom
must ensure that the quality of water to
downstream users does not decrease because of Eskom’s power
generating activities.
It authorizes Eskom to dispose of certain
maximum quantities of wastewater per annum into the waste management
facilities and prescribe
the design and capacities of the waste
facilities.
[59] It
further provides that Eskom shall monitor on monthly basis the water
resources at surface water monitoring
points and groundwater
monitoring points and on a biannual basis conduct bio monitoring to
determine the impact of the facilities
and other activities on water
quality by taking samples at the monitoring points. Stormwater
leaving Kusile shall in no way be
contaminated by any substance
whether solid or liquid or a combination thereof which is produced or
used or dumped or spilled on
the premises. The polluted stormwater
captured in the storm water control dams shall be reused and
recycled.
[60] In
January 2018 the DWS developed and produced an Integrated Water
Quality Management Plan
(“IWQMP”)
for the Olifants
River System known as the Upper Olifants Sub-Catchment Plan. The
objective of the plan is to manage the water resources
and to take
cognisance of and align to a number of studies and initiatives that
have been completed at that time. Further, to develop
management
measures to maintain and improve the water quality in the Olifants
Water Management Area in holistic and sustainable
manner so as to
ensure sustainable provision of water to local and international
users.
[61]
The other objective is to clearly define the various impacts to the
water resources in the Upper Olifants
sub-catchment and propose
management options, including an implementation plan to allow the
water users, stake holders and regulators
to implement solutions in a
co-ordinated participative manner. This was due to the deteriorating
quality of the whole catchment
for which the limits imposed in the
water use licences were rather stricter.
[62] To
circumvent the stricter conditions and in an attempt to bring Eskom
within the prescribed limits in compliance
with the water use
licences, on 25 April 2022 Eskom was issued with an amended Water Use
Licence […] in terms of the NWA
which deals with the
monitoring data and other reports for the period of 2020 to date.
This was an amendment of the 20 June 2012
water use licence. The
amendment relaxed the maximum permissible limits of pollutants or
hazardous substances to be released into
the dirty dam at Kusile.
[63]
What galvanised the applicant to launch these proceedings is the
flagrant disregard of the conditions of
the water use licences issued
to Eskom in terms of
section 40
of the NWA. The applicant contends
that, as a result of its failure to comply with the conditions of the
water use licences, Eskom
has caused pollution of unprecedented
proportions in the downstream water resources. The other contributing
factor is the laxed
attitude of the DWS and DFFE to enforce
compliance with the conditions of the water use licences and this is
undisputed by both
the Eskom and the State respondents.
Parties’
submissions
[64]
The applicant contended that it is undisputed that the construction,
operation, and maintenance of Kusile
by Eskom with regard to the
quality of water and management is regulated by statute through
various legislative instruments. There
are two environmental
authorisations and eleven water use licences imposing conditions and
legal obligations upon Eskom. It is
further undisputed that Eskom has
caused the pollution of the downstream water resources as a result of
its failure to comply with
all the conditions of the water use
licences. Any exceedances of the impermissible levels for the water
or wastewater quality requirements
coming from Kusile unlawfully
release substances into a water resource and are of unacceptable
pollution of the water resource.
[65] In
terms of NEMA, so the argument went, there must be adequate provision
for management and monitoring of
the impacts of the activity on the
environment throughout the life cycle of the activity. However, there
was no monthly monitoring
conducted by Eskom for the period August
2021 to November 2021; January and February 2022. The magnitude of
exceedances when comparing
the average values of upstream for
manganese in 2022 is 0.131mg/l whilst the downstream value is 5.73
mg/l. It is alarmingly high
than the quality planning limit of 0.02
mg/l as set by the DWS in the 2018 Upper Olifants Sub-Catchment Plan.
[66]
The applicant contended further that the ‘Updated Kusile Power
Station Water Management Action Plan’
of 7 July 2023
(“the
updated action plan”)
is not a solution to bring Eskom
within the statutory compliance. The plan is clearly fundamentally
reactive in nature and does
not contain any proactive measures to
effectively address the serious water pollution problem. It does not
even provide for compliance
by Eskom with the legal requirements
stipulated in the various water use licences for the construction,
maintenance, and operational
practices to ensure effective,
consistent, and safe performance of the wastewater system and was
basically contrived in reaction
to the present application.
[67]
The updated action plan, so it was contended, does not even state
whether there are resources available for
implementing the plan for
all the plans that have been proposed at the EMC meetings have fallen
flat because there was no financial
backing. The plan does not even
provide for the substantive resolution of the present environmental
problem, the continuous failures
of Eskom to comply with the terms
and conditions or the legal requirements of the water use licences.
[68]
The State respondents, although represented at the EMC, have done
nothing to enforce compliance with the
water licences or to hold
Eskom accountable for the exceedances. Instead, so the argument went,
the State respondents are biased
and in favour of Eskom. In April
2022 an amendment was effected to a water use licence without
inviting public participation nor
participation of the people living
adjacent to Kusile. The amendment was to permit an increase in the
limits of the pollutants
which Eskom could release to the
environment.
[69]
The State respondents only sprang into action and came with action
plan together with Eskom after the launch
of these proceedings,
otherwise they were sitting on their hands and doing nothing all the
time. The EMC and the ECO, so it was
contended, have submitted
reports to the DWS as required by the water use licences which showed
the exceedances of pollutants discharged
by Kusile into the
environment and downstream water resources and have done nothing
about it. For them to now come with an updated
action plan is a smoke
screen as though they are doing something. The Masana report
submitted by Eskom should not be entertained
since it is not
supported by an affidavit from the author thereof.
[70] It
is contended further that the updated action plan submitted by Eskom
must be treated with caution since
it does not deal with compliance
but relates to pollution of the environment and downstream water
resources as a result of the
discharges from Kusile. There are gaps
in the monitoring of data with regard to the discharge of pollutants
into the downstream
water resources and the EMC is dysfunctional
since it cannot hold Eskom to account. Further, so it was argued, the
representatives
of the State respondents who sit on the EMC do not
always attend meetings and even when they are in attendance, they do
not insist
on compliance with the legal requirements as stipulated in
the various water use licences.
[71]
The applicant contended that this case can and should be decided on
the papers since there is no dispute
of fact as alleged by the
respondents. The respondents do not dispute that Eskom has failed to
comply with the water use licences
and that as a result it has caused
serious pollution to the downstream water resources. The respondents
do not dispute that the
State organs have failed to hold Eskom to
account for they failed to enforce compliance with the water use
licences. Therefore,
so it was argued, the Eskom or the State
respondents have not raised any bona fide dispute of fact in their
affidavits.
[72]
Eskom, like the organs of the State, has a positive responsibility to
respect, protect, promote, and fulfil
the Bill of Rights as provided
by the Constitution of the Republic. Although Eskom must ensure that
as much as possible electricity
is provided to the country, so it is
contended, it must strike a balance and ensure that its power
stations, Kusile in particular,
does not cause unacceptable levels of
pollution or environmental degradation. The structural interdict is
appropriate in the circumstances
to prevent the continuous
non-compliance by Eskom with the conditions of the water use licences
with the State respondents sitting
on their hands and doing nothing
to enforce compliance.
[73]
The Eskom respondents admit that its operations at Kusile have
impacted the downstream water resources, that
it has not fully
complied with all the conditions in the Kusile’s environmental
management programme, environmental authorisations,
and water use
licences at all times. However, Eskom denies that the applicant is
entitled to the relief that it seeks which is
inappropriate and
unnecessary. This is so, as the argument went, because Eskom has
developed an updated water management action
plan for Kusile which
will address not only the pollution but also constitute compliance or
at least substantial compliance.
[74]
Presently, says Eskom, it is engaging with the State respondents
regarding the challenges it has experienced
in complying with the
conditions of the environmental authorisations and water use licences
issued for Kusile. Both the DWS and
the DFFE have recently issued
notices of their intention to issue directives to Eskom regarding the
non-compliance with the conditions
of the water use licences.
However, since Eskom has provided a comprehensive response as set out
in the updated action plan, the
DFFE decided to withdraw the
directive and the DWS also elected not to issue a final directive.
[75]
Although Eskom has over the years experienced environmental
management challenges in the construction, operation
and maintenance
of Kusile which has caused it not to comply with all the conditions
of the authorisations and licences all the
time, it is not necessary
for the court to grant the relief as sought by applicant in the form
of a structural interdict in light
of the updated action plan and the
constructive engagement of Eskom with the DWS and the DFFE. Further,
so the argument went, this
would restrain the State respondents from
exercising their statutory powers and would infringe on the doctrine
of separation of
powers.
[76]
The challenges experienced by Eskom in ensuring compliance with the
conditions of its water use licences
is not as a result of its
deliberate disregard of the law or its lack of commitment to comply
or its indifferent approach to the
environmental protection. Eskom is
continuously striving to address its non-compliance with the
environmental authorisations to
improve the environmental impact on
the downstream water resources in Kusile – hence the updated
action plan which addresses
the ground and surface water monitoring
results and sets out the main sources of pollution at Kusile and the
remedial measures
prescribed to address these which it is
contemplated to be completed by 31 October 2025.
[77]
Furthermore, there is no need for the structural interdict as sought
by the applicant since a satisfactory
remedy is available to it in
terms of section 28 of the NEMA which empowers the Director-General
(“DG”)
of the DFFE to issue a directive to a
person or company who is responsible for pollution to undertake
remedial measures to address
such pollution. In the case where the DG
has not directed any person to undertake any anti-pollution remedial
measures, any private
party may, after giving the DG of the DFFE 30
days’ notice apply to court for an order directing or
compelling the DG of
DFFE to undertake such remedial measures.
[78]
The applicant should, so it was contended, have applied to the court
for an order directing the DG of the
DFFE to undertake the
anti-pollution remedial measures instead of the relief it seeks in
terms of the notice of motion. The applicant
sought the relief
against Eskom and the State respondents on the basis that they are
under a constitutional, statutory, and legal
duty to ensure that the
water resources downstream from Kusile are not polluted at all and
that no discharge of polluting substances
should occur. This is, as
contended by the respondents, incorrect since NEMA, the NWA and other
environmental management legislation,
by way of their licensing
regimes, effectively authorise an acceptable level of pollution.
[79] It
is submitted further by Eskom that there are general specified
constraints in the legislation and the
relevant water use licences
since Kusile is not a zero-liquid effluent discharge site –
thus it is allowed to maintain certain
levels of discharged
pollutants in the downstream water resources. It has proved to be
impossible for Kusile to be a zero liquid
effluence discharge site –
hence Eskom applied and was granted an amendment to one of its waters
use licences in 2018 to
deviate from a zero liquid effluent discharge
site. Further, there was no challenge mounted against the NEMA and
the NWA nor has
the amendment of the water use licence of 2018 been
reviewed.
[80]
The State respondents admit that there has been some laxed attitude
on their part in enforcing Eskom to comply
with the conditions of the
water use licences and the legal requirements as stipulated in both
the NEMA and the NWA. However, the
State respondents contend that
they have now, reactively so, done site inspections at Kusile and
have issued directives and notices
to Eskom to comply with the
conditions of the water use licences. They now seek, reactively to
enforce their environmental instruments
and empowering legislation.
[81]
The State respondents say that the relief sought and the manner in
which it was pleaded and formulated by
the applicant may lead to
judicial overreach if granted for it disregards the role and
functions of the State respondents as defined
in the empowering
legislation being the NEMA and the NWA. The relief sought by the
applicant is not competent and practically achievable.
It can only be
achieved, so it was contended, if a cease-and-desist notice or order
interdicting Kusile from operating is issued
and such an order would
result in disastrous consequences for the general public.
[82]
The applicant brought this application prematurely since, until Eskom
has finalised its plans for the redesign
of its power generating
plant and identified possible listed activities and water uses
requiring authorisations and licenses and
sort out its financial
situation, Kusile will continue to pollute the downstream water
resources and the degradation of the environment.
If Eskom
substantially changes the design of Kusile, the environmental
authorisations and water use licences already issued up
to this point
may be rendered academic and Eskom would be required to make
applications for the necessary environment authorisations
and
licences with the State respondents.
[83] It
is contended further that the State respondents have since issued a
notice of intention to issue a directive
to Eskom to comply with the
conditions of the water use licences in February 2023, and a site
inspection was conducted in November
2023 and a full inspection
report was prepared. Again, in December 2023 a directive was issued
against Eskom for failure to comply
with the conditions imposed in
the water use licenses and this caused Eskom to submit an action plan
to the DWS. The action plan
was considered by the DWS review
committee, and a further directive was issued warning that should
Eskom fail to comply or comply
inadequately with the directive, the
DWS may take measures it considers necessary to remedy the situation
including approaching
a competent court for appropriate relief.
[84]
Furthermore, so the argument went, Eskom submitted an action plan
report to DWS in January 2024 in terms
of which Eskom committed to
short term as well as long term goals to ensure compliance with the
water use licences as well as the
NWA. This action plan was
determined by the DWS review committee in March 2024 and was deemed
to be acceptable. The State respondents
have shown that they are not
derelict in their constitutional obligation and that the monitoring
of pollution at Kusile is continuous.
[85] It
was contended by the State respondents that the applicant has failed
to establish that there exist upon
the State respondents any duty,
whether constitutional, legal, or statutory to ensure that water
resources downstream from Kusile
are not polluted by the
construction, operations and maintenance of Kusile. Further, the
applicant has failed to establish the
breach of the fundamental
rights enshrined in the constitution such as equality, human dignity,
life and freedom of security, trade,
occupation and profession,
environment, and property.
[86] It
is further submitted by the State respondents that the principle of
subsidiarity is infringe by the applicant
in the manner in which it
seeks the relief in this case. There are reasonable legislative
measures provided for in the constitution
to give effect to the
constitutional imperative and are contained in the empowering
legislation of the NEMA and the NWA. The applicant
has failed to
challenge the constitutionality of the empowering legislation and
that is fatal to its case. It was unnecessary for
the applicant to
resort to the fundamental rights contained in the constitution for
this may lead to judicial overreach.
[87] As
indicated previously, the nineteenth respondent did not make any
submissions at the hearing of this matter
although counsel was
present in court. She only stated that the nineteenth respondent will
abide by the decision of the court.
Legal
Framework
[88] It
is apposite at this stage to restate the sections in the Constitution
and both the NWA and the NEMA which
are relevant for the discussion
that will follow. The Constitution of the Republic of South Africa,
108 of 1996
(“The Constitution”)
provides as
follows:
“
Environment
24.
everyone has the right –
(a)
to an environment that is not harmful to their health or well-
being;
and
(b)
to have the environment protected, for the benefit of present
and
future generations, through reasonable legislative and other measures
that –
(i)
prevent pollution and ecological degradation;
(ii)
promote conservation; and
(iii)
secure ecologically sustainable development and use of natural
resources while promoting justifiable economic
and social
development.
Enforcement of rights.
38.
Anyone listed in this section has the right to approach a competent
court, alleging
that a right in the Bill of Rights has been infringed
or threatened, and the court may grant appropriate relief, including
a declaration
of rights. The persons who may approach a court are-
(a)
anyone acting in their own interest;
(b)
anyone acting on behalf of another person who cannot act in their own
name;
(c) anyone acting
as a member of, or in the interest of, a group or class of persons;
(d)
anyone acting in the public interest; and
(e)
an association acting in the interest of its members”
[89]
The
National Water Act provides
the following:
“
Section 1
Definitions
‘
Pollution’
means the direct or indirect alteration of the physical, chemical or
biological properties of a water resource
so as to make it –
(a)
Less fit for any beneficial purpose for which it may reasonably be
expected to be
used; or
(b)
Harmful or potentially harmful –
(aa)
to the welfare, health or safety of human beings;
(bb)
to any aquatic or non-aquatic organisms;
(cc)
to the resource quality; or
(dd)
to property.
Giving effect to national
water resource strategy
Section 7
The Minister, the
Director - General, an organ of state and a water management
institution must give effect to the national water
resource strategy
when exercising any power or performing any duty in terms of this
Act.
Prevention and remedying
effects of pollution
Section 19
(1) An
owner of land, a person in control of land or a person who occupies
or uses the land
on which—
(a)
any activity or process is or was performed or undertaken; or
(b)
any other situation exists,
which causes, has
caused or is likely to cause pollution of a water resource, must take
all reasonable measures to prevent any such
pollution from occurring,
continuing or recurring.”
Rectification of
contraventions
Section 53
(1)
A responsible authority may, by notice in writing to a person who
contravenes—
(a)
any provision of this Chapter;
(b)
a requirement set or directive given by the responsible authority
under this
Chapter; or
(c)
a condition which applies to any authority to use water,
direct that person, or
the owner of the property in relation to which the contravention
occurs, to take any action specified in
the notice to rectify the
contravention, within the time (being not less than two working days)
specified in the notice or any
other longer time allowed by the
responsible authority.
(2)
If the action is not taken within the time specified in the notice,
or any longer
time allowed, the responsible authority may—
(a)
carry out any works and take any other action necessary to rectify
the contravention
and recover its reasonable costs from the person on
whom the notice was served; or
(b)
apply to a competent court for appropriate relief.”
[90]
The
National Environmental Management Act provides
the following:
“
1. Definitions
‘
Pollution’
means any change in the environment cause by –
(i)
substances.
(ii)
radio-active or other waves; or
(iii)
noise, odours, dust or heat;
emitted from any
activity, including the storage or treatment of waste or substances,
construction and the provision of services,
whether engaged in by any
person or an organ of state, where that change has an adverse effect
on human health or well-being or
on the composition, resilience and
productivity of natural or managed ecosystems, or on materials useful
to people, or will have
such an effect in the future;
28.
Duty of care and remediation of environmental damage
(1)
Every person who causes, has caused or may cause significant
pollution or degradation
of the environment must take reasonable
measures to prevent such pollution or degradation from occurring,
continuing or recurring,
or, in so far as such harm to the
environment is authorised by law or cannot reasonably be avoided or
stopped, to minimise and
rectify such pollution or degradation of the
environment.
(2)
…
(4)
The Director-General, the Director-General of the department
responsible for mineral resources,
a provincial head of department or
a municipal manager of a municipality may direct any person referred
to in subsection (2) to—
(a)
cease any activity, operation or undertaking;
(b) investigate,
evaluate and assess the impact of specific activities and
report thereon;
(c) commence taking
specific measures before a given date;
(d) diligently
continue with those measures; and
(e) complete those
measures before a specified reasonable date.
(4A) Before issuing a
directive contemplated in subsection (4), the Director-General, the
Director-General of the department responsible
for mineral resources,
or a provincial head of department or a municipal manager of a
municipality must give adequate notice in
writing to the person to
whom the directive is intended to be issued, of his or her intention
to issue the directive and provide
such person with a reasonable
opportunity to make representations in writing:
Provided that the
Director-General, the Director-General of the department responsible
for mineral resources, a provincial head
of department or a municipal
manager of a municipality may, if urgent action is necessary for the
protection of the environment,
issue the directive referred to in
subsection (4), and give the person on whom the directive was issued
an opportunity to make
representations as soon as is reasonable
thereafter.”
(12) Any person may,
after giving the Director-General, the Director-General of the
department responsible for mineral resources,
a provincial head of
department or a municipal manager of a municipality, 30 days’
notice, apply to a competent court for
an order directing the
Director-General, the Director-General of the department responsible
for mineral resources, any provincial
head of department or a
municipal manager of a municipality, to take any of the steps listed
in subsection (4) if the Director-General,
the Director-General of
the department responsible for mineral resources, provincial head of
department or a municipal manager
of a municipality, fails to inform
such person in writing that he or she has directed a person
contemplated in subsection (4) to
take one of those steps, and the
provisions of
section 32
(2) and (3) shall apply to such proceedings,
with the necessary changes.”
32. Legal
standing to enforce environmental laws.
(1)
Any person or group of persons may seek appropriate relief in respect
of any breach
or threatened breach of any provision of this Act,
including a principle contained in Chapter 1, or of any provision of
a specific
environmental management Act, or of any other statutory
provision concerned with the protection of the environment or the use
of
natural resources—
(a)
in that person’s or group of persons own interest;
(b)
in the interest of, or on behalf of, a person who is, for practical
reasons, unable
to institute such proceedings;
(c)
in the interest of or on behalf of a group or class of persons whose
interests are
affected;
(d)
in the public interest; and
(e) in the
interest of protecting the environment.”
(2) A
court may decide not to award costs against a person who, or group of
persons which, fails to secure the
relief sought in respect of
any breach or threatened breach of any provision of this Act,
including
a principle contained in Chapter 1, or of any provision of
a specific environmental management Act, or of any other statutory
provision
concerned with the protection of the environment or the use
of natural resources, if the court is of the opinion that the person
or group of persons acted reasonably out of a concern for the public
interest or in the interest of protecting the environment
and had
made due efforts to use other means reasonably available for
obtaining the relief sought.
(2)
Where a person or group of persons secures the relief sought in
respect of any breach
or threatened breach of any provision of this
Act, or of any provision of a specific environmental management Act,
or of any other
statutory provision concerned with the protection of
the environment, a court may on application –
(a)
award costs on an appropriate scale to any person or persons
entitled
to practice as advocate or attorney in the Republic who provided free
legal assistance or representation to such person
or group in the
preparation for or conduct of the proceedings; and
(b) order
that the party against whom the relief is granted pay to the person
or group concerned any reasonable costs
incurred by such person or
group in the investigation of the matter and its preparation for the
proceedings.”
Discussion
[91]
There are two issues central to this case. The first being
non-compliance by Eskom with the conditions of
the environmental
authorizations and water use licences issued to it in terms of
section 40 of NWA. The second issue is the failure
of the DWS and
DFFE to enforce compliance by Eskom with the conditions of the
environmental authorizations and water use licences
and all other
relevant legal requirements. I do not intend to repeat the conditions
of the environmental authorisations and water
use licences under this
heading as they were mentioned in the preceding paragraphs. However,
where it is necessary, I will summarise
their content and purpose.
[92] It
has long been established that motion proceedings are designed for
the resolution of legal issues based
on common cause facts. Put
differently, motion proceedings are to be decided on the papers and
only in case there is a factual
dispute between the parties which
could be foreseen, then it is appropriate that action proceeding
should be instituted unless
the factual dispute is not real or
genuine or bona fide.
[93]
The principle was laid down in
Plascon-Evans
Paints (TVL) v Van Riebeck Paints (Pty) Ltd
[6]
where the Court, quoting
from
Stellenbosch
Farmers Winery Ltd v Stellenvale Winery (Pty) Ltd 1957 (4) SA (C)
stated
the following:
“…
.where
there is a dispute as to the facts a final interdict should only be
“granted in notice of motion proceedings if the
facts as stated
by the respondents together with the admitted facts in the
applicant’s affidavits justify such an order …
where it
is clear that facts, though not formally admitted, cannot be denied,
they must be regarded as admitted.”
This rule has been
referred to several times by this court (see Burnkloof Caterers Ltd v
Horseshoe Caterers Ltd
1976 (2) SA 930
(A), at 938; Tamarillo (Pty)
Ltd v BN Aiteken (Pty) Ltd
1982 (1) SA 398
(A) at 430-1; Associate
South African Bakeries (Pty) Ltd v Oryx & Vereinigte Backereien
(Pty) Ltd en Andere
1982 (3) SA 893
(A) at 923. It seems to me,
however, that this formulation of the general rule, and particularly
the second sentence thereof, requires
some clarification and,
perhaps, qualification. It is correct that, where in proceedings on
notice of motion disputes of fact have
arisen on affidavit, a final
order, whether it be an interdict or some other form of relief, may
be granted if those facts averred
in the applicant’s affidavits
which have been admitted by the respondent, together with the facts
alleged by the respondent,
justify such an order. The power of the
court to give such final relief on the papers before it is, however,
not confined to such
a situation. In certain instances, the denial by
the respondent of a fact alleged by the applicant may not be such as
to raise
a real, genuine or bona fide dispute of fact (see in this
regard- Room Hire Co.
(Pty) Ltd v Jeppe Street
Mansions (Pty) Ltd 1949 (3) SA at 1163 (T); Da Mata v Otto NO
1972
(3) SA 585
(A) at 882).
If in such a case the
respondent has not availed himself of his right to apply for the
deponents concerned to be called for cross-examination
under Rule
6()(g) of the Uniform Rules of Court (cf Petersen v Cuthbert & Co
Ltd
1945 AD 420
at 428; Room Hire case supra at 1164) and the court
is satisfied as to the inherent credibility of the applicant’s
factual
averment, it may proceed on the basis of the correctness
thereof and include this fact among those upon which it determines
whether
the applicant is entitled to the final relief which he seeks
(see Rikhoto v East Rand Administration Board
1983 (4) SA 278
(W) at
283. Moreover, there may be exceptions to this general rule, B as,
for example, where the allegations or denial of the respondent
are so
far-fetched or clearly untenable that the court is justified in
rejecting them merely on the papers (see the remarks of
Botha AJA in
the Associated South African Bakeries case, supra at 949.”
[94]
The principle was expanded upon in
Wightman
t/a JW Construction v Headfour (Pty) Ltd and Another
[7]
where the court stated
the following:
“
[13] Areal,
genuine and bona fide dispute of fact can exist only where the court
is satisfied that the party who purports to raise
the dispute has in
his affidavit seriously and unambiguously addressed the fact said to
be disputed. There will of course be instances
where a bare denial
meets the requirement because there is no other way open to the
disputing party and nothing more can therefore
be expected of him.
But even that may not be sufficient if the fact averred lies purely
within the knowledge of the averring party
and no basis is laid for
disputing the veracity or accuracy of the averment. When the facts
averred are such that the disputing
party must necessarily possess
knowledge of them and be able to provide an answer (or countervailing
evidence) if they be not true
or accurate but, instead of doing so,
rests his case on a bare or ambiguous denial the court will generally
have difficulty in
finding that the test is satisfied. I say
‘generally’ because factual averments seldom stand apart
from a broader matrix
of circumstances all of which needs to be borne
in mind when arriving at a decision. A litigant may not necessarily
recognise or
understand the nuances of a bare or general denial as
against a real attempt to grapple with all relevant factual
allegations made
by the other party. But when he signs the answering
affidavit, he commits himself to its contents, inadequate as they may
be, and
will only in exceptional circumstances be permitted to
disavow them. There is thus a serious duty imposed upon a legal
adviser
who settled an answering affidavit to ascertain and engage
with facts which his client disputes and to reflect such disputes
fully
and accurately in the answering affidavit. If that does not
happen it should come as no surprise that the court takes a robust
view of the matter.”
[95] I
agree with the applicant that there is nothing in the respondents
answering affidavits which raises a real,
genuine and bona fide
dispute of fact. The dispute raised is not material to the
determination of the issues in this case, but
it is on peripheral
matters as to what causes the pollution and degradation of the
downstream water resources. The discomfort of
the applicant is that
the construction, operation and maintenance of the Kusile by Eskom
causes pollution and degradation of the
environment and that the
State respondents are doing nothing about it. It is my respectful
view therefore that the dispute of fact
that exists in this case is
so immaterial that it is no bar for the Court in determining the
matter on paper.
[96]
There is no merit in the contention that the applicant brought these
proceedings prematurely against the
respondents since Eskom has
formulated and published an updated action plan to address the
concerns and discomfort of the applicant
and in particular the
pollution and degradation of downstream water resources. It is
further not an excuse that, if the design
of Kusile were to be
changed to enable it to comply, new water use licenses will have to
be applied for. It is clear from the monitoring
data that the
exceedances continue to rise, and the action plan has not been
effective. It is only after this application was launched
that the
State respondents were galvanised into action. However, Eskom invited
the applicant to engage with it with regard to the
updated action
plan, but the applicant did not engage with Eskom instead chose to
only criticise the plan for several inadequacies.
[97]
The applicant seeks a structural interdict against the respondents.
The requirements for an interdict have
long been established in
several decisions in that, the applicant should prove that; (a) it
has a clear right; (b) injury actually
committed or reasonable
apprehension of harm; and (c) the absence of similar protection or
remedy in due course. These requirements
were laid down more a
century ago in
Setlogelo
v Setlogelo
[8]
.
[98]
Undoubtedly, the applicant has met the first two requirements for an
interdict in that the applicant has
a clear right to an environment
that is not polluted and harmful to its wellbeing. Presently, the
environment downstream at Kusile
has been and continues to be
polluted, harmed and degraded by Eskom with the state respondents
sitting on their hands and failing
to enforce compliance with the
conditions of licenses and legislation. However, the applicant falls
short on the third requirement
where it is required to prove that it
does not have an alternative remedy or would not receive sufficient
redress in due course.
[99] I
say so because section 28(12) of NEMA provides that any person may,
after giving the DG of the department
responsible for mineral
resources 30 days’ notice, apply to a competent court for an
order directing the DG of the department
responsible for mineral
resources to take any steps to direct the person who is causing
pollution or degradation of the environment
to cease such activity or
operation or undertaking or commence specific measures to remedy the
situation. The applicant has not
avail itself of the remedies
provided for in section 28(12) of NEMA. The inescapable conclusion is
therefore that the application
falls to be dismissed on this basis
alone.
[100] I am mindful
that section 28(12) has been amended which amendment took effect on
the 30
June 2023, some ten months after the launch of
these proceedings. Ordinarily, when the legislation is promulgated,
it does not have
a retrospective effect unless it is expressly stated
therein that it will be retrospective. However, the only disjuncture
between
the old section 28(12) and the present amendment relates to
an elaborate procedure to be followed by any person who is aggrieved
by the failure of the DG or DG of the department responsible for
mineral resources to inform him or her in writing of the steps
he has
taken against someone who pollute or harm or degrade the environment
that he may apply to a competent court for an order
directing the DG
or DG of the relevant department to issue directives to such person.
[101] In
S
v Mhlungu and Others
[9]
which was quoted with
approval in
Kaknis
v Absa Bank Limited; Kaknis v Man Financial Services SA (Pty) Ltd
[10]
the Constitutional Court
stated the following:
“
[65] First, there
is a strong presumption that new legislation is not intended to be
retroactive. By retroactive legislation is
meant legislation which
invalidates what was previously valid, or vice versa, i.e. which
affects transactions completed before
the new statute came into
operation. See Van Lear v Van Lear
1979 (3) SA 1162
(W). It is
legislation which enacts that ‘as at a past date the law shall
be taken to have been that which it was not’.
See Shewan Tomes
7 Co. Ltd v Commissioner of Customs and Excise
1955 (4) SA 305
(A),
311 H per Schreiner ACJ. There is also a presumption against reading
legislation as being retrospective in the sense that,
while it takes
effect only from its date of commencement, it impairs existing rights
and obligations, e.g. by invalidating current
contracts or impairing
existing property rights. See Cape Town Municipality v F. Robb &
Co. Ltd.
1966 (4) SA 345
(C), per Corbett J. The general rule
therefore is that a statute is as far as possible to be construed as
operating only on facts
which come into existence after its passing.”
[102] The court
continued in paragraph 66 and stated the following:
“
[66] There is a
different presumption where a new law effects changes in procedure.
It is presumed that such a law will apply to
every case subsequently
tried ‘no matter when such case began or when the cause of
action arose’ – Curtis v Johannesburg
Municipality
1906
TS 308
, 312. It is, however, not always easy to decide whether a new
statutory provision is purely procedural or whether it also affects
substantive rights. Rather than categorising new provisions in this
way, it has been suggested, one should simply ask whether or
not they
would affect vested rights if applied retrospectively.”
[103] Although
section 28(12) has been amended, the amendment did not in my view
affect the rights of any person in enforcing
his rights in terms of
the NEMA. The amendment relates only to the procedural aspect that is
to be followed in certain instances.
It is my respectful view
therefore that, although legislation does not, as a matter of course,
have retrospective effect when promulgated,
in this instance, it is
applicable even though this action was instituted before the
amendment took effect.
[104] Even if I
were to be wrong in saying the applicant has not met all the
requirements of an interdict, I am still of the
view that the failure
of the applicant to invoke the provision of the NEMA and the NWA
infringes on the principle of subsidiarity
in our law. The preamble
to the NEMA is that the law should establish principles guiding the
exercise of functions affecting the
environment, ensure that state
organs maintain the principles guiding the exercise of functions
affecting the environment and the
procedures and institutions to
facilitate and promote co-operative government and intergovernmental
relations; and should be enforced
by the State and the law should
facilitate the enforcement of environmental laws by civil society.
[105] In
My
Vote Count v My Vote Counts NPC v Speaker of the National Assembly
and Others
[11]
the Constitutional Court
stated the following:
“
[50] But the most
frequent invocation of subsidiarity has been to describe the
principle that limits the way in which litigants
may invoke the
Constitution to secure enforcement of a right. Under the interim
Constitution, where the Appellate Division had
no constitutional
jurisdiction, and this Court had constitutional jurisdiction, this
Court laid down as a general principle that,
where it was possible to
decide a case, civil or criminal, without reaching a constitutional
issue that should be done. This entailed
the subsidiarity of the
interim constitution to the other judicial approaches to rights
enforcement.
[52] But it does not
follow that resort to constitutional rights and values may be
freewheeling or haphazard. The Constitution is
primary, but its
influence is mostly indirect. It is perceived through its effects on
the legislation and the common law - to which
one must look first.
[53] These
considerations yield the norm that a litigant cannot directly invoke
the Constitution to extract a right he or she seeks
to enforce
without first relying on, or attacking the constitutionality of,
legislation enacted to give effect to that right. This
is the form of
constitutional subsidiarity Parliament invokes here. Once legislation
to fulfil a constitutional right exists, the
Constitution's
embodiment of that right is no longer the prime mechanism for its
enforcement. The legislation is primary. The right
in the
Constitution plays only a subsidiary or supporting role.
[54] Over the past 10
years, this Court has often affirmed this. It has done so in a range
of cases. First, in cases involving social
and economic rights, which
the Bill of Rights obliges the state to take reasonable legislative
and other measures, within its available
resources, to progressively
realise, the Court has emphasised the need for litigants to premise
their claims on, or challenge,
legislation Parliament has enacted. In
Mazibuko, the right to have access to sufficient water guaranteed by
section 27(1)(b) was
in issue. The applicant sought a declaration
that a local authority's water policy was unreasonable. But it did so
without challenging
a regulation, issued in terms of the Water
Services Act, that specified a minimum standard for basic water
supply services. This,
the Court said, raised ‘the difficult
question of the principle of constitutional subsidiarity’.
O'Regan J, on behalf
of the Court, pointed out that the Court had
repeatedly held ‘that where legislation has been enacted to
give effect to a
right, a litigant should rely on that legislation in
order to give effect to the right or alternatively challenge the
legislation
as being inconsistent with the Constitution’. The
litigant could not invoke the constitutional entitlement to access to
water
without attacking the regulation and, if necessary, the
statute.”
[106] Quoting from
the minority judgment continued and stated the following:
“
[160] …The
minority judgment correctly identifies the ‘inter-related
reasons from which the notion of subsidiarity
springs.’ First,
allowing a litigant to rely directly on a fundamental right contained
in the Constitution, rather than on
legislation enacted in terms of
the Constitution to give effect to that right, ‘would defeat
the purpose of the Constitution
in requiring the right to be given
effect by means of national legislation’. Second, comity
between the arms of government
enjoins courts to respect the efforts
of other arms of government in fulfilling constitutional 24 rights.
Third, ‘allowing
reliance directly on constitutional rights, in
defiance of their statutory embodiment, would encourage the
development of 'two
parallel systems of law.”
[107] Recently, in
Minister
for Transport and Public Works: Western Cape & others v Adonisi
and Others
[12]
,
affirming the principle of subsidiarity in our law, the Supreme Court
of Appeal stated the following:
“
[32] It is
necessary, first, to highlight that the principle of constitutional
subsidiarity is part of our Constitutional framework.
The
foundational norms of the Constitution are expressed in general
terms. Where legislative and other measures have been enacted
to
realise the rights and obligations in the Constitution, the
foundational norms espoused in the Constitution should find
expression
in such legislative measures. By way of example, the
preamble to SPLUMA recognises that many people in South Africa
continue to
live and work in places defined and influenced by past
spatial planning, land use laws, and practices, which were based on
racial
inequality, segregation, and unsustainable settlement
patterns. It provides that it is the obligation of the State to
realise the
constitutional imperatives in ss 24, 25, 26, and 27(1) of
the Constitution. Section 12(1) of SPLUMA imposes an obligation on
the
national, provincial, and local governments to prepare spatial
development frameworks. The statute, rather than the Constitution,
is
therefore the direct source of the rights and obligations relating to
preparation of spatial development frameworks. It is to
its statutory
provisions that litigants must look in asserting their rights and the
obligations owed to them.”
[108] The principle
of subsidiarity was again emphasized by the Supreme Court of Appeal
in
City
of Cape Town v Commando and Others
[13]
when the Court
stated as follows:
“
[56] Having failed
to identify the source of the constitutional duty in the Constitution
or the Housing Act, the occupiers resorted
to relying on s 26 of the
Constitution in general terms. However, the principle of subsidiarity
prohibits direct reliance on the
Constitution where specific and
detailed legislation giving effect to a right sought to be enforced
has been passed. In any event,
as I have demonstrated, none of the
legal framework programmes guarantees such a right or imposes the
suggested duty on the State.”
[109] Counsel for
the applicant referred the court to the case of
Komatipoort
Despondent Residents Association v Nkomazi Local Municipality
[14]
where the Court granted a
structural interdict against the State respondents. However, the
issues in this case are distinguishable
from the present case. The
bone of contention between the parties was shortage of supply of
potable water which led to the appalling
sewage conditions and sewage
spillages with some hazardous consequences to the citizens of
Komatipoort and surrounding arears.
This affected the
Komatipoort Town and the Crocodile River which was aimed to supply
drinking water to the community but instead
sewage was dumped into
the river.
[110] Although the
issues are almost similar in that the spillage of sewage lands itself
in polluting and degrading the environment
and endangers the
well-being of the community that is using the polluted water, I do
not agree with this decision because it did
not consider the
provisions of section 28(12) and thus infringed on the principle of
subsidiarity. Secondly, the decision did not
consider that there is
an alternative remedy in due course available to the applicants other
than to interdict the State respondents.
[111] To realise
the objectives of section 24 of the Constitution, the legislature
promulgated the NEMA and the NWA which
empowers the State organs and
in particular, the State respondents to provide for co-operative,
environmental governance by establishing
principles for
decision-making on matters affecting the environment, institutions
that will promote cooperative governance and
procedures for
co-ordinating environmental functions exercised by organs of State;
to provide for certain aspects of the administration
and enforcement
of other environmental management laws and to provide for matters
connected therewith.
[112] I am
fortified by the decisions referred to above that the principle of
subsidiarity in our law would be infringed if
the applicant were to
succeed in this case. The applicant should have based its remedy on
the provisions of section 28(12) of NEMA,
which the legislature has
promulgated to enforce the rights arising out of the provisions of
section 24 of the Constitution. It
is to this statutory provision
that the applicant should look in asserting its rights and the
obligations owed to it. It is my
respectful view therefore, that the
application falls to be dismissed on this ground.
[113] In
Affordable
Medicine Trust and Another v Minister of Health and Another
[15]
the Constitutional Court
stated the following regarding the power of functionaries:
“
[49] The exercise
of public power must therefore comply with the Constitution, which is
the supreme law, and the doctrine of legality,
which is part of that
law. The doctrine of legality, which is an incident of the rule of
law, is one of the constitutional controls
through which the exercise
of public power is regulated by the Constitution. It entails that
both the legislature and the executive
‘are constrained by the
principle that they may exercise no power and perform no function
beyond that conferred upon them
by law.’ In this sense the
Constitution entrenches the principle of legality and provides the
foundation for the control
of public power,”
[114] I am unable
to disagree with the State respondents that they only derive their
powers from NEMA and NWA and that granting
the order as prayed for by
the applicant will infringe the principle of separation of powers.
Moreover, the applicant has not challenged
the constitutionality of
the legislation promulgated to enforce the environmental rights in
terms of section 24 of the Constitution.
If the applicant found the
provisions of the NEMA and NWA to be inadequate to enforce the rights
enshrined in section 24 of the
Constitution, then it should have
attacked the constitutionality of the provisions of NEMA and NWA
before it attempted to invoke
the provisions of the Constitution.
[115] Granting the
orders as prayed for by the applicant would be granting powers to the
State respondents which they do not
have and has not been given to
them by the empowering legislation – hence the court would be
offending the principle of separation
of powers. The State
respondents receive their power to govern matters regarding the
environment from the NEMA and NWA and it is
not competent for the
court to prescribe to the State respondents.
[116] Although
section 28(12) speaks directly to the eighteenth respondent and the
DG of his department, the eighteenth respondent
is not participating
in these proceedings. It is however, trite that for a litigant to
succeed and obtain judgment in its favour,
it must demonstrate to the
Court that its case must be believed instead of that of the defendant
or respondent. In other words,
the onus is on the applicant to prove
that the eighteenth respondent had a duty to protect the pollution
and degradation of the
environment at Kusile downstream resource and
has failed to do so.
[117] In
GC
v JC and Others
[16]
the Supreme Court of
Appeal stated the following:
“
[40] The onus to
prove these requirements rests on the plaintiff. Where a defendant is
proved to have initiated a prosecution without
reasonable grounds, it
does not follow that he acted dishonestly, nor does it necessarily
imply that she did so animo iniuriandi.
However, in the absence of
any other evidence the natural inference is that the plaintiff has
established both. The defendant thus
bears an evidential burden to
rebut this inference regarding her state of mind, including any
mistake that would exclude her liability.”
[118] For the
reasons stated in the preceding paragraphs, the applicant has failed
to convince the court that it has a case
against the eighteenth
respondent. The unavoidable conclusion is therefore that the
application against the eighteenth respondent
falls to be dismissed.
Costs
[119] Eskom has
indicated during the hearing of this case that it is of the view
that, if the Court finds in its favour, that
it would not persists
with an order for costs against the applicant. However, the State
respondents seek a costs order in terms
of the new scale C due to the
complexity of the matter including costs of two counsel. The
applicant contended for costs on the
same scale C and the costs of
two counsel and that of Dr Meyer as an expert in this case. Should
the Court find against it, the
applicant sought the protection of
section 32 of NEMA in that it acted reasonably out of concern in the
interest of protecting
the environment and have made efforts to use
other means available for obtaining the relief it sought.
[120] I am unable
to disagree with the applicant and Eskom that an appropriate order
for costs in this case would be that
each party pays its own costs.
Section 32 was promulgated to protect and encourage individuals and
litigants in general to litigate
against the State where their
fundamental rights are being breached. The applicant in the
present case has taken all reasonable
steps to bring it to the
attention of the State organs that the environment at Kusile
downstream resources is being polluted and
degraded by exceedances
flowing from Kusile due to its failure to comply with the conditions
of its authorisations and water use
licences.
[121] The applicant
has not sat on its hands when it became aware of the Kusile project
in 2008 as it immediately appointed
Dr Meyer to represent it on the
EMC of Kusile. It is on record that Dr Meyer has been a thorn in the
flesh on the EMC about Eskom’s
monitoring processes and
non-compliance with the authorisations and water use licences and the
lax attitude of the State respondents
in holding Eskom accountable
and enforcing compliance with the conditions of its authorisations
and water use licences.
[122] I am of the
considered view therefore that the applicant does not deserve to be
mulcted with a costs order for its failure
to meet all the
requirements of the structural interdict, failure to invoke the
provisions of the legislation which has been promulgated
to enable
parties to enforce their rights in relation to breaches thereof with
regard to the environment and offending the principle
of subsidiarity
when it launched these proceedings against the respondents. I am
therefore unable to disagree with Eskom and the
applicant in that
each party should pay its own costs in this case.
[123] In the
circumstances, I make the following order:
1. The application is
dismissed with no order as to costs.
TWALA
M L
JUDGE
OF THE HIGH COURT OF SOUTH AFRICA
GAUTENG
LOCAL DIVISION
For
the Applicant:
Advocate
MM Oosthuizen SC
Advocate
N Fourie
Instructed
by:
Bishop
Fraser Attorney
Tel:
010 035 4944
davide@bishopfraser.co.za
For
the Eskom Respondents:
Advocate
P Lazarus SC
(First
to Tenth,
Advocate
B Dhladhla
Eleventh
to Thirteenth and
Twentieth
to Thirty-First respondents)
Instructed
by:
Edward
Nathan Sonnenbergs Inc
Tel:
011 269 7600
hhugo@ensafrica.com
For
the State Respondents:
Advocate
A Liversage SC
(Fourteenth
to Seventeenth
Advocate
L Maite
Respondents)
Instructed
by:
Office
of the State Attorney, Pretoria
Tel:
012 309 1500
sakhosa@justice.gov.za
For
the Nineteenth
Respondent:
Advocate
Mahlangu
Instructed
by:
Mchunu
Attorneys
Tel:
011 778 4060
titus@mchunu.co.za
Date
of Hearing:
23
- 25 April 2024
Date
of Judgment:
19
June 2024
Delivered:
This judgment and order was prepared and authored by the Judge
whose name is reflected and is handed down electronically by
circulation
to Parties / their legal representatives by email and by
uploading it to the electronic file of this matter on Case Lines. The
date of the order is deemed to be the 19 June 2024.
[1]
2008
(2) SA 472 (CC).
[2]
1996
(1) SA 984 (CC).
[3]
(20264/2014)
[2015] ZSCA 97 (1 June 2015).
[4]
[2019]
ZACC 47.
[5]
Ibid
footnote 3.
[6]
(53/8;
1984 (3) SA 620
(21 May 1984)4)
[1984] ZASCA 51
;
[1984] 2 All SA 366
(a); 1984 (3) SA 623.
[7]
(66/2007)
[2008] ZASCA 6
;
[2008] 2 All SA 512
(SCA);
2008 (3) SA 371
(SCA) (10
March 2008).
[8]
1914
AD 22.
[9]
(CCT25/94)
[1995] ZACC 4
;
1995 (3) SA 867
;
1995 (7) BCLR 793
(CC) (8 June
1995).
[10]
(08/16)
[2016] ZASCA 206
;
[2017] 2 All SA 1
(SCA);
2017 (4) SA 17
(SCA) (15
December 2016).
[11]
2015
(12) BCLR 1407 (CC).
[12]
(522/2021
& 523/2021)
[2024] ZASCA 47
(12 April 2024).
[13]
(1303/2021)
[2023] ZASCA 7 (6 February2023).
[14]
(2832/2023)
[2024] ZAMPMBHC 28 (19 April 2024).
[15]
(CCT
27/04) [2005] ZACC 3; 2006 (3) SA 247 (CC).
[16]
(Case No 205/2019) [2021] ZSCA 012 (3 February 2021).
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