Case Law[2023] ZAGPPHC 6South Africa
South African Youth Movement v Minister of Forestry (2022/060450) [2023] ZAGPPHC 6 (6 January 2023)
High Court of South Africa (Gauteng Division, Pretoria)
6 January 2023
Judgment
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# South Africa: North Gauteng High Court, Pretoria
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## South African Youth Movement v Minister of Forestry (2022/060450) [2023] ZAGPPHC 6 (6 January 2023)
South African Youth Movement v Minister of Forestry (2022/060450) [2023] ZAGPPHC 6 (6 January 2023)
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sino date 6 January 2023
FLYNOTES:
PAJA AND PRE-AWARD LETTER
Administrative
– Tender – Pre-award letter to winning bidder –
Constituting administrative action –
Department ordered to
provide reasons for decision on pre-award and for disqualifying
losing bidder – Losing bidder
entitled to information so
that they can consider their position –
Promotion of
Administrative Justice Act 3 of 2000
.
I
N
THE HIGH COURT OF SOUTH AFRICA
GAUTENG
DIVISION, PRETORIA
CASE
NO: 2022/060450
DATE:
06 JANUARY 2023
In
the matter between:
SOUTH
AFRICAN YOUTH MOVEMENT
(in
a joint venture with the second applicant)
First
Applicant
COMMUNITY
ENTERPRISE FUND
(in
a joint venture with the first respondent)
Second
Applicant
THE
SAYM-CHEF JOINT VENTURE
(the
JV between the first and second applicant)
Third
Applicant
and
THE
MINISTER OF FORESTRY, FISHERIES AND THE ENVIRONMENT
First
Respondent
THE
DIRECTOR-GENERAL OF FORESTRY, FISHERIES AND THE ENVIRONMENT
Second
Respondent
KISHUNGU
HOLDINGS (PTY) LTD
Third
Respondent
WORKING
ON FIRE (PTY) LTD
Fourth
Respondent
KISHUGU
FLEET SOLUTIONS (PTY) LTD
(to
be joined)
Fifth
Respondent
KISHUGU
AVIATION (PTY) LTD
(to
be joined)
Sixth
Respondent
KISHUGU
TRAINING ACADEMY (PTY) LTD
(to
be joined)
Seventh
Respondent
JUDGMENT
KOOVERJIE,
J:
I
Urgent application
[1]
In this urgent application, the applicants effectively seek reasons
for
the rejection of their tender bid and further that the
implementation of the R4.2 billion tender contract with Kishugu
(“
the third to seventh respondents
”) be stayed
pending the production of the said reasons which would enable the
applicants to consider their position. This
entails that the contract
with Kishugu be extended.
[2]
For the purpose of this judgment the first and second respondents
will
be referred to as the Department. The third to seventh
respondents will be referred to as Kishugu.
II
Background
[3]
It is not in dispute that a R4.2 billion tender bid with Kishugu had
been
approved. The applicants have highlighted that the bid approval
has been shrouded in secrecy.
[4]
The applicants received information from an anonymous whistle-blower
who
alleged
inter alia
that there were irregularities in the
tender process and that Kishugu’s bid approval was cast in
stone. The Department
had, as far back as 18 November 2022,
issued a pre-award letter to Kishugu. Consequently all the
competitors, including
the applicants, were disqualified from bid
process.
[5]
A WhatsApp message was circulated by Kishugu confirming that they
were
successful in their bid.
“
Good
day Everyone
Herewith
official communication regarding the 5 year tender.
Thank
you for your ongoing support continues hard work and effort during
very difficult times. Please ensure that the video is communicated
to
all staff
”.
[6]
In essence the applicants are challenging the new tender award in
favour
of Kishugu, primarily on the evaluation process and the
whistle-blower’s information.
[7]
For the new contract to come into effect by 6 January 2023, there
could
be no doubt that a service level agreement with Kishugu had to
be in place by 6 January 2023. It was alleged that since the
approval, the negotiations between the Department and Kishugu have
been ongoing.
III
Urgency
[8]
Before traversing into the merits and addressing the various
interlocutory
applications instituted by all three parties, I will
deal with the urgency issue.
[9]
The respondents’ contentions on urgency are
inter alia
the following:
(i)
the application is premature as a final decision
on the tender has
not been made;
(ii)
the applicants would only be entitled to reasons once
the final
decision of the Department is communicated;
(iii)
the Department in any event tendered to give reasons at the
appropriate time (annexure “FA2”);
(iv)
the urgency was self-created;
[10]
It cannot be disputed that it was upon receipt of the answering
affidavit that the
applicants became privy to the pre-award letter
and were advised that they were not successful.
[11]
I am of the view that the matter deserves urgent attention
particularly in light
of the fact that the conclusion of the new
tender contract is imminent. It has been alleged that the new
contract comes into effect
from 6 January 2023 with the successful
bidder.
[12]
The applicants cannot be faulted for the institution of this
application. In fact
the applicants have been in constant
consultation with the respondents since November 2022 pertaining to
the outcome of the bid.
[13]
Despite the Department awarding the tender around November 2022, it
failed to communicate
this fact to the applicants. The applicants
only learnt of the pre-award after filing this application. The
pre-award letter was
only disclosed in the answering papers around 23
December 2022.
[14]
The urgency could not have been self-created. If one has regard to
the correspondence
between November and December 2022:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
14.1.
On 11 November 2022, the applicants requested the Department for
information regarding
the status of the tender after receiving
information from a whistle-blower that the tender process was
irregular.
14.2.
On 16
November 2022, the Department advised the applicants that it was
inappropriate to respond as the procurement process has as
yet not
been finalised and an award has not as yet been made in respect of
the tender.
[1]
The pre-award
letter was issued on 18 November 2022.
[2]
14.3.
On 22, 23
and 24 November 2022, the applicants informed the Department that
they had become aware that in fact a decision regarding
the bid was
made. The Department has once again given a fair opportunity to
respond.
[3]
14.4.
On 9 December 2022, after receiving no response, they placed the
Department on terms.
A reply was requested by no later than
13 December 2022.
14.5.
Eventually the applicants commenced with their urgent papers and
filed same around 15
December 2022.
14.6.
It was also on 15 December 2022 that the Department advised the
applicants that a pre-award
letter was issued to Kishugu.
[15]
The court in
East
Rock Trading 7 (Pty) Ltd and Another v Eagle Valley Granite (Pty) Ltd
and Others
[4]
,
the court stated:
“
The
question of whether a matter is sufficiently urgent to be enrolled
and heard as an urgent application is underpinned by the
issue of
absence of substantial redress in an application in due course. The
rules allow the court to come to the assistance of
a litigant because
if the latter were to wait for the normal course laid down by the
rules it will not obtain substantial redress.”
[16]
This is clearly an instance where the applicants would not have
obtained substantial
redress in the normal course of proceedings.
The Department made the disclosure of the pre-award at the last hour.
The applicants
were justified in instituting this application.
IV
Administrative Action
[17]
Section 1 of the Promotion of Administration of Justice Act (“
PAJA
”)
defines administrative action to be (a) a decision of an
administrative nature; (b) by an organ of state or a natural or
juristic person; (c) exercising of public powers of performing a
public function; (d) in terms of any legislative empowering
provision;
(e) that decision adversely affects the right of any
person; or (f) has a direct external legal effect; and (g) does not
fall under
any of the exclusions listed in that section.
[18]
The respondents contended that the pre-award decision does not
constitute an administrative
action as it does not amount to a final
decision in terms of the bidding process. A final decision is only
made once the negotiations
and a service level agreement are signed
and the conditions are set out. The Department advised that the
award only becomes
final upon successful negotiations and signing of
a contract with the successful bidder.
[5]
[19]
In my view their argument is misplaced. The decision to award
the tender to
Kishugu and rejecting the applicants’ bid
adversely affected their rights.
[20]
The court in
Grey’s
Marine Hout Bay (Pty) Ltd and Others v Minister of Public Works and
Others
[6]
qualified the said term. It expressed:
“
adversely
affect the rights of any person” means in section 1 of PAJA,
when seen in conjunction with the requirement that
it was probably
intended to convey that administrative action is action that has a
direct and external effect.
”
[21]
In
Chairman
of the State Tender Board v Digital Voice Processing (Pty) Ltd;
Chairman of the State Tender Board v Sneller Digital (Pty)
Ltd and
Others
[7]
,
the
“
[20]
Generally speaking, whether an
administrative action is ripe for challenge depends on its impact and
not on whether the decision-maker has formalistically notified the
affected party of the decision or even on whether the decision
is a
preliminary one or the ultimate decision in a layered process …
Ultimately, whether a decision is ripe for challenge
is a question of
fact, not one of dogma.
”
[22]
There can be no doubt that the decision of the Department constitutes
administrative
action.
V
The right to reasons
[23]
Section 217(1) of the Constitution reads:
“
When
an
organ of state in the national, provincial or local sphere of
government or any other institution identified in national
legislation
contracts for goods and services, it must do so in
accordance with system which is fair, equitable, transparent,
competitive and
cost-effective”
[24]
The very essence of section 217 is to curb irregular and unlawful
tender processes
which are funded from public funds. The State
has an obligation to be transparent at all times during these
processes. Hence
there can be no impediment in furnishing reasons in
order to enable them to determine if their rights to fair
administration had
been infringed.
[25]
In
Aquafund
(Pty) Ltd v Premier of Western Cape
[8]
the court held that:
“…
the right to which the
applicant is seeking to protect is not the right to have the decision
of the court reviewed with a view to
eventually being awarded the
contract. It is right to obtain such information as will enable it to
determine whether or not its
right to fair administrative action has
been infringed and not the right to review the decision of the tender
board with a view
to eventually being awarded the contract.”.
[26]
Hence, the respondents’ contention that the applicants are
entitled to reasons
once a final decision is made, has no merit.
[27]
In
Aquafund
the court went further to say at 617F:
“
I
do not understand the applicant to contend that it has a right to
defend and that it is able to demand that a tender be accepted.
As
already said, the applicant merely contend that it is entitled to
lawful administrative action. I find the consideration of
tender was
an administrative act and that the applicant was accordingly entitled
to lawful administrative action as meant in section
24 of the
Constitution
”.
[9]
[28]
In terms of section 33 of the Constitution read with section 5 of
PAJA, a party is
entitled to reasons the moment their rights have
adversely been affected. This principle was endorsed in
JFE
Sapela Electronics (Pty) Ltd and Another v Chairperson: Standing
Tender Committee and Others
[10]
the court held that:
“
A
person whose rights have been materially and adversely affected by
administrative action is in terms of section 33(2) of the
Constitution and section 5(1) of PAJA entitled to be given reasons
for the action. A tenderer whose tender was rejected has a right
to
be given reasons for the rejection of his tender… a tender
condition provides that no reasons will be given if invalid
has been
in conflict with the provisions of section 33 of the Constitution”.
[29]
The aforesaid authorities reinforce the applicants’ right to
lawful administrative
action. They are entitled to the relevant
information in order to establish whether or not its right to lawful
administrative action
has been violated. This would allow
them to make an informed decision as to whether their administrative
rights have
been affected.
[30]
In
Nextcom
the court remarked
[11]
:
“
The
justification for administrative action and executive decisions is
only possible if there is transparency. Free flow of
information is the very essence of justification.”
[31]
The court went on to state it may well be that Nextcom will never be
able to establish
that it is entitled to review the entire process or
any part thereof. This is irrelevant at this stage. Nextcom and
the other
bidders are entitled to the information which they require
to consider their position.
VI
The stay of the implementation of the service level agreement
[32]
In addition to the reasons, the applicants sought relief the stay on
the tender process
which includes the implementation of the service
level agreement with Kishugu. The stay should remain until such time
as the Department
furnishes the applicants with reasons, which would
then determine if they have been fairly excluded from the bid.
[33]
The applicants’ relief is premised in terms of section 38 of
the Constitution
The term appropriate relief connotes a wide
discretion on the part of the court. This would depend on the
circumstances of each
matter and may include an interdict, a
declaration of rights, a
mandamus
or such other relief as may
be required to ensure that the rights enshrined in the Constitution
are protected.
[34]
The applicants relied on the matter of Nextcom
[12]
where the interdict was granted precluding the successful bidder from
taking office until such time as the unsuccessful bidders
were given
an opportunity to consider the reasons for their bids being rejected.
[35]
The applicants submitted that the court should follow the Nextcom
approach and the
interdictory relief sought is justified in the
circumstances. The applicants further argued that the
separation of powers
is a red herring tactic to steer the court away
from the issues at hand.
[36]
I cannot ignore the fact that the relief sought, would interfere with
the powers
of the executive.
[37]
It is necessary to emphasise that the court in the
Outa
matter warned that in addition to the requirements for an interdict
at court is further obliged to take into consideration the
doctrine
of separation of powers. This court is obliged to recognise and
accept the impact of the temporary restraining order.
[13]
[38]
The applicants are requested to satisfy the requirements for an
interdict. They may
have established their rights to be furnished
with a reason but this court must be satisfied that the relief sought
is justified.
[39]
I appreciate that in exercising its discretion, the court weighs
inter
alia
the prejudice to the applicants if the interdict is withheld against
prejudice to the respondents if it is granted, known as the
balance
of convenience.
[14]
[40]
In the
National
Treasury and Others v Opposition to Urban Tolling Alliance and
Others
[15]
matter the court contended that granting interdicts in the domain of
government, one must be sensitive to the doctrine of the separation
of powers. The court specifically in the stated at paragraph
47:
“
The balance of
convenience enquiry must now carefully probe whether and to which
extent the restraining order will probably intrude
into the exclusive
terrain of another branch of Government. The enquiry must, alongside
other relevant harm, have proper regard
to what may be called
separation of powers harm. A court must keep in mind that a temporary
restraint against the exercise of statutory
power well ahead of the
final adjudication of a claimant’s case may be granted only in
the clearest of cases and after a
careful consideration of separation
of powers harm.”
[41]
At paragraph 71 the court in
Outa
advised that before granting
interdictory relief pending a review, a court must in the absence of
mala fide
fraud or corruption examine carefully whether will
trespass upon a terrain of another arm of government in a manner
inconsistent
with the doctrine of separation of powers.
[42]
In terms of
Plascon-Evans
it is trite that the applicants are
required to establish a
prima facie
case and consideration should be given to the facts given by the
applicants together with the facts set out by the Department which
cannot be disputed and thereby make a finding, having regard to the
inherent probabilities whether the applicants are entitled
to the
relief.
[43]
On their papers the applicants allege various discrepancies in the
tender process
evaluation. They refer to the five stage evaluation
process conducted by the Department and set out in the Terms of
Reference (TOR):
(i)
stage 1: pre-compliance
(ii)
stage 2: mandatory subcontracting requirement
(iii)
stage 3: local production and content
(iv)
stage 4: functional evaluation criteria
(v)
stage 5: price and B-BBEE
[44]
By virtue of the (TOR), only the bids that pass phases 1, 2 and 3
would be evaluated
on functionality at phase 4. A bidder must score
at least 75% on functionality in phase 4. In phase 5 on
assessment the price
and the B-BBEE assessment is conducted.
[45]
Ultimately, the bid should on their understanding be awarded to the
bidder with the
highest points on price and B-BBEE, provided that the
bidder passes all the phases and complied with the tender
requirements set
out in the tender documents.
[46]
Argument was advanced that Kishugu’s price was
R4 186 062 689.00
(R4.2 billion) whereas the
applicants’ price was R2.6 billion. Both satisfied the B-BBEE
level 1 contributor requirement.
Since the applicants’ tender
price was substantively lower than Kishugu, they should have been
preferred above Kishugu.
[47]
In addition, in the letter of 11 November 2022 (annexure “FA2”)
they
set out the information obtained from the whistle-blower which
inter alia
alleged that the bidders besides Kishugu were
incorrectly awarded a functionality score of below 75 points so that
they could be
disqualified from the bid. This made Kishugu the only
bidder awarded with more than 75 points.
[48]
The further irregularities pointed out was that the Department was in
collusion with
Kishugu to award an additional R16 million to it and
that former government employees were in the employ of Kishugu and
which fact
was not declared by Kishugu.
[49]
At the hearing the applicants maintained that they have a strong
prima facie
case even if they
abandon the truth of the allegations of the whistle-blower. The court
should however take cognisance that there
was whistle-blowing
regarding the tender in issue.
[50]
The bid evaluation process on its own revealed alarming
irregularities more particularly
the difference of approximately R1.6
billion in the tender price.
[51]
At paragraph 42 of the applicants’ papers, the applicants
submitted that:
“
The
difference is astonishing given that a price in formula was set out
in annexure 3 (price breakdown), in the (TOR).” In
other words,
the Department actually gave all bidders the number of participants
at 5 300 people were their payroll scale.
There was little and
no room for any serious variation between bidders in relation to this
aspect of a contract price.
Another
aspect is a price related to the provisions of the PPE, equipment,
suitable vehicles and training. Again, this was
based on the
same fixed number of participants, basis training hours etc.
There was a limited social variation. The bidders
should have priced
themselves by quite similarly. A massive differential of R1.6 billion
is difficult to understand in these circumstances.
The
applicants followed the pricing formula in annexure 3. I know
because I prepared the applicants’ bid as Kishugu
Group had
done same, there is simply no way that its price could have been R1.6
billion more expensive than that of the applicants.”
[52]
It was alleged that the Department has a constitutional obligation to
spend taxpayers’
money responsibly. There can be no
question that the respondents should be called to explain. It
was further pointed
out that the respondents failed to address the
alleged irregularities concerning the tender.
[16]
[53]
The version of the applicants should be considered with the version
of the respondents.
The first and second respondents submitted
inter alia
the following:
(i)
the applicants failed to demonstrate that they have reasonable
prospects of succeeding in the review;
(ii)
the applicants’ relief infringes on the “
separation of
powers principle
”. This court is precluded from assuming
the functions that fall within the domain of the executive;
(iii)
the extension of the current contract would infringe the executive
powers
and is impermissible.
[54]
Kishugu in the papers further raised the following concerns,
namely:
[17]
(i)
the annual wage costs of 5 300 firefighters were estimated
at
approximately R300 million. The applicants’ bid would be
underpriced on this basis. It was also contended that the Department
is not obliged to appoint a bidder offering a lesser amount;
(ii)
the WoF program is a complex integrated system that involves complex
activities with a vast number of firefighters, numerous vehicles are
sourced and the project carries complex policy and socio-economic
considerations;
(iii)
the Department cannot, on its own accord, extend the contract.
Approval from
National Treasury is necessary. In fact National
Treasury should have been joined in these proceedings;
(iv)
the interdict sought may give rise to a period where no contract with
the service
provider is in place. This would place the country at
risk where there would be no service providers dealing with
wildfires;
(v)
the interdict would be intrusive to the Department thereby
constraining
them to fulfil their duties;
(vi)
the very reason for the tender process was to comply with proper
procurement
process. At least three extensions were granted to
WoF and Kishugu;
(vii)
there is further a history of litigation with Kishugu regarding the
current tender;
(viii)
moreover,
this court should be cautious in interfering in the contractual
relationship between the two parties.
[18]
[55]
At this juncture, I find the sentiments expressed in Outa at
paragraph 26 to be instructive:
“
A
court must be alive to and carefully consider whether the temporary
restraining order would unduly trespass on the sole terrain
of the
branches of government even before the final determination of the
review grounds. A court must be ascribe not to stop dead
the exercise
of executive or legislative power before the exercise has been
successfully and finally impugned on review. This approach
accords
well with the committee of the court and to other branches of
government provided they act lawfully…”.
[56]
This court must be mindful that the present circumstances do not
constitute an ordinary
application for an interdict but is an
interdict restraining the exercise of the executive powers. It is
only in exceptional cases
and when strong case is made, that an
interdict of this nature is justified.
[57]
The primary responsibility of a court is not to make decisions
reserved for the domain
of other branches of government and further
it should be careful not to usurp such powers as the Constitution
entrusts specific
functions and powers on various organs of state.
That would frustrate the balance of power implied in the principle of
separation
of facts. However, this does not mean that in every
instance an organ of state is immunised from interference.
[58]
The court in
Outa
gave guidance when confronted with an application for a temporary
interdict that has the potential of impinging on the legitimate
preserve of another arm of national government needs to be determined
that question first. It must ask, is this a case where national
legislative or executive powers will be transgressed by a temporary
interdict. If the answer is yes, the court will grant the remedy
only
in the clearest of cases. It is not possible to define what will
constitute the clearest of cases, but one of the important
considerations will be to what extent the fundamental constitutional
rights of persons may be affected by the grant of a temporary
interdict.
[19]
[59]
At this point the Department’s reasons on the scoring had not
been disclosed.
The applicants’ version on the evaluation of
their bid in my view does not place the balance of convenience in
their favour.
[60]
I am of the view that in this instance a strong case is not
prevalent. The applicants
have illustrated discrepancies according to
their understanding of the Terms of Reference. The nub of their
case centres
on the price discrepancies and their insistence that
they scored more than 75 points. Consideration was given to the
aforesaid
after the whistle-blower’s information surfaced.
[61]
Having regard to the submissions of both parties, I am not satisfied
that this is
an instance of a strong and a clear case. The
respondents have illustrated that not only the tender process but the
contractual
aspects are complex and are subject to various
legislative and policy prescripts.
[62]
More notably, the budgetary implications have to be considered.
Treasury has a hand
to play in budgetary decisions and extension of
contracts. Furthermore state organs have limited powers
regarding extension
of contracts.
[63]
At this juncture the applicants have not demonstrated actual harm.
VII
Costs
[64]
In the main application, the applicants have been successful. They
were justified
in demanding reasons and doing so on an urgent basis.
[65]
The applicants were however not successful on the interdictory relief
sought which
in their view was the pivotal to this application. In
exercising my discretion, I am however inclined to order that the
respondents
jointly and severally be liable for the costs of the main
application. Both respondent parties entered litigation arena and
argued
substantially on all the issues raised in the application.
VIII
Interlocutory applications
(i)
Joinder
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
[66]
The applicants’ sought the joinder of the fifth to seventh
respondents. Effectively
the fifth to seventh respondents have a
substantial interest in this matter and are accordingly joined. There
was no opposition
to this application.
(ii)
Application to amend and striking out
[67]
The applicants sought an amendment to the relief claimed. It
was submitted
that this was necessary after the respondents’
version set forth in the answering affidavit, pertaining to the fact
that
a pre-award was made. The applicants requested costs as both
respondent parties opposed the relief sought. In my view
the amendment was necessary as the applicants were entitled to
reasons after learning that a decision had already been made by
the
Department.
[68]
On the issue of the striking out, the court is of the view that a
dispute exists
I have been placed with two different versions which
in my view should be ventilated fully. A dispute of fact
persists on
this issue.
(iii)
Application to compel
[69]
The third and fourth respondents sought the applicants’ bid
documentation,
particularly in light of the allegations made by the
whistle-blower. This application was however not pursued at the
hearing. The
applicants opposed the respondents’ entitlement to
the bid submission as it is considered confidential. It is their
argument
that confidentiality of the bid document is not an
acceptable reason not to furnish the bid submission. In this instance
the applicants
are entitled to their costs as well.
VIII
Conclusion
[70]
In conclusion, the applicants are entitled to their reasons at this
point and I am
amenable to truncate the periods for the furnishing of
reasons. There can be no doubt at this stage that a final decision
has been
made by the Department.
[71]
The following order is made:
(1)
The matter is urgent and in accordance with Rule 6(12) and
the usual
forms and manner of service are dispensed with to the extent
necessary.
(2)
The first and second respondents’ decision recorded in
its
letter to Kishugu Group on 8 November 2022 in which the first and
second respondents notified Kishugu Group of its decision
to select
Kishugu Group from the pool of bidders as a successful party in the
tender bid number T041 (2022 to 2023) constitutes
administrative
action as contemplated in section 1 of the Promotion of
Administrative Justice Act 3 of 2000 (PAJA).
(3)
The first and second respondents’ decision to disqualify
the
applicants from the tender at stage 4 of the evaluation constitutes
administrative action as contemplated in section 1 of PAJA.
(4)
The first and second respondents are directed to provide the
applicants with reasons for the two decisions in terms of section
33(2) of the Constitution read with section 5 of PAJA by no later
than 10 January 2023.
(5)
In order to give effect to the time period in paragraph 4 above,
the
90 (ninety) day time period referred to in section 5 of PAJA is
hereby reduced in the manner contemplated by section 9(1)(a)
of PAJA.
(6)
The applicants shall inform the Department of their position
by no
later than 17 January 2023. This includes their intention to
persist with review proceedings or any other proceedings
they intend
persisting with.
(7)
The respondents are liable for the costs of the main application
jointly and severally.
(8)
The respondents are liable to pay the costs of the interlocutory
application to amend the relief sought by the applicants.
(9)
The third to the seventh respondents are ordered to pay the
costs in
respect of the interlocutory application to compel.
______________________
H
KOOVERJIE
JUDGE
OF THE HIGH COURT
GAUTENG
DIVISION, PRETORIA
Heard
on:
04 January 2023
Appearance
:
Counsel
for Applicants:
Adv Kevin Hopkins SC
Counsel
for 1
st
and 2
nd
Respondents:
Adv De Villiers-Jansen SC
Adv Ria Matsala
Counsel
for the 3
rd
and 4
th
Respondents:
Adv Myron Dewrance SC
Ms Bashni
Rowjee
[1]
Annexure
“FA3”.
[2]
Annexure
"AA3”.
[3]
Annexure
“FA5” and “FA6.
[4]
(11/33767)
[2011] ZAGPJHC 196 (23 September 2011)
.
[5]
Annexure
“NPM1”.
[6]
[2005]
ZASCA 43
;
2005 (6) SA 313
(SCA) at para 24.
[7]
2012
(2) SA 16
at paragraph 20
.
[8]
1997
(2) ALL SA 608
(C) at 610.
[9]
A
right to lawful administrative action in section 24 of the interim
constitution is now enshrined in section 33 of the final
constitution.
[10]
2004
[3] ALL SA 715 (C).
[11]
Nextcom
(Pty) Ltd v Funde NO and Others
2000 (4) SA 491
at 510.
[12]
2000
(4) SA 491.
[13]
Paragraph
66 of Outa judgment.
[14]
Erickson
Motors Welkom Limited v Protea Motors Warrenton and Another 1973
(SA) 685 AS 691D – G.
[15]
2012
(6) SA 223 (CC).
[16]
Pages
2 – 24 and 2 – 25.
[17]
Pages
02 – 340 to 02 – 343.
[18]
Pages
02 – 334 to 02 – 336.
[19]
Paragraph
90 of Outa judgment.
sino noindex
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