Case Law[2025] KEELRC 3660Kenya
Ochieng v Njoroge & 2 others (Petition E170 of 2025) [2025] KEELRC 3660 (KLR) (17 December 2025) (Judgment)
Employment and Labour Relations Court of Kenya
Judgment
REPUBLIC OF KENYA
IN THE EMPLOYMENT AND LABOUR RELATIONS COURT
OF KENYA AT NAIROBI
PETITION NO. E170 OF 2025
IN THE MATTER OF ARTICLES 22 (1) AND 258 OF THE
CONSTITUTION OF KENYA, 2010
AND
IN THE MATTER OF THE CONTRAVENTION OF
ARTICLES 10, 47, 73,129, 130 &232 OF THE CONSTITUTION
-BETWEEN-
MERCY AUMA OCHIENG.……...…...……. PETITIONER
- VERSUS -
ROBI MBUGUA NJOROGE…..................... 1ST RESPONDENT
ANTI-COUNTERFEIT AUTHORITY……. 2ND RESPONDENT
ATTORNEY GENERAL…………………….3RD RESPONDENT
(Before Hon. Justice Byram Ongaya on Wednesday 17th December,
2025)
JUDGMENT
Page 1 of 48
1. The petitioner filed the petition dated 04.09.2025 through
Deogratius Omondi Advocate. The petitioner prayed for reliefs as
follows:
a) A declaration that the 1 respondent was ineligible for
recommendation to a third term in office by the board of
directors of the 2nd respondent to the Cabinet Secretary for
renewal of contract or reappointment on account, inter alia,
of having served two terms under section 45 of the Public
Service Commission Act and having not met other
prerequisites of the circulars and guidelines like evaluation
by the board of directors of the 2nd respondent
b) A declaration that the board of directors of the 2nd
respondent had no authority to enter into a contract with the
1st respondent and were indeed precluded from entering into
any contract of service reappointing or renewing the term of
the 1st respondent on 30th January 2025 on account of
public policy exemplified by: -
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(i) The Cabinet decision and resolution of 21st January
2025 suspending renewal of contracts for chief
executives of state corporations earmarked merger.
(ii) (ii) The absence of prior written approval for
renewal of contract or reappointment from the
Head of Public Service.
c) A declaration that the failure by the board of directors of the
2nd respondent, Cabinet Secretary for Investments, Trade
and Industry, the Cabinet Secretary for the National
Treasury and the Head of Public Service to implement the
Cabinet decision and resolution on non-renewal of contract
of the 1st respondent is unconstitutional, illegal, amounts to
insubordination of Cabinet and the President and is null and
void.
d) A declaration that the alleged contract of service entered
between the 1st respondent and the 2nd respondent on 30th
January 2025 is unconstitutional for violating, inter alia, the
national values and principles of governance under article
10 of the Constitution.
Page 3 of 48
e) A declaration that the 1st respondent, having no contract for
renewal of term or reappointment or having a contract of
service that is for all intents and purposes null, void and
unenforceable, is ineligible to occupy and perform the
functions of executive director of the 2nd respondent and is
illegally in office.
f) A permanent injunction restraining the 1st respondent from
acting, purporting to act or performing the functions and
responsibilities of the executive director of the 2nd
respondent and further restraining the board of directors of
the 2nd respondent from facilitating or recognizing the 1st
respondent as the executive director of the 2nd respondent.
g) An order of mandamus compelling the 1st respondent to
refund all monies out of public funds received, expended or
utilized from 1st August 2025 until the date of judgment
herein as determined by a special audit of the Inspector
General of State Corporations under section 18 of the State
Corporations Act within a period of sixty (60) days from the
date of this judgment.
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h) Any other relief that this Court may deem just and
expedient to grant.
2. The petition was based upon the supporting affidavit of the
petitioner sworn on 04.09.2025. The petitioner stated and urged
as follows:
a) The petitioner brings this petition in the public interest
under the provisions of articles 22(1) & 258(1) & 2(c) of the
Constitution to prevent the contravention of inter alia,
articles 10, 73 and 232 of the Constitution. The petition is
also brought in the public interest to ensure conformity with
statutory provisions and policies in the nature of circulars
and guidelines that have constitutional and statutory
underpinning.
b) The petitioner brings this petition to challenge the continued
holding of a public office by the 1" respondent contrary to
the constitution, statute and public policy.
c) The 1st respondent is a male adult of sound mind and
disposition and presently he occupies the office of executive
director of the 2nd respondent, a public remunerated office
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from public funds, created under section 10 of the Anti-
Counterfeit Act.
d) The 1st respondent is sued as an employee of the 2nd
respondent under section 12(2) of the Employment and
Labour Relations Court Act.
e) The 2nd respondent is a statutory body created under section
3 of the Anti-Counterfeit Act and is the employer of the 1st
respondent through its board of directors that is created
under section 6 of the Anti-Counterfeit Act. It is alleged that
by failures on the part of the 2nd respondent, the 1st
respondent continues to occupy public office illegally.
f) The 3rd respondent is a creature of article 156 of the
Constitution and is the principal advisor to the government
mandated to represent the national government in all civil
proceedings. The 3rd respondent is being sued on behalf of
the Head of Public Service, the Cabinet as established in
Article 152 of the Constitution and with functions and
duties per Article 153 of the Constitution and section 9 and
10 of the National Government Co-ordination Act, the
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National Treasury as tasked to implement the Cabinet’s
decisions of 21.01.2025 on state corporations’ reforms per
subsequent National Treasury circular of 05.02.2025
addressed to 1st and 2nd respondents, and, the Cabinet
Secretary for Investments, Trade and Industry charged with
implementation of government policies and circulars and
Cabinet guidelines and decisions in the Ministry.
3. The petitioner’s case is further pleaded as follows:
a) The petition is premised on documents and information
obtained in the public domain like court records from
decided cases in court and from stakeholders of the 2nd
respondent whose identity is protected by the whistle
blowing provisions of the 2nd respondent's Human Resource
Policy and Procedures Manual at paragraph 10:34 and also
external stakeholders.
b) The 1st respondent was engaged by the 2nd respondent’s
board of directors on a term of one year non-renewable with
effect from 1st August 2022 as the 2nd respondent’s
executive director.
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c) The 1st respondent's engagement was pursuant to a public
advertisement and the said advertisement was clear that it
was fixed for one year and non-renewable.
d) The 1st respondent on joining the 2nd respondent only had a
legitimate expectation that he would serve a one-year fixed
term and exit and nothing more. He was not imbued with a
legitimate expectation that he would have the term’s
extension. He acquiesced to the one term contract and
therefore waived his right to any longer or extended term of
service. t was expected through the advertisement that the
I
1st respondent was to exit or cease from occupying the
office of executive director on 31st July 2023. However, he
secured a second term of two years that ran from 1st August
2023 and was therefore expected to exit or cease from
occupying the office of executive director of the 2nd
respondent on 31st July 2025.
e) The petitioner’s case is that the 1st respondent therefore
served two terms and was ineligible for reappointment to a
third term and the board of directors of the 2nd respondent
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had по роwer or authority to purport to entertain the 1st
respondent for a third term particularly in view of
regulation 4 of the Anti-Counterfeit regulations and section
45 of the Public Service Commission Act. The said
regulation 4 states, “The Executive Director shall hold
office for a period of three years, and shall be eligible for
re-appointment for one further term.” The said section 45 of
the Act about service on contract terms provides as
follows,
“(1)A person may be engaged on a term of contract, for a
period of at least twelve months but not exceeding five
years.
(2)A person may be engaged on a term of contract if the
following requirements are met—
(a) the office where such a person is to be deployed has
been created by the Commission;
(b)the office where such a person is to be deployed exists in
the contractual establishment;
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(c)the person has expressed the desire to serve on a term of
contract;
(d)there is no other public officer performing the function;
and,
(e)the person does not qualify to be employed under any
other terms of service.
(3)The extension of a term of contract may be allowed by
the Commission or other appointing authority if—
(a) the workload justifies further engagement;
(b) the performance of the public officer is satisfactory;
(c)the public officer has expressed, in writing, the
willingness to engage for a further term of service;
(d)the decision shall in no way disadvantage any public
officer employed on permanent terms; and,
(e)the decision is made at least three months before the
expiry of the affected public officer's term of contract.
(4)The Commission shall regulate the employment of
persons on a term of contract as contemplated under this
section.”
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f) Thee 1st respondent through illegal, irregular and ultra vires
acts of omission and commission in collusion with the
board of directors of the 2nd respondent and the Cabinet
Secretary for Investments, Trade and Industry, purported to
procure a third term on 30" January 2025 that is to run from
1st August 2025.
g) The petitioner’s case is that the term of the 1st respondent
was to expire on 31st July 2025 and indeed expired on 31st
July 2025 and the 1st respondent was not eligible for
reappointment or renewal of the contract term on account of
public policy as comprised in the following reasons:
i) The Cabinet at its meeting on 21st January 2025
resolved to have specific state corporations merged.
Among the state corporations to be merged was the 2nd
respondent. That was pursuant to a report of 2013 on
State Corporations Reforms.
ii) As part of the conditions that the Cabinet resolved
tied to the merger was that there would be no renewal
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of contracts for chief executives of state corporations
earmarked for merger.
iii) The 2nd respondent being one of the state
corporations earmarked for merger and with the
suspension of contract renewal or reappointment for
those on contract, the board of directors of the 2nd
respondent did not have capacity to purport to
reappoint or renew the contract of the 1st respondent.
iv)The decisions and resolutions of the Cabinet of 21st
January 2025 became public knowledge due to a
dispatch from the Cabinet on 21" January 2025 and
was widely reported in the public media, both print
and electronic on 21st & 22nd of January 2025. The 1st
& 22nd respondents therefore knew or ought to have
known of the decision of Cabinet on 21st January 2025
from print, electronic and social media and at the
latest 22nd January 2025 to which the 1st respondent is
a subscriber at public expense.
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v) The decisions and resolutions of the Cabinet of 21st
January 2025 were communicated the same day to the
3rd respondent and all Cabinet Secretaries and
Principal Secretaries and consequently the 1st & 2nd
respondents with their Cabinet Secretary being part of
the Cabinet meeting and decision and their principal
secretary informed in writing the same day, they are
deemed to have been aware of the decision on
suspension of renewal of reappointment of contracts
of the 1st respondent and any actions thereafter to the
contrary was illegal, unenforceable and amounted to
insubordination of the President.
vi)The decision of the Cabinet of 21st January 2025 was
further communicated to the 1st & 2nd respondent on
5th February 2025 by the National Treasury.
vii) The 1st respondent and the board of directors of the
2nd respondent in spite of being aware of the resolution
of Cabinet on or about 21st & 22nd January 2025,
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gerrymandered to purport to reappoint the 1st
respondent on January 2025.
viii) The 1st & 2nd respondents cannot and have no
power to override or ignore the resolution and
decision of the Cabinet.
ix)The Cabinet Secretary for Investments, Trade and
Industry is a member of the Cabinet and by knowing
on 21st January 2025 that a decision on non-renewal of
the contract of the 1st respondent had been made, the
1st & 2nd respondents were constructively aware of the
said decision and resolution and consequently their
actions were illegal, irregular and contrary to public
policy and therefore null and void.
x) The aforesaid decision of the Cabinet was further
reemphasized on 16th May 2025 to the entire public
service by the Head of Public Service.
xi)The 1st & 2nd respondents therefore knew that the term
of service of the 1st respondent could not extend
beyond 31st July 2025.
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xii) Neither the 1st respondent nor the 2nd respondent had
the capacity in law or fact in the face of the Cabinet
decision to purport to enter into any contract.
xiii) In any event the 1st respondent had a contract
with the 2nd respondent that was to run up to 31st July
2025 and consequently at the material time, the 1st &
2nd respondents could not have two concurrent and
enforceable contracts.
4. The term of contract of the 1" respondent expired on 31st July
2025 and his continued stay in office is additionally illegal
contrary to public policy in view of the following:
a) The renewal respondent or reappointment of chief
executives of state corporations like the 2nd respondent is a
matter of public policy contained in various circulars and
guidelines.
b) The renewal or reappointment is first of all initiated by the
1st respondent at least six months prior to the expiry of the
term by applying to the board of the 2ud respondent.
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c) The next step is that the board of directors of the 2nd
respondent receive the application for renewal of contract
or reappointment.
d) Upon receipt the board of directors of the 2nd respondent
is then expected to meet and evaluate the 1st respondent
applicant for purposes of the application for renewal of
contract or reappointment.
e) If the board of the 2nd respondent finds that the 1st
respondent has achieved at least a score of 70%, then the
board of directors of the 2nd respondent may recommend
to the line Cabinet Secretary the renewal of contract or
reappointment.
f) The 1st respondent was never evaluated by the board of
directors of the 2nd respondent and has never been
evaluated and consequently the 1st respondent was
ineligible to be recommended to the line Cabinet
Secretary for renewal of contract or reappointment.
g) The line Cabinet Secretary is then expected to either reject
or accept the appointment.
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h) If the Cabinet Secretary declines, then the application dies
a natural death but if the Cabinet Secretary concurs then
the said Cabinet Secretary is expected to forward the
concurrence to the Head of Public Service who then
concurs or rejects.
i) If the Head of Public Service concurs or rejects, the said
decision is communicated back to the 2nd respondent in
writing through the Cabinet Secretary.
j) If the Head of Public Service concurs in writing, then the
1st respondent would then have a written contract entered
into with the 2nd respondent.
k) The 1st respondent purported to enter into an illegal,
clandestine, irregular and void contract with the chairman
of the 2nd respondent.
l) The 1st respondent did not receive the concurrence of the
Head of Public Service for the renewal of his contract but
purportedly went ahead, without authority, to enter into a
contract with the chairman of the board of directors of the
2nd respondent on 30th January 2025.
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5. The petitioner’s case is that the continued stay in office of the 1st
respondent after 31st July 2025 is illegal, null and void and he
has no contract to stay in office after 31st July 2025 and even if
he has any such contract the same is contrary to public policy,
null and void.
6. The Head of Public Service has the following functions under
section 8(6) of the National Government Co-ordination Act,
thus:
a) support the President in facilitating the organization and
execution of Government business;
b) be the Chief of Staff to the President and the
administrative head of the Executive Office of the
President; and,
c) perform such other functions as may be assigned by the
President.
7. The Head of Public Service is the administrative head of the
Presidency and consequently his concurrence is grounded and
underpinned in law and signifies the concurrence of the
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President as the Head of the Executive. Such concurrence is
underpinned in law and is binding.
8. State corporations are part of the Executive arm of government
and are bound by the policy directions and guidelines issued by
the Executive arm of government including the Cabinet and the
Presidency.
9. The 1st respondent is in office illegally and his continued stay in
office and purported exercise of functions of the office are null
and void and has no contract of service and even if he is holding
one then the same is null and void, unenforceable and he is
liable to exit the public office.
10. The purported stay in office of the 1st respondent and the
alleged support by the board of directors of the 2nd respondent is
an act of defiance of the Executive arm of Government that has
the popular and constitutional mandate to govern and is a
serious affront to the rule of law and the national values and
principles of governance.
11. The petitioner urges that the 1st respondent’s appointment
by the 2nd respondent violated Article 10 of the Constitution on
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values and principles of national governance and also breached
the Cabinet communication of 21.01.2025 as well as the
National Treasury circular no. DGIPEA/A/1/85 “A” (53) dated
02.02.2015 and Head of Public Service circular no.
OP/CAB.9/1A of 16.05.2025. it was urged that the government
moratorium on renewal of the 1st respondent’s contract by the 2nd
respondent’s board had been ignored and the 1st respondent had
continued in office unlawfully and contrary to public policy.
12. The petitioner also pleaded that the circulars requiring
concurrence of the Head of Public Service had been ignored by
the 1st and 2nd respondents in the appointment or renewal of
appointment of the 1st respondent and being, circular Ref:
OP/CAB. 9/1A dated 20th April 2022; circular Ref: OP/CAB.
9/1A dated 3rd April 2023; circular Ref: OP/CAB. 9/1A dated
25th November 2022; and, circular Ref: OP/CAB. 9/1 dated 8th
April 2025. The 1st respondent’s was without a written
concurrence of the Head of Public Service so that the contract
could not be concluded in the manner it was done.
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13. The petitioner pleaded that the appointing or renewal of
appointment of the 1st respondent was in violation of Article 47
of the Constitution requiring that an administrative action is
lawful, reasonable and procedurally fair. It was pleaded that the
board of the 2nd respondent failed to ensure that in the purported
grant of a contract to the 1st respondent the same was lawful,
reasonable and procedurally fair. The particulars of violation
were pleaded as follows:
a) Failed to ensure that the 1st respondent was evaluated by
the board of the 2nd respondent prior to recommendation to
the line Cabinet Secretary. That was illegal and
procedurally unfair.
b) Failed to inform the line Cabinet Secretary and indeed
suppressed the fact that after making an application for
extension for contract, the 1st respondent was never
evaluated by the board of directors of the 2nd respondent.
c) Failed to secure the written approval of the Head of Public
Service prior to execution of the contract. That was illegal
and contrary to public policy.
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d) Failed to ascertain that the 1st respondent was eligible for
contract extension in the face of the fact that he had served
two terms.
e) Failed to abide the suspension of renewal of extension of
contract of the respondent based on the Cabinet resolution
and decision of 21st January 2025.
f) Proceeded irregularly to enter into a contract of service
without the prior written approval of the Head of Public
Service.
14. The petitioner also pleaded that the actions of the 1st
respondent and the facilitation by the board of directors of the
2nd respondent concerning the impugned contract of service of
30th January 2025 and continued occupation of the public
office of executive director violates the requirements of
leadership and integrity under Article 73 of the Constitution.
Further, 1st respondent in clinging to the office of executive
director after the expiry of his term and the 2nd respondent
through its board of directors in facilitating the 1st respondent to
remain and cling to office have violated the values and
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principles of public service in article 232 of the Constitution by
failing to maintain high standards of professional ethics; failing
to be accountable for administrative acts; failing to act in a
transparent manner; failing to obey and observe government
circulars and guidelines; and, by engaging in gerrymandering.
15. The petitioner pleaded that the petition had been filed in
the public interest and will serve to eliminate the following
mischiefs:
a) Erosion of good governance, the accountability in the
conduct of public affairs. rule of law, transparency and
b) Breakdown of constitutionalism and the rule of law if
public officers routinely violate government directives.
c) Serious affront to the rule of law which is the foundation
of the country.
d) Erosion of the rule of law if public policy decisions are
ignored and disobeyed.
e) Erosion of good governance if the rule of law is not
complied with.
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f) Erosion of the authority of good governance and
government if government decisions that have
constitutional and statutory underpinning are ignored.
g) Chaos and disorder in government if government decisions
are routinely ignored.
h) Illegal occupation of offices by public officers contrary to
government directives and guidelines.
i) National values and principles of governance and the
values and principles of public service will be rendered
superfluous.
16. The 1st respondent filed a notice of preliminary objection
dated 13.10.2025 and through CSA Advocates and it was stated
as follows:
a) The Honourable Court lacks jurisdiction to hear and
determine the suit.
b) The petitioner lacks locus standi to commence the
proceedings against the respondents herein and in any
event the petition is speculative and does not meet the
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threshold for public interest litigation as contemplated
under Articles 22 and 258 of the Constitution.
c) The petitioner has failed to exhaust the mandatory
statutory dispute resolution mechanisms and fora before
instituting these proceedings.
d) The petition is premature, and untenable as it is predicated
on hypothetical or anticipatory dispute.
e) The petition offends the well set out principles in Anarita
Karimi Njeru vs. The Republic (1976-1980) KLR 1272
17. The 1st respondent also filed his replying affidavit sworn
on 03.11.2025. it was stated as follows:
a) He is the Executive Director of the 2nd respondent. The
office of Executive Director is created under section 10 of
the Anti-Counterfeit Act, Cap 510 laws of Kenya the 2nd
respondent is mandated under the Act to set and determine
the terms and conditions of service of the Executive
Director through the instrument of appointment or in
writing.
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b) Regulation 4 of the Anti-Counterfeit Regulations limits the
tenure of the Executive Director to 2 terms of 3 years.
c) The Mwongozo Code of Governance (2015) mandates the
Board to hold an oversight authority over the position of
the Executive Director and mandates performance
evaluation before renewal of contracts. Circular ref. no.
OP/CAB.9/1A dated 11.03.2020 by the Head of Public
Service reinforced that position of the Code.
d) He was initially appointed to the position of Executive
Director of the 2nd respondent for a period of one year and
reported for duty effective 01.08.2022. his first assignment
was to finalize the 2nd respondent’s strategic plan (2022-
2027) which had been commenced by his predecessors. He
also engaged to motivate staff and helped complete the 2nd
respondent’s policies and procedures.
e) The 2nd respondent’s board noted the milestones he
attained and at the board meeting of 30.08.2022
unanimously decided to review his employment tenure to
3 years in accordance with the Anti-Counterfeit Act and
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Regulations thereto. The affidavit states that the minutes of
the meeting are duly exhibited but the Court observes that
they are actually not exhibited at all. Instead exhibit RMN
2 are minutes of the board meeting held on 24.01.2023.
f) By letter dated 20.09.2022, the board sought the
concurrence of Cabinet Secretary with the decision to
review the terms of service from 1 year to 3 years. The
letter duly exhibited starts thus “We write in respect of the
above matter and a letter Ref. OP/CAB.9/247A dated
18.10.2021 approving the recruitment of the Executive
Director (ED) for a period of one year pending the
completion of the envisaged merger process.” The letter
further stated that the board had invited qualified
candidates to apply for the Executive Director’s post in
February 2022 and competitive interviews held on
22.04.2022. Dr. Robi Mbugua Njoroge King’a, the 1st
respondent, emerged as a top candidate and appointed as
he reported on 22.08.2022. The letter further stated thus,
“Dr. Njoroge has demonstrated admirable attitude and
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aptitude to handle the demanding tasks and calling of the
office. He has exhibited fortitude and skills by offering the
much needed leadership at the Authority during this
critical transition period.
Within the short period he has been with the Authority, Dr.
Njoroge has jump started the finalization of Strategic Plan
(2022-2027), reinvigorating staff morale and he is at the
cusp of finalizing policies and procedures which are
necessary for execution of the Authority’s mandate.
Against this backdrop, ACA Board in its 83rd meeting held
on 30th August 2022, unanimously resolved to review the
employment contract period of the Executive Director
from one year to three years as per Anti-Counterfeit Act,
2008 and approved Human Resource instruments.
The Board’s decision is premised on the fact that the
envisaged merger process is yet to be completed, the need
to provide the office holder with assurance and confidence
while providing leadership and realization that the one-
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year period is insufficient to positively influence the
performance of the organization.
This is therefore to request your good office to give a
concurrence to the Board’s decision in order to actualize
this intent.” The letter was signed by Flora Mutahi, the
Chairperson of the Board and addressed to Ms. Betty
Maina, CBS, Cabinet Secretary, Ministry of
Industrialization, Trade & Enterprise Development.
g) By the letter dated 14.09.2022 Ref. No.
MoITED/CS/ACA/VOL.II the Cabinet Secretary sought
advice from the Executive Office of the President, State
Corporations Advisory Committee and the Committee
concurred to review of the term to three years by the letter
of 14.10.2022 Ref. No.OP/SCAC1/63/2/1 addressed to the
Cabinet Secretary. The letter specifically noted the Cabinet
Secretary’s concerns thus, the anticipated merger process
involving the Anti-Counterfeit Agency(ACA) had
hampered the recruitment of required staff leading to a
human resource capacity gap; there had been a high turn-
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over of staff due to career growth stagnation and work
overload; and, hiring staff including the Chief Executive
Officer, on short term contracts of one year had proven
unattractive and inefficient. SCAC then observed and
advised as follows:
i) It is not the intention of Government to create human
resource capacity gaps and challenges in Agencies
that are candidates for reform.
ii) The object has however been to exercise caution
while recruiting to fill vacant posts in the support
functions since in the event of a merger, such
functions could be unitary and therefore bloated.
iii) There is no harm in ACA undertaking the
normal career progression for serving staff as
provided in the approved Human Resource (HR)
Policy and Procedures Manual to avoid stagnation
and any exposure to legitimate expectation.
iv)There would be no material risk in granting the staff
appointed on contract, appointments that are for the
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conventional duration (as stipulated by law or HR
policy). Such contracts should thus be for the
conventional duration or until the merger takes place,
whichever is the earlier. The CEO’s contract should
also be well guided by this principle.
The letter was copied to Dr. Joseph K. Kinyua, EGH,
Head of the Public Service , Executive Office of the
President; Amb. Johnson Weru, CBS, Principal
Secretary, State Department fr Trade & Enterprise
Development; and, Ms. Flora Mutahi, Board
Chairperson, Anti-Counterfeit Agency.
h) The Board evaluated the 2nd respondent’s performance for
2022/2023 financial year as exhibited and his score was
95.53% and for 2023/2024 his score was 93.17% out of a
maximum of 100%.
i) In view of the Board evaluation and by letter dated
02.01.2025 the 2nd respondent requested the board for
renewal of his employment as Executive Director for a
final 2nd term of a tenure of three years as prescribed in the
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cited regulation 4. The Board considered the request at the
meeting of 10.01.2025 and unanimously resolved to renew
the employment per minutes exhibit RMN9 of the replying
affidavit.
j) Accordingly, the 1st respondent’s tenure was reviewed to a
second term of 3 years due to lapse in August 2025. The
minutes show that the Board considered the 2nd
respondent’s performance record; the provisions of: the
Anti-Counterfeit Act Cap.510, Circular OP/CAB.9/1A,
circular OP/CAB.9/1 of 09.05.2008, the Mwongozo Code;
and,, after deliberation resolved thus, “The Board
unanimously approved the renewal of the Executive
Director’s contract of employment for a final term of three
years effective August 1, 2025.”
k) The Board thereafter sought for concurrence of the
Cabinet Secretary in line with the established procedures
which concurrence was accordingly issued by letter dated
14.01.2025 ref. no. MITI/CS/5/16 addressed to the Board
CXhairperson. The letter by the CS was dated 14.01.2025
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and it noted that there are plans to merge the Anti-
Counterfeit Authority (ACA) with Kenya Industrial
Property Institute (KIPI). The letter then concluded thus,
“Nonetheless, in view of the excellent performance by the
Chief Executive Officer, I hereby grant permission for the
board to renew the contract of the current Chief Executive
Officer, Dr. Robi Njoroge for three (3) years; or until the
two institutions are merged, whichever will come earlier.”
18. The 1st respondent proceeded to respond to the petition in
his replying affidavit as follows:
a) The renewal of his term as Executive Director by the 2nd
respondent for the 2nd and final 3-years was undertaken on
10.01.2025 and concurrence given on 14.01.2025 and
which was prior to the Cabinet meeting of 21.01.2025.
b) The contract allegedly entered into between the 1st and 2nd
respondents on 30.01.2025 has not been produced at all.
c) He holds office as Executive Director
19. The 2nd and 3rd respondents also filed the replying affidavit
of Josephat G. Kabeabea, the Chairperson of Anti-Counterfeit
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Authority Board, and sworn on 03.11.2025, as filed through the
learned Senior State Counsel Mary Mochoge for the Attorney
General. The replying affidavit essentially repeated the evidence
as per the 1st respondent’s replying affidavit. It was stated that
the initial appointment for one year, the review to three years
and then the renewal for a 2nd term of three years were all done
in accordance with the relevant provisions of the Constitution,
statute and government policies as set out in the circulars.
20. The petitioner’s supplementary affidavit sworn on
13.11.2025 repeated the petitioner’s claims and allegations. The
petitioner urged that the 1st respondent had failed to exhibit the
contract between the 1st respondent and the 2nd respondent so
that the Court should find that in such circumstances no contract
exists and the petitioner must therefore vacate the office. The
petitioner also filed his supplementary affidavit sworn on
12.11.2025 and urged that sections 77 and 78 of the Public
Service Commission Act (but which essentially are the
Regulations) invoked by the 2nd respondent did not apply
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because his case was not about any of the issues listed in the
sections.
21. The Court has considered the material on record and
returns as follows.
22. To answer the 1st issue, the Court returns that the
petitioner had sufficient standing and sufficiently pleaded to
show the provisions of the constitution he alleged had been
violated and particularised the alleged manner of violation. As
set out earlier in the judgment the petitioner went into details to
specifically plead that the respondents had allegedly violated
Articles 10, 47 73, and 232 of the Constitution and which he
sought to enforce by way of the instant petition.
23. The 2nd issue for determination is whether the petition was
premature for want of exhaustion of prescribed statutory and
alternative remedies or procedures as submitted for the
respondents.
24. It was submitted for the 2nd and 3rd respondents thus,
“….Article 234 of the Constitution vests the Public Service
Commission with the mandate to oversee appointments within
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the public service and to ensure that all such appointments are
conducted lawfully, competitively and on merit. Further,
Regulations 77 and 78 of the Public Service Commission
Regulations establish a clear complaints and investigation
framework, empowering the Commission, either on its own
motion or upon receipt of a complaint, to inquire into any matter
relating to the exercise of its constitutional and statutory
functions, including appointments to public offices. The
petitioner did not invoke this statutory mechanism, yet it is the
Commission that is constitutionally and legally vested with the
first-line jurisdiction to investigate and make a determination on
any alleged irregularity in an appointment process.”
The cited regulations provide as follows:
“77. (1) The Commission may, on its own initiative or on a
complaint made by any person, investigate any issue relating to
the Commission's constitutional or statutory functions and
power and make such determination as may be just in the
circumstances.
(2) The Commission, in conducting an investigation under
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paragraph (1), shall afford every relevant party an opportunity to
be heard before the Commission makes a determination in the
matter.
78. (1) The Commission may, on its own initiative or on the
request of any person, facilitate conciliation, mediation or
negotiation in respect of any issue relating to the Commission's
constitutional or statutory functions, and shall encourage the
parties to arrive at an amicable resolution.
(2) The Commission in facilitating conciliation, mediation or
negotiation under paragraph (1) shall ensure that every party to
the conciliation, mediation or negotiation has an opportunity to
make representations in respect of the matter.”
25. The Court has considered the provisions and returns that
they amount to mechanisms established by the subsidiary
legislation in the nature of optional dispute resolution (ODR)
provisions. Such are mechanisms established by the law or
international treaty that parties may choose or opt to use
generally or such as by agreement in a contract to voluntarily
submit a dispute for resolution using the provided optional
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mechanism. The provisions like the ones cited herein are
optional so that parties are not automatically compelled to use
them unless they have specifically agreed by contract to do so
by a relevant dispute resolution clause invoking such
mechanism. The cited regulations use “may” showing that they
are not imperative and a person with a dispute that may go to the
Commission. Thereby retains the individual autonomy to invoke
or not to invoke the permissible dispute resolution mechanism.
The Court finds that the regulations use a discretionary language
so that the dispute resolution mechanisms therein are optional as
are elective. The petitioner was not therefore bound to follow
the provisions. The submission made for the 2nd and 3rd
respondents that the petitioner’s failure to lodge any complaint
of irregularity with Public Service Commission is fatal to the
Petition is accordingly found unsustainable.
26. To answer the 3rd issue, the Court finds that the 1st
respondent was initially employed as the Executive Director for
one year which was reviewed and regularised to three years per
the statutory provision. The Court finds that such rectification
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was consistent with the statutory provisions in regulation 4 of
the Anti-Counterfeit Regulations and the 2nd respondent did not
act unlawfully to seek concurrence from the Cabinet Secretary
and the Executive Office of the President to grant the 1st
respondent the first full three years term contract. The Court
also finds that the respondents have established that the 1st
respondent’s second three year term was a renewal strictly in
accordance with the law and policy circulars on approvals and
concurrence by the Cabinet Secretary and the Executive Office
of the President. The Court upholds the submission made for the
2nd and 3rd respondents that the allegation of a ‘third term’ was
entirely unfounded because SCAC, acting within its mandate,
regularized a non-standard one-year contract into the
conventional three-year term, and the current appointment by a
renewal of three years term, therefore, constituted the statutorily
and policy-compliant second term. As was submitted, there was
no breach of term limits, and, the petition appears to have no
merits.
Page 39 of 48
27. While making that finding, the Court upholds the advisory
by SCAC to the Cabinet Secretary that the long running
reorganisation of state corporations by way of anticipated
mergers or dissolution must be understood not to adjourn
constitutional or statutory safeguards, processes, procedures and
accrued rights and obligations of the affected or concerned
employees and employers. The Court upholds the advisory by
SCAC’s letter of 14.10.2022 Ref. No.OP/SCAC1/63/2/1 and in
particular, the said moratorium throughout the reorganization,
dissolution or merger of the targeted state corporations should
be understood in the terms of SCAC’s said advisory thus:
a) It is not the intention of government to create human
resource capacity gaps and challenges in agencies that are
candidates for reform.
b) The object has however been to exercise caution while
recruiting to fill vacant posts in the support functions since
in the event of a merger, such functions could be unitary
and therefore bloated.
Page 40 of 48
c) There is no harm in state corporations targeted for reforms
undertaking the normal career progression for serving staff
as provided in the approved Human Resource (HR) Policy
and Procedures Manual to avoid stagnation and any
exposure to legitimate expectation.
d) There would be no material risk in granting the staff
appointed on contract, appointments that are for the
conventional duration (as stipulated by law or HR policy).
Such contracts should thus be for the conventional
duration or until the merger takes place, whichever is the
earlier. The contracts for Chief Executive Officers and
other senior management staff of the state corporations
targeted for reforms should also be well guided by the
same principle.
28. While making the foregoing finding the Court holds that
the said SCAC’s advisory and as upheld by the Court herein
soundly applies to past, current and future moratorium with
respect to the contemplated reforms in the state corporations or
other government or public agencies as may become necessary.
Page 41 of 48
That is more so because the Court holds that while government
is entitled to initiate and implement reform policies such as
merger, acquisition, divestment, dissolution, restructuring or
reorganizing state corporations or other government agencies
and departments, the same is subject to prevailing constitutional
and statutory provisions that guide or safeguard public
employment, and, is further subject recognition as well as
respecting the accrued rights of the affected public or state
employees. In addition, during such reforms public interest
should be upheld so that the affected state corporation or public
entity is enabled to continue the proper discharge of its mandate
until the reform initiative is subsequently fully realized.
29. In that regards, the submission made for the Attorney
General is upheld thus,
“28.Section 10(1) of the Anti-Counterfeit Act expressly vests
the power to appoint and reappoint the Executive Director in the
Board. This statutory power is clear, unconditional, and is not
made subject to any approval by HoPS or any other Executive
office. As held in Pevans East Africa Limited & another v
Page 42 of 48
Chairman Betting Control and Licensing Board & 7 others
[2017] KEHC 9684 (KLR),
“decision maker cannot be required to act against clear
provisions of a statute just to meet ones expectations otherwise
his decision would be out rightly illegal and a violation of the
principle of legality, a key principle in Rule of Law. There
cannot be legitimate expectation against the clear provisions of a
statute.” Therefore, the administrative requirement in the HoPS
Circular, which seeks to condition the Board's statutory power,
is subordinate to the Anti-Counterfeit Act and cannot be used to
invalidate a legally sound reappointment.
29.It is therefore our submission that the Petitioner's reliance on
circulars to impose a precondition not contemplated by
Parliament also violates the doctrine against fettering statutory
discretion. Parliament conferred upon the Board the authority to
appoint and reappoint the Executive Director. That power
cannot be curtailed, limited, conditioned, or made dependent
upon discretionary executive approvals that do not emanate
from statute. To insist on HoPS concurrence where the enabling
Page 43 of 48
statute, regulations, Mwongozo, and the State Corporations Act
are silent is to unlawfully create new legal requirements and
undermine the institutional autonomy of the Authority.”
30. To answer the 4th issue and as submitted for the 1st
respondent, the petitioner cannot shift her burden to adduce and
prove that which she alleges to the respondents. It was
submitted for the petitioner that the petitioner pleaded that there
was not contract of employment between the 1st and 2nd
respondents and whose tenure was 01.08.2025 to 31.08.2028
and that if any such contract existed, then it was null and void. It
is further submitted that the 1st and 2nd respondents have failed to
produce the contract of service which was to be in writing under
the Employment Act. Thus, it was urged, the failure to produce
the contract or letter of appointment in issue meant that the 1st
respondent has admitted that no such contract existed because
the burden is on the respondents per section 112 of the Evidence
Act that states, “In civil proceedings, when any fact is especially
within the knowledge of any party to those proceedings, the
burden of proving or disproving that fact is upon him.” For the
Page 44 of 48
1st respondent, it was submitted that it is one who alleges the
existence of a fact that must proof it per section 107 of the
Evidence. The 1st respondent relied upon Ben Chikamai &
another v Peter Macithi Muigai & 2 others [2020] KECA
625 (KLR) where the Court of Appeal (W. Ouko, (P), W.
Karanja &S ole Kantai JJ.A)n held thus,
“33. The appellant further posited that the Mwongozo was
inconsistent with existing laws, therefore, that it would be a
violation of such existing laws if the same were to be applied in
the re-appointment of the 1st appellant. It is trite that he who
alleges must prove. Section 107 of the Evidence Act is
instructive that it lies with the party who desires any Court to
give judgment as to any legal right or liability to show that the
facts which his case depends upon exist. The same principle of
law is echoed in the Halsbury’s Laws of England, 4th Edition,
Volume 17, at paras 13 and 14 where it describes it thus:
“The legal burden is the burden of proof which remains
constant throughout a trial; it is the burden of establishing the
facts and contentions which will support a party’s case. If at the
Page 45 of 48
conclusion of the trial he has failed to establish these to the
appropriate standard, he will lose.
14 The legal burden of proof normally rests upon the party
desiring the court to take action; thus a claimant must satisfy
the court or tribunal that the conditions which entitle him to an
award have been satisfied. In respect of a particular allegation,
the burden lies upon the party for whom substantiation of that
particular allegation is an essential of his case. There may
therefore be separate burdens in a case with separate issues.”
34. The appellants have not specifically pointed out which
provisions of the Mwongozo are inconsistent with the law.
Further, they have not demonstrated how such provisions of the
Mwongozo are inconsistent with the law if at all. Moreover, it is
evident that the implementation of the Mwongozo was to be in
tandem with existing laws but adhering to established
constitutional principles which the Mwongozo intended to be
aligned with.”
31. The Court is guided by the Court of Appeal and returns
that it was out of step with the law for the petitioner to shift the
Page 46 of 48
burden of proof to the respondents with respect to petitioner’s
alleged facts about the letter. If the letter was not in possession
of the the petitioner but in that of the respondents, it was for the
petitioner to serve an appropriate notice to produce per the
established production procedures. In any event and on a
balance of probability, the 1st and 2nd respondents have admitted
that the appointment letter or contract as the 2nd and final three
year term contract is in place effective 01.08.2025. it is the
Court’s finding that the petitioner filed the petition alleging
employment relationship between the parties that was not
compliant with policies in the circulars. The Court has found
that that allegation has been established in the negative because
the 1st and 2nd respondents have shown that the employment
relationship substantially complied with the applicable law and
circulars.
32. To answer the 5th issue, the Court returns that the petitioner has
failed to establish that the 1st and 2nd respondents violated the law,
circulars and the Constitution as was alleged. Accordingly, the
Court returns that the petitioner is not entitled to any of the reliefs
Page 47 of 48
as was prayed for. The petition is liable to dismissal as urged and
submitted for the respondents. The Court has considered that it was
a public interest litigation with a significant growth of
jurisprudence and each party to bear own costs of the proceedings.
In conclusion judgment is hereby entered for the respondents for
dismissal of the petitions and each party to bear own costs of the
petition.
Signed, dated and delivered by video-link and in court at Nairobi
this Wednesday 17th December, 2025.
BYRAM ONGAYA,
PRINCIPAL JUDGE
Page 48 of 48
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