Case Law[2025] ZAGPJHC 182South Africa
Martens v Sapor Rentals (Pty) Limited (2022/017041) [2025] ZAGPJHC 182 (24 February 2025)
High Court of South Africa (Gauteng Division, Johannesburg)
12 April 2023
Judgment
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# South Africa: South Gauteng High Court, Johannesburg
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## Martens v Sapor Rentals (Pty) Limited (2022/017041) [2025] ZAGPJHC 182 (24 February 2025)
Martens v Sapor Rentals (Pty) Limited (2022/017041) [2025] ZAGPJHC 182 (24 February 2025)
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sino date 24 February 2025
IN THE HIGH COURT OF
SOUTH AFRICA
(GAUTENG DIVISION,
JOHANNESBURG)
(1)
REPORTABLE:
NO
(2)
OF
INTEREST TO OTHER JUDGES: NO
(3)
REVISED.
24/02/2025
CASE
NO:
2022/017041
In the matter between:-
WALTER
ALEXANDER MARTENS
Applicant
and
SAPOR
RENTALS (PTY) LIMITED
Respondent
In re:
SAPOR
RENTALS (PTY) LIMITED
Plaintiff
and
WALTER
ALEXANDER MARTENS
Defendant
JUDGMENT
ALLEN AJ
INTRODUCTION
[1] The applicant
seeks the rescission and setting aside of a default judgment granted
against him on 9 November 2022 under
the above case number and the
applicant be granted leave to file his plea to the respondent’s
particulars of claim within
20 days of the granting of this order.
[2] The application
for rescission was launched 12 May 2023 after applicant became aware
of the default judgment on 12 April
2023. On 19 April 2023 applicant
requested respondent’s consent to rescind the default judgment
which consent was refused
on 20 April 2023. Respondent filed a notice
to oppose on 12 May 2023, answering affidavit on 5 June 2023 and
applicant filed a
replying affidavit on 20 June 2023.
RELEVANT
BACKGROUND FACTS
[3] Respondent
issued a summons against applicant in terms of an agreement whereby
applicant bound himself as
guarantor for a company known as P and D
Facades (Pty) Limited (P and D). The company is the principal debtor
in a master rental
agreement for certain goods. Applicant was a
director of P and D which went into voluntary liquidation. The
default judgment granted
against applicant was for the amount of R1
418 798.15 plus interest at the rate of prime plus 6% plus costs on
an attorney and
own client scale.
[4] The parties
filed a joint practice note and it is undisputed that applicant bound
himself as guarantor for P and D on
30 November 2020 in favour of the
respondent, although the type of agreement is disputed. It is also
undisputed that in terms of
the master rental agreement the
respondent purchased the goods from a supplier to rent it to P and D
on a monthly basis for a period
of 48 months from 5 December 2020. It
is also undisputed that P and D is in arrears.
[5] It is further
undisputed that respondent issued summons in the main action on 23
August 2022, obtained default judgment
on 9 November 2022 and that
the applicant became aware of the default judgment on 12 April 2023.
[6] It is also
undisputed that a misunderstanding occurred between the applicant and
his attorney, although the cause of the
misunderstanding is disputed.
ANALYSIS
[7] It is disputed
that the applicant showed good cause and a bona fide defence for the
rescission of the default judgment
granted.
[8] The applicant's
submissions are that he has a bona fide defence against the action
instituted by the respondent and was
not in wilful default.
[9] The
respondent’s submissions are that the applicant is in wilful
default as applicant had knowledge of the summons
and Rule 41A on 29
August 2022 (date of service), did not defend the matter and does not
provide any explanation for the delay
between 3 September 2022 and 1
December 2022 when applicant corresponded with his own attorneys.
[10] Respondent
further submit that it always remains the owner of the goods and that
P and D has no interest in the goods
after termination. The master
rental agreement also sets out the liability of P and D on breach of
the agreement and that the future
rentals are agreed liquidated
damages. As guarantor the applicant guaranteed the payment of the
monthly rentals of P and D. Should
P and D fail to make the necessary
payments, as such the applicant is liable for the payment of the
arrears and future rentals.
[11] Respondent
further submit that applicant did not plead or prove that the
Conventional Penalties Act No. 15 of 1962 (CPA)
applies which is one
of the grounds applicant relies on for his bona fide defence.
[12] Respondent
also submit that applicant has to prove that respondent has not
suffered any prejudice and that the applicant
is required to prove
that he will be able to satisfy the judgment at once which applicant
has not done.
[13] An application
for rescission of judgment can be brought under Rule 42(1) of the
Uniform Rules of Court, or Rule 31,
or in terms of the common law.
Applicant during argument confirmed that the application is under
Rule 31(2)(b) of the Uniform Rules
of Court.
DISCUSSION
Good Cause-Wilful
Default
[14]
The summons was served on applicant's chosen
domicilium
citandi et executandi
“
by
leaving a copy thereof to the outer gate”. Applicant admits
having received the summons. It is undisputed that he became
aware on
the day when service was effected.
[15] Applicant, on
2 September 2022, emailed the summons to his attorney Jordaan (first
firm of attorneys). The heading of
the email was “RULE 41A
NOTICE – SAPOR RENTALS”. In the email he requested the
attorney to “please advise
my course of action?”. The
email clearly was not an instruction to defend the matter, but to
seek advice. Jordaan, correctly
so, did not take any steps to defend
the matter. No affidavit of Jordaan was filed.
[16] Applicant, on
1 December 2022 at 09:39, requested an update from Jordaan “in
the above matter”. The heading
of this email was “P&D
FACADE PTY LTD – LIQUIDATION” and clearly not related to
the summons received or defending
the matter.
[17] Applicant, on
the same day at 09:33, emailed another attorney Van Niekerk of
another firm of attorneys (second firm of
attorneys) furnishing the
latter with information. This email was sent 6 minutes prior to the
email to Jordaan. This email was
also not an instruction to defend
and neither did it refer to any discussion in that regard.
[18] Applicant in
an email, dated 11 April 2023 at 10:28, to Van Niekerk thanked him
after having asked him to follow up on
a subpoena received by
Standard Bank in prior emails disclosed and referred to a
misunderstanding in the same sentence. The heading
of this email was
“Subpoena”. No inference can be made as to Van Niekerk’s
alleged instructions to defend.
[19] Applicant,
once aware of the “misunderstanding” instructed a third
firm of attorneys to enquire from respondent’s
attorneys “where
you are currently in the litigation process”. Attorney Fourie
from applicant’s attorneys of
record forwarded an email to
respondent on 11 April 2023 at 10:46. This all happened within 18
minutes after the email to Van Niekerk
regarding the subpoena.
[20] The applicant
has to show good cause meaning that wilful default has to be absent.
The correspondence does not come to
applicant’s assistance for
the delay of approximately eight months to counter wilful default.
[21] Applicant
timeously on 12 May 2023 launched this application.
[22]
The requirements for a rescission application in terms of Rule 31
[1]
are as stated in
Grant
v Plumbers (Pty) Ltd
1949
(2) SA 470
(O) at page 476-7
:
[22.1] “He
must give a reasonable explanation of his default. If it appears that
his default was wilful or that it
was due to gross negligence, the
Court should not come to his assistance.
[22.2] His
application must be bona fide and not made with the intention of
merely delaying plaintiff's claim.
[22.3] He must
show that he has a bona fide defence to plaintiff's claim. It is
sufficient if he makes out a
prima facie
defence in the sense
of setting out averments which, if established at the trial, would
entitle him to the relief asked for. He
need not deal fully with the
merits of the case and produce evidence that the probabilities are
actually in his favour”.
[23]
In
Silber vs Ozen Wholesalers (Pty)
Limited
1954(2)
SA 345 (A
) Schreiner JA stated on page
353: “
It is enough for present purposes to say that
the defendant must at least furnish an explanation of his default
sufficiently full
to enable the Court
to understand how it really came about, and to assess his conduct and
motives.
In considering whether this minimum has been shown by the
defendant I must express my disagreement with the view that this is
'a
simple case of a misunderstanding between a client and his
attorney'. There was no proof of misunderstanding….”
[24]
An application which fails to set out these reasons is not proper
[2]
,
but where the reasons appear clearly, the fact that they are not set
out in so many words, will not disentitle the applicant to
the relief
sought
[3]
.
[25] In
Nale
Trading CC v Freyssinet Posten (Pty) Ltd In re: Freyssinet
Posten (Pty) Ltd v Nale (Pty) Ltd
(unreported, GJ case no
26992/2019 dated 22 September 2021)
it was stated in paragraph
[15] “
Before a person can be said to be in wilful default,
the following elements must be shown:
(a) knowledge
that the action is being brought against him;
(b) a deliberate
refraining from entering an appearance, though free to do so; and
(c)
a certain mental attitude towards the consequences of the
default
”
[4]
.
[26]
All three elements must be established before the party can be said
to have been in wilful default. The onus of proof
rests ultimately on
the respondent
[5]
. In this
matter, applicant does have knowledge of the action, did not enter an
appearance to defend and has not given a satisfactory
explanation for
his default in entering an appearance to defend. His explanation is
premised on a “misunderstanding”
(with only the second
firm of attorneys) which is not corroborated by the evidence
proffered of what transpired over a period of
approximately eight
months.
Good Cause-Bona Fide
Defence
[27] Applicant
raised a defence by relying on Section 3 of the Conventional
Penalties Act 15 of 1962 which reads as follows:
“
Reduction
of excessive penalty, if upon the hearing of a claim for a penalty,
it appears to the Court that such penalty is out of
proportion to the
prejudice suffered by the creditor by reason of the act or omission
in respect of which the penalty was stipulated
by the Court may
reduce the penalty to such extent as it may consider equitable in the
circumstances: provided that in determining
the extent of such
prejudice the Court shall take into consideration not only the
creditor's proprietary interest, but every other
rightful interest
which may be affected by the act or omission in question
.”
[28] Applicant
intends to raise it as a defence in the action and alleges that same
is substantial. Applicant did not elaborate
on the alleged
proportions of prejudice suffered or rightful interest which may be
affected other than to refer to the relevant
clause of the agreement
and respondent’s duty to mitigate its damages.
[29]
In
NATIONAL
SORGHUM BREWERIES LTD (t/a VIVO AFRICAN BREWERIES) v INTERNATIONAL
LIQUOR DISTRIBUTORS (PTY) LTD
[2000] ZASCA 159
;
2001
(2) SA 232
(SCA)
Olivier
JA stated on page 241 “
[8]
It follows that, although the forfeiture clause in Shembe arose,
as it inevitably must, from the contract between
the parties,
its raison d'être and validity are to be found in the
damage suffered by the creditor. To emphasise
the point: in order to
reduce the amount of the forfeiture, the actual prejudice suffered by
the creditor must be proved by the
debtor - see
Smit
v Bester
1977
(4) SA 937 (A)
at
942H;
Magna
Alloys and Research (SA) (Pty) Ltd v Ellis
[1984] ZASCA 116
;
1984
(4) SA 874
(A)
at B 906E;
Chrysafis
and Others v Katsapas
1988
(4) SA 818 (A)
at
828I; and see A J Kerr The Principles of the Law of Contract 4th
ed at 602” and
“
[9] It follows
that, although a claim for forfeiture arises ex contractu, its
essence and function is to compensate the creditor
for prejudice
(including damage) suffered by it. From this it would follow
that, if a creditor relies in an action on a forfeiture
clause, it
cannot again in a later action claim for damages: the 'thing' claimed
and the cause of action for both claims are similar
and has already
been finalised”.
[30]
In
Steinberg
v Lazard
[6]
the SCA followed the
National
Sorghum Breweries
case.
[31] It is
undisputed that P and D defaulted in terms of clause 8 of the
agreement and respondent elected to exercise its
rights in terms of
clause 8.3 to terminate the agreement, take possession of the goods,
retain all amounts already paid and claim
all outstanding arrear
rentals as agreed pre-estimated liquid damages the aggregate of the
rentals for the initial rental period.
[32] It is
applicant’s case during argument that respondent’s
mitigation of damages entails deduction of the value
of the goods
sold from the amount claimed. Applicant was invited to proffer case
law to substantiate, but was unable to do so.
The amount claimed
include arrears and future rental. Applicant admitted that the
application is defective in that the proceeds
should not be deducted
from the arrears, but only the future rental and default judgment
should be only partially rescinded in
respect of the future rental
which is not applicant’s case. The arrears amount has
substantially increased to date and remains
outstanding. The
agreement, if not cancelled, would have run out 4 December 2024 and
to the extent no future rental remains to
be considered.
[33] It is
respondent’s case that it is only a rental agreement and need
not deal with the goods. The purchase of the
goods by respondent in
terms of a purchase agreement with a supplier and the renting out of
the same goods in terms of a rental
agreement between respondent and
P and D is not related to each other and a negative inference should
not be made that respondent’s
intention was to receive the
rental
in lieu
of the goods purchased and the possibility of a
“rent to buy” agreement is excluded.
[34] On
respondent’s version he purchased the goods and rented it out
and remains the owner of the goods. Respondent's
prejudice lies in
the purchase of the goods. I cannot disagree.
[35] In the
circumstances applicant has not shown good cause why the default
judgment should be rescinded and set aside.
[36]
In the case of
Pendigo Trade and
Investment (Pty) Limited t/a ITEC Finance vs Suzanne Michelle
Potgieter
(9928/2022)
[2023] ZAWCHC
114
(22 May 2023) it was stated as follows: “
[21] The
wording of s 3 can be construed to the effect that its provisions may
be applied by the court suo motu. It has
been remarked in that
regard that the provision not only invests the court with a power to
make an equitable order but also imposes
a duty upon it to do so when
a penalty appears to it out of proportion in the sense contemplated.
Not having had the benefit of
argument on the point,
I
have assumed for the purposes of this judgment that the authorities
that have construed s 3 of the Conventional Penalties Act
to impose a
duty on the court in appropriate cases to apply the provision mero
motu, which appears to imply an inquisitorial
approach, were
correctly decided. That construction is, however, not easy to
reconcile with the appeal court authority referred
to later in this
judgment that has held that s 3 places a true onus on a debtor
seeking to mitigate the effect of a penalty stipulation
to prove
that
the penalty is disproportionate to the prejudice suffered and to what
extent, which appears to imply a strictly adversarial
approach.
[22] In
the current matter the extent of the penalty does not appear to me,
on the face of it, to be out of proportion. It
equates, subject to
the effect of any mitigatory measures that the plaintiff might
reasonably be expected to avail of, to the sum
that the plaintiff,
absent the penalty stipulation, would have been able to claim by way
of general contractual damages, viz. the
amount necessary to put the
plaintiff, in monetary terms, in the position it would have been if
the principal debtor had not breached
the contract”.
[37] In the matter
before me the extent of the penalty does not appear to me, on the
face of it, to be out of proportion either.
The goods were returned
to respondent by the liquidator of P and D, was of value, and was
sold by respondent. In addition, respondent
did not have to tender
the goods to applicant as an option to mitigate its damages, since it
was a rental agreement only. In other
words, in my view, the penalty
in this matter is not disproportionate to the prejudice suffered by
respondent as he would have
been in the same position had P and D not
breached the agreement.
[38]
In the matter of
Premier
Finance Corporation (Pty) Ltd v Rotainers (Pty) Ltd and Another
1975
(1) SA 79
(W)
the court held on page 83 and 84: “
Relying
on the decision reported as
Claude
Neon Lights (S. A.) Ltd. v Schlemmer
,
1974
(1) SA 143
(N)
,
he argued that it would be unfair to defendants to allow plaintiff to
receive in one sum an amount which, had the contract
run its
full length, it would have received over a period of years, without
the allowance of a discount.
I would respectfully
venture to express this criticism of the decision in the Claude
Neon case that it proceeds on the
assumption, which on the facts
as set out in the judgment does not appear to be justified, that
the judgment will be satisfied
as soon as it is delivered or as soon
as execution is levied. If in fact the defendant is found to be
unable to satisfy the judgment
and the judgment creditor has to go
through the time-consuming process of taking payment in instalments,
then the consideration
which prompted the Court to allow a discount
on the plaintiff's claim falls away.
Similar considerations
seem to me to be present in the present case. I do not know whether
the judgment can or will be satisfied
at once, and, in the absence of
some indication that it will be, I do not find a sufficient basis to
grant leave to defend so that
defendant can claim a discount. As I
have said, this defence has no basis in the answering affidavit. Nor
was anything said in
the affidavit concerning the extent to
which the claim should be discounted - if it is to be discounted at
all - and in this respect
too I have nothing before me on the
strength of which I can grant leave to defend, or by virtue of which
I can decree an abatement
of plaintiff's claim”.
[39] Applicant has
not shown whether he will be able to satisfy the judgment, or any
portion thereof, at once. Applicant’s
reliance on an abatement
in respect of the arrears is also ill-founded.
[40]
Having regard to what I have already set out above in respect
of the applicant’s good cause, I am satisfied that the
applicant
has not met the requirement of showing good cause.
Applicant is in wilful default, has not set out a bona fide
defence, even
on a prima facie basis, and is accordingly
not entitled to rescission in terms of Rule 31(2)(b).
ORDER
[41] In the result
the following order is made:
1. The application
for rescission of judgment is dismissed.
2. Applicant to pay
the costs on an attorney and own client scale.
ALLEN AJ
ACTING JUDGE OF THE
HIGH COURT
GAUTENG DIVISION,
JOHANNESBURG
This
judgment was prepared by Acting Judge Allen. It is handed down
electronically by circulation to the parties or their legal
representatives by email, by uploading to the electronic file of this
matter on Caselines, and by publication of the judgment to
the South
African Legal Information Institute. The date for hand-down is deemed
to be 24 February 2025.
HEARD
ON:
19 February 2025
DECIDED
ON:
24 February 2025
For
the Applicant:
Adv A Du Plessis
Instructed by JNS
Attorneys
For
the Respondent:
Adv JJ Durandt
Instructed
by Jay Mothobi Inc
[1]
Uniform
Rules of Court page D1-366
[2]
Marais
vs Mdowen
1919 OPD 34
[3]
Cf
Behncke vs Winter
1925 SWA 59
[4]
See
Uniform Rules of Court page D1-367
[5]
Silber
v Ozen
supra
at 352 G-H
[6]
2006
(5) SA 42
(SCA) page 46, paragraph 10.
See also
South
Cape Corporation (Pty) Ltd v Management Services (Pty) Ltd
1977
(3) SA 534 (A)
at 548.
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