Case Law[2023] ZAGPJHC 1487South Africa
Tshenodi and Others v Road Accident Fund (2019/11156; 2020/05922; 2019/28478) [2023] ZAGPJHC 1487 (17 January 2023)
High Court of South Africa (Gauteng Division, Johannesburg)
17 January 2023
Judgment
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# South Africa: South Gauteng High Court, Johannesburg
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## Tshenodi and Others v Road Accident Fund (2019/11156; 2020/05922; 2019/28478) [2023] ZAGPJHC 1487 (17 January 2023)
Tshenodi and Others v Road Accident Fund (2019/11156; 2020/05922; 2019/28478) [2023] ZAGPJHC 1487 (17 January 2023)
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sino date 17 January 2023
REPUBLIC
OF SOUTH AFRICA
IN
THE HIGH COURT OF SOUTH AFRICA,
GAUTENG
LOCAL DIVISION, JOHANNESBURG
CASE NO.
2019/11156
CASE
NO. 2020/05922
CASE
NO. 2019/28478
TSHENODI
PHUMZILE APPLICANT
MOHOSOANE
KANANELO
APPLICANT
MASILOLA MBALI
PETUNIA
APPPLICANT
And
ROAD ACCIDENT
FUND
RESPONDENT
Judgment
Thupaatlase AJ
Introduction
[1]
The three matters were placed on the interlocutory application roll
and in each case the defendant is the Road Accident Fund
(RAF). The
plaintiffs are claimants in terms of the Road Accident Act. The
common relief sought by each of the plaintiff was to
strike out the
defence of the defendant for its alleged failure to comply with the
respective orders by Keighley J issued on 01
June 2023.
[2]
Plaintiffs seeks to strike out the defence of the defendant as they
allege that the defendant has failed to file notice in terms
of Rule
36(1) & (2) and also failure to attend a pretrial hearing. The
basis of the relief sought was that the defendant had
failed to
comply with order granted by the court.
[3]
The applications to strike out the defences were brought under Rule
35 (7) read together with Rule 30A. It is to be noted that
the
purpose of the latter rule is to compel compliance with the rules
where a party has failed to take required procedural step.
Rule 30A
is a general rule to ensure compliance.
[4]
In the first matter of
Tshenoli v RAF
the application was
based on the alleged non-compliance with the court order. The court
order was couched in the following terms:
1.
The Respondent/Defendant is to make arrangement within 15 days of the
order being served on the Respondent/Defendant to have
the
Applicant/Plaintiff examined by the Occupational Therapist.
1.1.
the arrangements must take the form of delivery of a written notice
in terms of rule 36(1) and (2);
1.2
the Notice shall specify the nature of the examination require, the
person or persons by whom, the place and date (being no
less than
fifteen days from the date of such notice) and time when it is
desired that such examination shall take place.
2.
The defendant is to attend pre-trial conference with the plaintiff as
contemplated in Rule 37 of the Uniform Rules virtually
at 11h00 on 21
July 2023.
3.
The signed pre-trial minute shall be filed on or before the 15 days
if no consensus can be reached as to the content of the minute,
the
plaintiff and defendant are to file separate minutes. The order also
stipulated the manner in which it was to be served and
costs were
awarded against the respondent.
[5]
In the matter of
Mohasoane
it was prayed that the
respondent’s defence be struck out and respondent barred from
serving any expert notice in this matter
unless the trial court
ordered otherwise. The applicant also sought leave to approach the
registrar of this court for an allocation
of a date in the default
judgment roll. The applicant also prayed for costs. The application
was based on the alleged failure by
the respondent to comply with the
order of court dated 11 July 2023. The order was similarly worded as
the order in the matter
of
Tshenodi
.
In order to
avoid prolixity, the court will not repeat the order verbatim.
[6] The third matter is
the case of
Masilola
. The application was also brought
in terms of Rule 37(7) and read with Rule 30A. According to the
affidavit, the applicant alleges
that the respondent has failed to
comply with the order of this court dated 11 July 2023. In terms of
the order the respondent
was ordered to make an election whether to
use the applicant’s experts as joint experts. In the event that
the respondent
elected to use its experts to make arrangements and
deliver a notice in terms of rule 36(1) and (2). As already stated,
the orders
are similarly worded.
Issues
in dispute
[7]
The question this Court must determine whether it is competent to
strike out a defence entered by the respondent where the respondent
has failed to comply with the court order compelling respondent to
either make an election to appoint its own medico-legal experts
or to
indicate if it intends to do so and will rely on the medico-legal
reports of the applicant. In other words, does Uniform
rule 36
obligate a respondent to appoint medico-legal experts and file
reports and summaries. The plaintiffs seek to strike out
the
defendant’s defences in each of the cases cited above for such
failure.
[8]
The applications were opposed. The crux of the opposition is premised
in an earlier decision of
Legaole Kagiso Sonnyboy v RAF
(2019/31546; 2019/31545; 2019/29804) [ 2020] ZAGPJHC (3 June 2020)
where the court stated at para 6 that’ It cannot be said
that a
defendant who fails to give notice of his intention to call an expert
witness does not comply with Rule 36. There is no
obligation on a
defendant to call expert witnesses. All uniform rules provide is
that, in the event the defendant opting to call
expert witnesses, the
procedure outlined in that uniform rule 36(9) should be followed’.
[9]
The
Legaole
decision also dealt with the background that
resulted in litigants embarking on these types of applications. The
court stated that
all these applications are based on rule 36(9A) (a)
which came into effect during July 2019. The rule encourages parties
to the
litigation to attempt to endeavour as possible.
[10]
The respondents argued that based on the above decision there was no
basis in law for the defendants’ defences to be
struck out due
to failure to appoint an expert or failure to attend a pre-trial
conference. It is apparent that the respondent
is basing its opposing
on a different a rule than one which was dealt with in the above
quoted case.
[11]
The facts in the
Legaole
are clearly distinguishable
from the facts before this court. It is clear in all three matters
the court has granted orders to
compel compliance with the rule. It
is not for this court to question the legality or otherwise of that
decision. The fact of the
matter is that the respondent has in all
these three matters failed to comply with the order of court. An
attempt to try and challenge
that court order by invoking a different
rule cannot be countenanced.
Nature
of the application
[12]
According to the applicants these applications are in terms of rule
35 (7) read with rule 30A. Rule 35(7) provides that ‘
(7) If
any party fails to give discovery as aforesaid or, having been served
with a notice under subrule (6), omits to give notice
of a time for
inspection as aforesaid or fails to give inspection as required by
that subrule, the party desiring discovery or
inspection may apply to
a court, which may order compliance with this rule and, failing such
compliance, may dismiss the claim
or strike out the defence. It clear
that rule 35 deals with Discovery, Inspection and Production of
Documents.
[13]
Rule 30A provides ‘30A Non-compliance with rules:
‘
(1)
Where a party fails to comply with these Rules or with a request made
or notice given pursuant thereto, any other party may
notify the
defaulting party that he or she intends, after the lapse of 10 days,
to apply for an order that such rule, notice, or
request be complied
with or that the claim or defence be struck out.
(2)
Failing compliance within 10 days, application may on notice be made
to the court and the court may make such order thereon
as to it seems
meet’.
[14]
The cases of
Mohasoane
and
Masilola
the
orders related to the requirements of Rule 36 are to be satisfied.
The case of
Tshenodi
related to the failure to attend a
pre-trial conference. As I have already indicated the order are
sought as the respondent has
failed to comply with an order of court.
The
Legal Principles
[15]
The rule that the respondent is alleged to have failed to comply with
is rule 36. The purpose of the rule was discussed in
the case of
DURBAN CITY COUNCIL v MNDOVU
1966 (2) SA 319
(D) as
follows: ‘As I interpret the Rule, not only in relation to a
medical examination required in terms of subrule
(1) but as a
whole, it is mainly designed to avoid a litigant being taken by
surprise in relation to matters with respect to which
he would in the
normal course of events be unable, before trial, to prepare his case
effectively so as to meet that of his opponent.
Subrule (1) Rule
36 confers a right, albeit a qualified right, upon the party against
whom the claim is made, but in no sense
can it be said to confer any
right upon the claimant. The right thus created is subject to
compliance with subrule (2), and
also to the right of the
claimant to object in terms of subrule (3). Subrule (6) and
(7) have the dual purpose of informing
an adversary in advance of
evidence relating to immovable things, so as to acquaint him with the
evidence which might be led in
relation thereto, and to dispense,
possibly, with the need of formal proof. The same applies to subrule
(10). Subrule
(9) is in my view primarily designed to avoid a
party being met with surprise by expert evidence produced against him
at the hearing’.
[16]
The principle was reinforced in the decision of
COOPERS (SOUTH
AFRICA) (PTY) LTD v DEUTSCHE GESELLSCHAFT FÜR
SCHÄDLINGSBEKÄMPFUNG MBH
1976 (3) SA 352
(A
) at
page 3711 where the court held: ‘In deciding whether there has
been due compliance with subrule (9) (b), it is,
in my opinion,
relevant to have regard to the main purpose thereof, which is to
require the party intending to call a witness to
give expect evidence
to give the other party such information about his evidence as will
remove the element of surprise, which
in earlier times (regarded as
an element afforcing a tactical advantage) frequently caused delays
in the conduct of trials. Indeed,
all the subrules of Rule 36
were formulated with that purpose in mind. Consequently, when
summarising the facts or data on
which the expert witness premises
his opinions, the draughtsman should ensure that no information is
omitted, where the omission
thereof might lead to the other side
being taken by surprise when in due course such information is
adduced in cross-examination
or evidence’.
[17]
It is therefore clear that rule 36 is designed to ensure that In
deciding whether there has been due compliance with Rule 36
(9) (b)
it is relevant to have regard to the main purpose thereof, which is
to require the party intending to call a witness to
give expert
evidence to give the other party such information about his evidence
as will remove the element of surprise, which
in earlier , in order
to enable a party to present its pleaded case more adequately and to
promote the smooth running of the case
to its final determination.
[18]
The rule as it stands does not provide for a remedy to strike out a
defence. The hurdle that a party who is found to be non-compliant
with rule 36 is that a party will be prevented from calling such an
expert witness, except were it would be allowed by a court.
[19]
In
ABSA Bank Ltd v The Farm Klippan
490 CC 5 5
2000 (2)
SA 211
(W) at 215 A – B the Court made it clear that if a
provision in the rules provides a specific remedy for non-compliance
with
the rule, a party need only follow the specific rule and need
not give notice in terms of, or follow, Rule 30A.
[16]
The in
Harms
, Civil Procedure in the Supreme Court: LexisNexis
provides that: “The rule applies only if compliance with the
rules is sought
and then only if the relevant rule does not have its
own inbuilt procedure such as rule 21(4), which provides for an
enforcement
procedure in the event of a failure to provide
particulars for trial. ... Under rule 30A, a party making a request,
or giving a
notice, to which there is no response by the other party,
may through a further notice to the other party warn that after the
lapse
of 10 days, application will be made for an order that the
notice or request be complied with, or that the claim or defence be
struck out, as the case may be. Failing compliance within the 10 days
mentioned, application may then be made to court and the court
may
make an appropriate order.”
[20]
It has been held that the subrule confers a discretion on the court
which, it is submitted, must be exercised judicially
on a proper
consideration of all the relevant circumstances. Striking out a claim
or defence is a drastic remedy and, accordingly,
the court must be
appraised of sufficient facts on the basis of which it could exercise
its discretion in favour of such an order.
Consequently, the
necessary affidavits in support of and opposing such relief should be
delivered. Relevant factors will include
(a) the reasons for
noncompliance with the rules, request, notice, order, or
direction concerned and, in this regard, whether
the defaulting party
has recklessly disregarded his obligations; (b) whether the
defaulting party’s case appears to
be hopeless; and (c)
whether the defaulting party does not seriously intend to proceed.
In addition, prejudice
to either party is a relevant factor.
See
Helen Suzman Foundation v Judicial Service Commission
2018
(4) SA 1
(CC) at 31F–G;
[20]
The requirements are clear that the order must have been made by a
court. It is not in dispute that in all three cases the
orders were
granted by a court. it is also true that the respondent failed to
comply with the orders so granted. The court was
satisfied that there
was non-compliance with the rules and thus granted the order.
Conclusion
[21]
I am satisfied that the applicants are entitled approach this court
for relief been sought. The applicants armed with the court
order
obtained and they have demonstrated that the respondent has failed to
comply with such order. I am therefore rule 30A finds
application.
Order
[22]
Application is hereby granted.
________________________________
THUPAATLASE AJ
HIGH COURT ACTING
JUDGE
GAUTENG LOCAL DIVISION
Date
of Hearing: 09 October 2023
Judgment
Delivered: 17 January 2023
For
the Applicant: Ms LR Molope-Madondo
Instructed by: Sepamla
Attorneys
For
the Respondent: Mr L Klaas
Mr
D Sodlani
Ms
S Ameersingh
Instructed
by: State Attorneys
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