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# South Africa: South Gauteng High Court, Johannesburg
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## FirstRand Bank Limited v Badenhorst NO and Others (2022/5936)
[2023] ZAGPJHC 779 (10 July 2023)
FirstRand Bank Limited v Badenhorst NO and Others (2022/5936)
[2023] ZAGPJHC 779 (10 July 2023)
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sino date 10 July 2023
IN THE HIGH
COURT OF SOUTH AFRICA
GAUTENG LOCAL DIVISION,
JOHANNESBURG
CASE NO.: 2022/5936
NOT REPORTABLE
NOT OF INTEREST TO OTHER JUDGES
REVISED
In the matter between:
FIRSTRAND
BANK LIMITED
Applicant
And
BADENHORST,
JOHANNES JACOBUS N.O.
First
Respondent
O’NEIL,
QUINTON ROWAN N.O.
Second
Respondent
CITY
OF JOHANNESBURG METROPOLITAN MUNICIPALITY
Third
Respondent
In
Re
FIRSTRAND
BANK LIMITED
Plaintiff
And
BADENHORST,
JOHANNES JACOBUS N.O.
First
Defendant
O’NEIL,
QUINTON ROWAN N.O.
Second
Defendant
CITY
OF JOHANNESBURG METROPOLITAN MUNICIPALITY
Third
Defendant
JUDGMENT
Q LEECH AJ
1.
I received the file
in this application for summary judgment at the end of a motion court
week on the day prior to the hearing.
This case delivered the
expectation in
Propell
Specialised Finance (Pty) Ltd v Point Bay Body Corporate SS493/2008
and Another,
[1]
that, "the
papers in opposed summary judgment applications may now be expected
to often be more voluminous than used to be
the case”, and the
prediction by the authors of Erasmus, Superior Court Practice,
[2]
that, ”[r]ule
32 in its amended form … will probably increase the workload
of judges as well as the costs for parties.”
[3]
The difficulties
experienced by practitioners in understanding the requirements of the
amended rule 32 resulted, in this matter,
in papers in excess of 950
pages. The majority of the material consists of annexures to
pleadings and affidavits in the summary
judgment application. The
summary judgment application papers alone are over 600 pages. The
attachments to the affidavits supporting
and opposing summary
judgment include the papers in another summary judgment application,
and a full set of affidavits and the
judgment in a previous
application between the parties. The approach I should adopt to this
material is unsettled. As stated in
Tumileng
Trading CC v National Security and Fire (Pty) Ltd,
[4]
“
[i]t is …
not self-evident how the courts are expected to deal with the extra
material, in many cases disputatious material,
that will now be put
before them in such applications, in determining whether a defendant
has shown that it has a
bona
fide
defence.
”
[5]
Counsel adopted
markedly different approaches. Counsel for the applicant submitted
that there was no authority which precluded the
additional
material
.
Counsel for the respondents submitted that the additional material
should be ignored.
The affidavits
2.
The affidavits in
this matter strain the meaning to be attributed to the requirements
of rule 32. Rule 32(4) states that, “[n]o
evidence may be
adduced by the plaintiff otherwise than by the affidavit referred to
in subrule (2)”. Rule 32(2)(b) requires
that plaintiffs,
“verify the cause of action”,
“
identify
… the facts upon which the plaintiff
’
s
claim is based, and explain briefly why the defence as pleaded does
not raise any issue for trial.” Rule 32(3)(b requires
that
defendants, “disclose fully the nature and grounds of the
defence and the material facts relied upon therefor.“
3.
The amendment to
rule 32 was preceded by an investigation by the s
uperior
courts
task team of the r
ules
board
for courts of l
aw.
The task team
recommended and motivated the amendment in a memorandum. The
memorandum of the task team, as quoted in
Erasmus
supra
,
[6]
indicates that to a
certain degree the inclusion of evidence is permitted in the
affidavit supporting the summary judgment application.
In
para. 8.1
of
the memorandum the task team states, referring to the rule prior to
amendment, that, “[a] plaintiff at present does not
have to
indicate what exactly its cause of action is, or what facts it relies
on, or why a defendant does not have a defence.”
Although I
disagree with aspects of this statement, paragraph 8.1, read with the
paragraphs that follow, indicates an intention
to provide an
opportunity to plaintiffs to bolster the prospect of obtaining
summary judgment. Para. 8.1.3 includes the statement
that, “[t]he
lack of specificity as to the plaintiff's claim, … coupled
with the absence of any replying affidavit,
also means that the
plaintiff can easily be frustrated by a defendant who is prepared to
construct or contrive a defence …”.
And, para. 8.3
states that under the amended rule,
“…
the
plaintiff would be able to explain briefly in its founding affidavit
why the defences proffered by the defendant do not raise
a triable
issue … Requiring the plaintiff to set out why, in its view,
it has a valid claim and why the defendant's defence
is
unsustainable, would also remove the criticism that the defendant is
being required to commit itself to a version when the plaintiff
is
not similarly burdened. Obliging the plaintiff to engage meaningfully
with the case in its founding affidavit would moreover
have the added
benefit of reducing the temptation for a plaintiff to seek summary
judgment as a tactical move (and as a way of
forcing the defendant to
commit to a version on oath, which can be subsequently used in cross-
examination to discredit a witness
of the defendant).”
4.
In para. 8.4, the
task team expressed the hope that the debate in summary judgment
applications would, as a result, be “more
informed, and less
artificial, … and engage with the real issues in the matter”.
In motivating against a replying
affidavit, the task team stated in
para. 8.6 that, “[a] plaintiff would have had a chance to
address the averments in the
defendant's plea in its founding
affidavit in support of summary judgment. If the defendant has a
further rebuttal in its answering
affidavit, then, if that is
credible, the summary judgment application would be defeated”.
5.
In summary, the
task team indicated that the problems with the rule prior to
amendment included
inter
alia a
plaintiff
being unable to set out, “exactly its cause of action”,
“what facts it relies on”,
“
specificity
as to the … claim
”
,
“
why a
defendant does not have a defence” and the reasons why the
defence was constructed or contrived, and the inability to
expose
“bogus defences”. The purpose of the amendment was to
address these problems. The task team envisaged that the
amended rule
would require plaintiffs to set out a version on oath and the reasons
why the defence does not raise a triable issue
and is unsustainable,
and to address the averments in the plea. This indicates an intention
to permit more than the mere repetition
or referencing of the facts
contained in the particulars of claim or declaration.
6.
The rule prior to
amendment required plaintiffs to verify the cause of action and state
an opinion that there is no
bona
fide
defence.
In comparison, the amendment specifically requires plaintiffs to
“
verify
the cause of action
”
,
“
identify
the facts upon which the claim … is based
”
and
“
explain
… why the defence … does not raise any issue for
trial
”
.
The additional requirements would be rendered superfluous and the
amendment, ineffective by attributing to all the words used
in the
amendment a meaning that practically has the same content as the rule
prior to the
amendment.
7.
The rule prior and
post the amendment required plaintiffs to verify the cause of action.
The cause of action consists of the facts
required for judgment, not
the evidence
.
[7]
A formulaic
verification of the cause of action was accepted by our courts prior
to the amendment. The deponent verified the cause
of action by
referring to the facts alleged in the summons, particulars of claim
or declaration. The deponent did not have to repeat
the facts
.
[8]
In
All
Purpose Space Heating Co of SA (Pty) Ltd v Schweltzer
,
[9]
the court held
that,
“
[S]uch an
affidavit must verify all the facts supporting the cause of action.
This includes every element of the cause of action.
… In my
view, it is permissible for a plaintiff in an affidavit filed in
support of a summary judgment application, to incorporate
by
reference only the allegations contained in his summons.”
[10]
For example, in
Maharaj v Barclays
National Bank Ltd
,
[11]
the deponent said,
“I hereby verify the cause of action as set forth in the
summons and pray that same be read as if incorporated
herein”,
without any adverse comment, and in
Van
den Bergh v Weiner
,
[12]
the statement that,
“the first defendant is truly and lawfully indebted to the
plaintiff on the grounds as set out in the
summons”, was held
to be in substantial compliance with the requirement prior to
amendment.
8.
The task team was
aware of this
interpretation
and the formulaic manner of its application prior to the amendment,
and considered it to be unsatisfactory, as indicated
in the
memorandum. The requirement to verify the cause of action, and with
it the established interpretation, was nevertheless
retained and the
amendment sought to address,
“
the
problems with the formulaic nature of the founding affidavit
”
,
through the introduction of the requirements to identify the facts
and explain why the defence does not raise an issue for trial.
These
new requirements replaced the requirement to express an opinion that
there is no
bona
fide
defence.
This indicates that the statement of an opinion, without the facts on
which the opinion was founded, was considered to
be inadequate. The
amendment expressly requires the facts and an explanation.
9.
The additional
requirement to identify the facts upon which the plaintiff
’
s
claim is based has been interpreted as a reference to the facts set
out in the particulars of claim or declaration. As a result,
the
authors of Erasmus say that
the
requirement to identify the facts, “seems to require that such
facts must indeed be repeated in the affidavit or, at least,
must be
identified with cross-reference to the facts set out in the
declaration or particulars of claim.” This appears to
have been
accepted in
Absa
Bank Limited v Mphahlele N.O and Others,
[13]
where it is quoted
without disapproval, and near identical statements are found in
Standard
Bank of South Africa Limited and Another v Five Strand Media (Pty)
Ltd and Others,
[14]
and in
Saglo
Auto (Pty) Ltd v Black Shades Investments (Pty) Ltd,
[15]
which repeats
verbatim the corresponding section of the judgment in
Five
Strand Media supra.
The
particulars of claim and declaration should set out the facts
required for judgment and should not contain evidence
.
[16]
In other words, the
facts which should be identified by repetition or referencing are
those, and only those, that constitute the
cause of action. In
maintaining this interpretation, the court in
Five
Strand Media,
held
that the requirement to identify the facts on which the claim is
based does not require plaintiffs, “to amplify the cause
of
action as set out in the particulars of claim
”
.
[17]
ABSA Bank
Limited v Mashinini N.O and Another,
[18]
contains a similar
statement and accordingly in
Tumileng
supra,
the
court held that, “[n]o purpose will be served by a laborious
repetition of what the judge and the defendant should be
able to
discern independently from the pleaded claim.” However, in this
instance, the applicant has not done so. The applicant
has included
in the supporting affidavit, evidence upon which the claim is based
or which explains why the defences raised in the
plea are not
bona
fide
.
10.
In
Morgan
Cargo (Pty) Ltd v Zakharov
,
[19]
the court found
that “identify” can mean “select for analysis”
and held that, “the selection can only
be from the facts
already set out as envisaged in Rule 18(4).” The court does not
explain the reasons why the plaintiffs’
pleadings are the only
source from which the facts upon which the claim is based may be
selected, and why plaintiffs are not entitled
to select facts from a
broader range of available sources. The language used by the court
indicates that plaintiffs are permitted
to identify the facts set out
in a replication where one is delivered. (See for example
Ingenuity
Property Investments (Pty) Ltd v Ignite Fitness (Pty) Ltd.
)
[20]
There is no
appreciable reason why the facts to be set out in a replication yet
to be delivered cannot be set out in the supporting
affidavit. The
court suggests that
“
amplify
”
would have been
used if the addition of further details to the statement of material
facts was intended. A number of other words
could be suggested.
However, the word “identify” does not clearly exclude any
other interpretation. Another dictionary
meaning is, “[e]stablish
the identity of”,
[21]
the facts upon
which the claim is based and the synonyms, among many, include:
remember, recall and recollect.
[22]
None of the
meanings indicate the source of the facts, and particularly none
indicate that the source is limited.
11.
In any event, in
South
African Nursing Council v Khanyisa Nursing School (Pty) Ltd and
another,
[23]
the Supreme Court
of Appeal cautioned that,
“
[T]he
lawyer's reverence for dictionaries has limits. As this Court has
observed, to stare blindly at the words used seldom suffices
to yield
their meaning in a statute or contract. … There is no
straightforward attribution of a dictionary meaning of a
word as the
word's ordinary meaning so as to construe a statute, subordinate
legislation or a contract. The dictionary meaning
of a word will
often give rise to further questions … And the different
shades of meaning with which a word has been used,
over time, quite
often lead to selectivity bias. That is to say, the interpreter
chooses the dictionary meaning that best suits
the preferred outcome
of the case, rather than the meaning that shows the greatest fidelity
to the meaning that best fits what
has been written, given what we
know as to the institutional originator of the words, what the words
are used for, and the larger
design of the instrument we are called
upon to interpret.”
[24]
12.
As intimated above,
I have my doubts whether the requirement to identify the facts upon
which the claim is based, refers only to
the facts constituting the
cause of action. I appreciate that there is no apparent difference in
the language used in rules 17(2)(a)
and 20(2), read with 18(4), and
that used in rule 32(2)(b). However, the suggestion in some
authorities that a requirement to repeat
those facts would serve no
purpose and cause unnecessary material to be incorporated in the
supporting affidavit, indicates that
another meaning may have been
intended. As indicated above, in interpreting the requirement to
verify the cause of action under
the rule prior to amendment, our
courts concluded that it was unnecessary to repeat the facts alleged
in the summons, particulars
of claim or declaration and referencing
the alleged facts was sufficient
.
The repetition of
the alleged facts is no more necessary under the amended rule, and
the introduction of an express requirement
to reference the alleged
facts would be superfluous in the context of the established
interpretation of the requirement to verify
the cause of action. An
interpretation that requires the referencing of the alleged facts
implies that the amendment was intended
to state, as a separate
requirement, the established meaning of verify and renders redundant
either the requirement to verify the
cause of action or the
requirement to identify the facts: verifying the cause of action
identifies the facts and identifying the
facts in an affidavit is the
equivalent of verifying. The court in
Maharaj
supra
identified
the relevant meanings of verify in the Shorter Oxford English
Dictionary. The most apposite meanings currently are, “[s]upport
(a statement) by evidence or testimony; … pend an affidavit to
(pleadings) … assert or affirm to be true or certain”,
and “confirm the truth or authenticity”. A deponent
cannot do so without identifying the facts and accordingly, there
is
no need or use in requiring the deponent to the supporting affidavit
to both verify the cause of action and identify the facts
constituting the cause of action.
13.
The similar phrase
in rule 32(3)(b), “the material facts relied upon”, is
not understood to refer to the facts set out
in the plea.
[25]
The defendants are
required to set out the nature and grounds of the defence, which is
comparable to the cause of action. The authors
of Erasmus, submit
that, “the
‘
nature
’
of the defence
relates to the character or essential qualities of the defence”,
and that “
‘
grounds
’
as the word is used
in the subrule relates to the facts upon which the defence is
based.”
[26]
(Cf. the expression
of the requirement to verify the cause of action in
Van
den Bergh
supra
.)
This requirement was part of the rule prior to the amendment and
presumably less is required to satisfy this requirement under
the
amended rule as summary judgment applications are brought after the
plea is delivered and the plea should contain the nature
and grounds
of the defence. I assume defendants may now merely reference the
plea. In addition, the defendants are required to
set out the
material facts relied upon.
[27]
The defendants are
not required to give “a preview of all the evidence” but
the defendants are required to “set
out facts which if proven
at trial will constitute a good defence to the claim.”
[28]
Despite the use of
the word, “fully” after disclose, defendants are not
required to set out, “the full details
of all the evidence
which he proposes to rely upon”, but the material facts must,
“be sufficiently full” and
not “averred in a manner
which appears in all the circumstances to be needlessly bald, vague
or sketchy”
.
[29]
Although, "the
defendant need not deal exhaustively with the facts and the evidence
relied upon to substantiate them, he must
at least disclose his
defence and the material facts
upon
which
it
is
based
with
sufficient
particularity
and
completeness
…”
.
[30]
The interpretation
applied to the requirement in rule 32(3)(b) indicates that “facts”
is not to be understood to mean
only the
facta
probanda
(the
facts to be proved) or pleaded facts in the context of rule 32. The
word “facts” in the context of the rule includes
facta
probantia
.
In
Deltamune
(Pty) Ltd and Others v Tiger Brands Ltd and Others
,
[31]
the supreme court
of appeal referred to
facta
probantia
as,
“facts or evidence”, which accords with the translation
of that latin phrase: “facts proving the facta probanda”.
[32]
The rules board may
have intended, “the facts upon which the plaintiff’s
claim is based”, to mean
facta
probantia
.
14.
The language used
in relation to the supporting affidavit is similar, although not
identical to the requirement for the opposing
affidavit. The
plaintiffs must, “identify … the facts upon which the
plaintiff
’
s
claim is based”, and the defendant must “disclose …
the material facts relied upon” for the defence.
The difference
in language is found in the use of the words
“
identify
”
and
“
disclose
”
.
The word
“disclose” may mean, “[m]ake known, reveal”.
[33]
Although there is a
subtle difference, the difference in language cannot account for a
significant disparity in the
interpretation
s
afforded to the requirements for the supporting and opposing
affidavits
.
The
use of different words does not, in this instance, indicate that the
intention was to give the requirement for the supporting
affidavit
the meaning attributed to similar words in other rules, and the
requirement for the opposing affidavit a unique meaning
only
applicable in rule 32(3)b). In my view, the meaning attributed to a
similar phrase within the rule is to be preferred to a
meaning
attributed to a similar phrase in other rules. In
Mphahlele
supra
,
the court held that summary judgment is,
“
[A]
self-contained procedure with its own well-established principles. As
such, it is not bound by those principles governing other
procedures
as contained,
inter
alia,
in
the Uniform Rules of Court. It is for this reason that great caution
should be exercised when seeking guidance, to one degree
or another,
from the provisions of other rules when interpreting Rule 32.”
[34]
The contrary view
implies that the rules board intended similar phrases in the same
rule to have different meanings. I doubt that
was the intention,
particularly if that would result in a pointless and valueless
exercise.
The
rule must be given a sensible meaning. The requirements may have been
intended to have the same meaning, being the meaning established
for
the requirement in rule 32(3)(b)
.
15.
Our courts have
nevertheless accepted in a number of judgments that evidence is
permissible under the requirement to explain briefly
why the defence
as pleaded does not raise any issues for trial. In
Trans-Drakensberg
Bank Ltd (under Judicial Management) v Combined Engineering (Pty) Ltd
and Another,
[35]
in the context of
an application for amendment, a triable issue was described as an
issue that has a foundation. In other words,
an issue for which there
is supporting evidence, where evidence is required, and is not
excipiable.
[36]
In
Cohen
supra
,
the Supreme Court of Appeal held that defendants are required to
disclose a defence that is “legally cognisable in the sense
that it amounts to a valid defence if proven at trial”
,
[37]
and the test is
“whether the facts put up by the defendants raise a triable
issue and a sustainable defence in the law, deserving
of their day in
court.”
[38]
(In
Joob
Joob Investments (Pty) Ltd v Stocks Mavundla Zek Joint Venture
,
[39]
“
triable
issue or a sustainable defence”, was used.) These authorities
indicate that an issue for trial is an issue that entails
the
assessment of evidence. In my view, plaintiffs cannot meaningfully
explain the absence of a triable issue, in the sense that
the defence
is unsustainable on the evidence, by referring to the disputes of
fact in the pleadings. A denial in a plea
prima
facie
raises
an issue for trial which is
bona
fide
.
The very purpose of a denial is to signal that available evidence
will be presented at trial to disprove the allegation. The plaintiffs
can only explain that the defence is not
bona
fide
by
referencing evidence. The dictionary meanings are capable of
sustaining that interpretation.
[40]
In the absence of
evidence, the explanation will be nothing more than an
unsubstantiated opinion.
16.
Although in
Tumileng
supra,
the
court stated that the requirement to identify the facts should be
addressed as succinctly as possible and a formulaic response
would be
sufficient in most matters, the court said that the requirement for
an explanation provided a plausible reason for the
requirement for
something more. The court arrived at the conclusion that,
“
What the
amended rule does seem to do is to require of a plaintiff to consider
very carefully its ability to allege a belief that
the defendant does
not have a
bona
fide
defence.
This is because the plaintiff's supporting affidavit now falls to be
made in the context of the deponent's knowledge of
the content of a
delivered plea. That provides a plausible reason for the requirement
of something more than a 'formulaic' supporting
affidavit from the
plaintiff. The plaintiff is now required to engage with the content
of the plea in order to substantiate its
averments that the defence
is not
bona
fide
and
has been raised merely for the purposes of delay.”
[41]
17.
In
Propell
Specialised Finance supra,
the
court held that,
“
A plaintiff
contemplating making application for summary judgment now not only
has to consider the defendant
’
s
plea before instituting the application, it also has to support the
application with a more elaborate affidavit than was previously
required, dealing not only with a motivated reiteration of the
grounds of its own case, but also engaging with the content of the
defendant
’
s
plea.”
[42]
18.
In Erasmus
supra
,
the authors provide the following example:
“
[I]f the
defendant raises a defence of reckless credit in an action based on a
credit agreement falling under the
National Credit Act 34 of 2005
,
and resists an application for summary judgment on the basis of such
a defence, the plaintiff will in terms of subrule (2)(b)
be entitled
to set out facts, supported by the necessary documents, to briefly
explain why the defence as pleaded does not raise
any issue for
trial.”
19.
In
Five
Strand Media supra,
the
court held that, “[t]he plaintiff now has the opportunity to
amplify the previously formulaic averment that the defendant
does not
have a
bona
fide
defence
to the action”.
[43]
This statement is
repeated in
Saglo
Auto
supra.
[44]
In
Volkswagen
Financial Services South Africa (Pty) Ltd v Pillay,
[45]
the court permitted
evidence under the requirement for an explanation.
[46]
There is no
indication in the
Pillay
judgment
that the referenced documents were attached to the supporting
affidavit. Erasmus
supra,
however,
contains the following statement, “there is in any event
nothing in
rule 32(2)(b)
which prohibits the attachment of documents
in support of the explanation as to why the defence as pleaded does
not raise any issue
for trial.
”
In
Mashinini
supra,
[47]
the court held
that,
“
[t]he Rule
as amended clearly did not envisage a mini-trial by the production of
extensive
facta
probantia
,
but where, as in the present instance that which would have been a
bare or bald denial can be refuted or, in the imprecise words
of the
amended Rule, ‘
briefly
’
be explained by way
of an annexed document or documents, that should in my view be
allowed. To not do so would be to revert to the
unsatisfactory
position which was in existence prior to the amendment of the
Rule.”
[48]
The court provided the following
example:
“
[S]ay a
plaintiff has pleaded payment of an agreed purchase price and the
pleaded defence is a bare denial. Surely the Rule envisaged
that the
production of proof of payment or a receipt would indicate that the
denial did not raise any ‘issue for trial’.
Such
production should be allowed.”
[49]
20.
The answer may be
that the defendant will be required to set out the defence in a
manner which is not
“
needlessly
bald, vague or sketchy” and, if the defence remains bare, the
plaintiff would be justified in seeking summary judgment.
This would
be consistent with the approach under the rule prior to amendment.
The explanation, in the form of argument, would be
provided in the
heads of argument or oral argument at the hearing. The amendment
signals a break from past practices. The amendment
requires the
explanation to be provided in the supporting affidavit and the
intention could not have been to merely shift the argument
to the
supporting affidavit contrary to the very purpose of affidavits. The
inclusion of evidence would serve the purpose of affidavits
and
provide context to the assessment of the defence. The process would
be less artificial, more informed and engage with the real
issues. In
the example mentioned above, the allegation of payment may be
supported with a simple response in the opposing affidavit
which is
difficult to dismiss on the traditional basis. An interpretation that
permits evidence would increase the prospect of
exposing defences
that are not genuinely advanced
.
The defendants who
intend to do so may find it difficult or be reluctant to address the
evidence. As stated in
Breitenbach
v Fiat SA (Edms) Bpk
,
[50]
“
The penalty
(or one of the penalties) for making a false statement on oath is
imposed after a trial for perjury. And in such a trial
a man will
find it easier to escape conviction if the averment to which he swore
was brief, bald and vague, than if it was clear
and supported by such
detail as an honest deponent might reasonably have been expected to
put forward even in a concise reply to
a summary judgment
application. A dishonest deponent, if he is wise, will present as
narrow a front as possible, and (if it is
practicable) a blurred
one.”
[51]
21.
A prohibition on
evidence in the affidavits may encourage plaintiffs to attempt to
include such material in the particulars of claim
or declaration to
be verified or identified in the supporting affidavit, which will
debase the pleadings to the inconvenience of
the parties and the
court, and the effectiveness of the civil litigation process. The
uncertainty about the material that may be
permitted may have been
the cause of the pleadings being unduly prolix in this matter. The
pleadings contain evidence and the attachments
include
correspondence, tracking receipts, the results of a deeds registry
search, bank statements, and the notice of motion, founding
affidavit
with annexures, order and judgment in the application mentioned
above. The pleadings with annexures are over 185 pages.
There should
be no encouragement to parties to attempt to facilitate or frustrate
summary judgment by including such material in
the pleadings.
22.
The inclusion of
some evidence in the supporting affidavit would serve another
purpose. If the granting of summary judgment “is
based upon the
supposition that the plaintiff
’
s
claim is unimpeachable” and “[o]ne of the aids to
ensuring that this is the position is the affidavit filed in support
of the application”,
[52]
an interpretation
that requires evidence would assist in ensuring that summary judgment
is granted in appropriate circumstances
and subject the parties to
the same requirements. The use of the summary judgment procedure as a
tactic to obtain a version on
oath from the defendant which could be
used cross-examination, was noted in the task team memorandum and is
mentioned in a number
of judgments. The task team envisaged that the
amendment would reduce this temptation by placing a similar burden on
plaintiffs.
A purpose of the amendment was to create a level playing
field, and not to entrench the advantages and disadvantages
experienced by
plaintiffs and defendants
.
23.
An interpretation
which permits the inclusion of evidence in the supporting affidavit
is aligned to the language, context and purpose
of the amendment.
However, in
Mphahlele
supra,
under
the heading, “
Is
a plaintiff in a
summary judgment application entitled to introduce evidence
in
the affidavit in
support of summary judgment in order to rebut a defence pleaded by a
defendant?”, the court held that,
“
[A]s a
general proposition, a plaintiff should not be entitled to introduce
evidence or facts which do not appear in a plaintiff's
particulars of
claim or declaration.”
[53]
“
As to the
‘brief explanation as to who the defence as pleaded does not
raise any issue for trial’, this must be confined
solely
thereto. This brief' explanation does not open the door to entitle a
plaintiff to introduce new evidence as to why, at summary
judgment
stage, a defendant should not be given leave to defend an action and
to attempt to show that a plaintiff has an unanswerable
case.”
[54]
…
“
In the
premises, the identification of points of law and facts by a
plaintiff must be confined to those as set out in a plaintiff's
particulars of claim or declaration: be set out succinctly without
the introduction of any further documentary evidence and the
explanation pertaining to why the defence as pleaded by a defendant
does not raise any issue for trial should, as specifically
required
by the subrule, be brief. Certainly, this explanation, like the
identification of points of law and facts, cannot be supported
by a
plaintiff attaching further documents to the affidavit in support of
summary judgment.”
[55]
24.
The conflicting
judgments of
Mashinini
and
Mphahlele
supra
were
noted in
Ridge
Line Roofing CC v Devan 01 (Pty) Ltd and Another,
[56]
but the court found
that it was unnecessary to decide the issue, and in
T-Systems
(Pty) Ltd v BDM Technology Services (Pty) Ltd and Others; In re BDM
Technology Services (Pty) Ltd and Others v T-Systems
(Pty) Ltd,
[57]
in the context of a
complaint in terms of
rule 30.
The complaint was that the applicant,
in the summary judgment application, had
inter
alia
relied
on evidence in the supporting affidavit that was contained in
additional annexures that did not relate to any allegation
in the
particulars of claim and
introduce
d
new evidence upon which the case for summary judgment was premised.
The court decided the application on another basis.
25.
The judgments in
Mashinini,
Mphahlele
and
Tumileng
supra
were
delivered in close proximity to one another and do not refer to each
other, and the subsequent authorities are beginning to
diverge on the
fault line of a preference for one or the other approach
.
In
Ingenuity
Property Investments (Pty) Ltd v Ignite Fitness (Pty) Ltd,
[58]
a matter in which
the respondent objected in terms of
rule 30
to the simultaneous
delivery of a replication and an application for summary judgment,
the court, relying on
Tumileng,
held that,
“
In
circumstances where the defendant pleads, for example, a sham denial
of the plaintiff
’
s
authority, it would be necessary for the plaintiff to answer the
defendant's plea with the necessary facts to show that the denial
is
a sham.”
[59]
“…
A
plaintiff is required to engage meaningfully with the defence raise
(sic) in the plea. One of the ways in which the plaintiff
can do does
so is by delivering a replication. A replication may be necessary
where a sham defence is pleaded, and in doing so
it does not mean
that the plaintiff concedes that the defence is not a sham.”
[60]
“
A
replication also serves as a response to the defences raised in the
plea and explains why they do not raise triable issues. It
does not
serve as amplification of the cause of action. In this sense a
replication and the summary judgment affidavit under the
amended
Rule
32
effectively perform similar functions.”
[61]
26.
In
Nissan
Finance, a product of Wesbank, of
FirstRand
Bank Limited v Gusha Holdings and Enterprises (Pty) Ltd and
Another,
[62]
the court, relying
on
Mphahlele
supra,
held
that,
[63]
“
Rule 32(4)
expressly precludes the applicant in summary judgment proceedings
from adducing any evidence otherwise than by the affidavit referred
to in subrule 2. No annexures to a plaintiffs verifying affidavit are
allowed except if the claim is founded on a liquid document,
in which
instance a copy of the document must be annexed to the affidavit,
although the inclusion of evidence in the affidavit,
or the annexing
of documentary evidence, will not invalidate the application, but
will simply be ignored by the court. In dealing
with the provisions
of
Sections 129(1)
and
130
of the
National Credit Act, No. 34 of 2005
in the context of a summary judgment application, the Supreme Court
of Appeal has held that
Rule 32(4)
limits a plaintiff's evidence in
summary judgment proceedings to the affidavit supporting the notice
of application and that reliance
on a document not annexed to the
summons but handed up at the hearing without complaint, was simply
inadmissible.”
27.
As noted in
Nissan
supra,
rule
32
(4)
does
provide that, “[n]o evidence may be adduced by the plaintiff
otherwise than by the affidavit referred to in subrule (2)”.
The rule nevertheless contemplates some evidence. The limits of the
permissible evidence must be determined by interpreting
rule
32(2)(b).
The inclusion in the supporting affidavit of such evidence
as may be permitted under rue 32(2)(b) will not contravene
rule
32(4).
There seems to be limited value in applying authorities that
interpreted
rule 32(4)
in the context of the rule prior to its
amendment when the limits were set at verifying the cause of action
and stating an opinion
that there is no
bona
fide
defence.
This was acknowledged in
Nissan,
but
resolved by reference to
Mphahlele
supra,
which
arrives at the same conclusion.
[64]
As mentioned above,
a number of other judgments have arrived at the opposite conclusion
by relying on or preferring
Tumileng
supra.
28.
In regard to
whether plaintiffs may attach documents, the court in
Nissan
supra,
referred
to
Rossouw
v Firstrand Bank Ltd
,
[65]
a judgment of the
Supreme Court of Appeal
,
in
which a “List of Registered Letters”, proving that the
requisite notice had been sent by registered mail was placed
before
the court at the hearing of the application for summary judgment
without objection from the defendants. The appeal court
nevertheless
held that the document was inadmissible.
[66]
However, in a
separate concurring judgment, Cloete JA held that,
“
The
certificate of balance, also handed up to the court
a
quo,
stands,
however, on a different footing. The court a quo refused to have
regard to the certificate. That approach was not correct.
The
certificate did not, as the court a quo considered, amount to new
evidence which would be inadmissible under
rule 32(4).
To the extent
that the certificate reflects the balance due as at the date of
hearing, it is merely an arithmetical calculation
based on the facts
already before the court that the court would otherwise have to
perform itself. Such calculations are better
performed by a qualified
person in the employ of a financial institution. And to the extent
that such a certificate may reflect
additional payments by the
defendant after the issue of summons, or payments not taken into
account when summons was issued, this
constitutes an admission
against interest by the bank, and the bank is entitled to abandon
part of the relief it seeks. Certificates
of balance handed in at the
hearing (whether a quo or on appeal) perform a useful function and
are not hit by the provisions of
rule 32(4).
”
[67]
29.
This judgment
indicates that under the rule prior to amendment, plaintiffs were
entitled to a limited extent to refine the case
made out in the
summons, particulars of claim or declaration based on evidence that
was discovered by the plaintiff or alleged
by the defendant and
conceded.
30.
The judgment in
Mphahlele
supra,
initially
appears to maintain a distinction between the requirements to
identify the facts upon which the plaintiff
’
s
claim is based
and
to explain briefly
why the defence as pleaded does not raise any issue for trial. The
court appears to adopt the view that the former
requirement permits
the plaintiffs to attach documents and the latter does not. In
addressing the requirement to identify the facts
upon which the
plaintiffs claim is based, the court held that, “[i]n terms of
the subrule the plaintiff is entitled to attach
documents in support
of facts upon which it relies in support of that plaintiffs cause of
action with the exclusion of facts in
support of points of law raised
and relied upon by the defendant.”
[68]
And in respect of
the example provided in Erasmus that, “the plaintiff in that
example, would not be entitled to attach documents
to the Affidavit
in support of Summary Judgment insofar as these documents related to
the point of law raised by the defendant.”
[69]
However, the last
of the paragraphs quoted from the judgment above, appears to apply to
both requirements.
31.
The weight of the
authorities is in favour of the approach in
Tumileng
supra,
probably
because, as the Supreme Court of Appeal held in
Cohen
supra,
“
[t]he only
decision to trace the history and reasoning behind the amended
procedure for summary judgment in detail is
Tumileng
…”
.
In
contrast, the application of the judgment in
Mphahlele
supra,
and
the results of its application have been variable
.
[70]
In
Morgan
supra,
despite
adopting
Mphahlele,
the
court held that, “[e]vidence as to the respondent
’
s
signature of the deed of suretyship, which was presented to the
liquidation application, is admissible as it was relevant and
material and could conduce to prove or disprove the fact at issue
between the parties.”
[71]
In addition, the
court appears to have accepted that plaintiffs could attach documents
when identifying the facts and relied on
evidence derived from the
documents. The court did not comment on the requirement for an
explanation. In
Municipal
Employees Pension Fund v Eliopoulos,
[72]
the court excluded
the documentary evidence on the authority of
Mphahlele
but had regard to
facts alleged in the supporting affidavit in reply to the defence
raised in the plea.
32.
In some of these
matters, attention does not appear to have been drawn to the
conflicting judgments and in others a preference was
adopted without
mentioning or resolving the conflicting judgments
.
The most
peculiar of which are
Mashinini
and
Mphahlele
supra
which
seem to have involved some of the same parties. The judgment in
Mashinini
was
ex
tempore,
and
revised and published after the hearing but prior to the judgment in
Mphahlele.
The
judgment in
Mashinini
does
not appear to have been
brought
to the attention of the court in
Mphahlele.
Mashinini
appears
to be in accordance with
Tumileng
supra,
and
drawing it to the attention of the court in
Mphahlele
probably
would have had the effect of avoiding the conflict
.
Mashinini
has
not been found to be clearly wrong and I understand that I am bound
by that judgment
.
33.
This does not mean
that there is no limit to the material that is permissible in the
supporting affidavit. The task team apparently
discussed but did not
decide whether there should be a limit on the length of a founding
affidavit in a summary judgment application
brought under the
proposed amended rule.
[73]
The concern was
that the amended rule could, in the absence of a page limit, impose
an intolerable burden on the administration
of justice, and also
drive up costs for the parties. The parties should not conduct
summary judgment applications as opposed motions
and deal
exhaustively with the facts and evidence relied upon in their
affidavits. In
Tumileng
supra,
the
court commented,
“
It seems to
me, however, that the exercise is likely to be futile in all cases
other than those in which the pleaded defence is
a bald denial. This
is because a court seized of a summary judgment application is not
charged with determining the substantive
merit of a defence, nor with
determining its prospects of success. It is concerned only with an
assessment of whether the pleaded
defence is genuinely advanced, as
opposed to a sham put up for purposes of obtaining delay. A court
engaged in that exercise is
not going to be willing to become
involved in determining disputes of fact on the merits of the
principal case. As the current
applications illustrate, the exercise
is likely therefore to conduce to argumentative affidavits, setting
forth as averments assertions
that could more appropriately be
addressed as submissions by counsel from the bar. In other words, it
is likely to lead to unnecessarily
lengthy supporting affidavits,
dealing more with matters for argument than matters of fact.”
[74]
34.
The applicant is
not only constrained by the approach to be adopted in summary
judgment applications and the futility of setting
out material that
merely demonstrates that the plaintiff has more probative material
available than the defendant and the claim
is more likely to succeed
than the defence. A supporting affidavit in such terms would only
serve to demonstrate that there is
an issue for trial and the
existence of some need for an explanation of apparent contradictions
in the evidence, does not mean
that there is no triable issue.
[75]
The plaintiff must
demonstrate that the defence is not genuinely advanced and the plea
is contrived for an ulterior purpose such
as delay. I
n
Majola v
Nitro Securitisation 1
(Pty)
Ltd,
[76]
the supreme court
of appeal held that summary judgment, “is a procedure that is
intended ‘to prevent sham defences from
defeating the rights of
parties by delay, and at the same time causing great loss to
plaintiffs who were endeavouring to enforce
their rights’ …”.
35.
In
Tumileng
supra,
the
court held that,
““
[A]
plaintiff would be justified in bringing an application for summary
judgment only if it were able to show that the pleaded defence
is not
bona
fide
;
in other words, by showing that the plea is a sham plea.”
[77]
…
“
I consider
that the amended
rule 32(2)(b)
makes sense only if the word
'genuinely' is read in before the word 'raise' so that the pertinent
phrase reads 'explain briefly
why the defence as pleaded does not
genuinely raise any issue for trial'. In other words, the plaintiff
is not required to explain
that the plea is excipiable. It is
required to explain why it is contended that the pleaded defence is a
sham.”
[78]
And,
“
[T]he
enquiry is not whether the plea discloses 'an issue for trial' in the
literal sense of those words, it is whether the ostensible
defence
that has been pleaded is
bona
fide
or
not.”
[79]
36.
The rule does not
encourage the setting out of material that demonstrates a strong or
even an overwhelming case, unless it has this
effect. The
Constitution affords the entitlement to the resolution of any dispute
in a fair public hearing to every person irrespective
of the evidence
for or against their cause. The rule is not there to weed out weak
cases. The amended rule restrains the abuse
of the court process by
defendants who are not genuinely advancing the defence set out in the
plea
.
The
requirement for a
bona
fide
defence
balances access to courts and the administration of justice.
37.
The summary
judgment procedure is not intended to provide a unilateral advantage
to the plaintiff or to replace the exception as
an appropriate
procedure to test the sustainability of the defence.
[80]
A court may, in the
exercise of its discretion, defer summary judgment on a law point,
unless the point is “crisp” and
unarguable.
[81]
The reason why
unarguable, crisp law points may be determined is that a meritless
defence on readily resolved point provides a plausible
reason for a
finding that the defence is not
bona
fide
.
The crisp law point may be decided where the court is in the same
position as a court determining the exception and the point
does not
deprive the defendant of the rights the plaintiff would be afforded
in the same position. In
Skead
v Swanepoel
,
[82]
the court held
that, “[i]t is to be remembered that a summary judgment has a
character of finality; while a successful exception
may be countered
by an appropriate amendment.”
[83]
And in
Edwards
v Menezes
,
[84]
the court held
that,
“
in deciding
whether the facts alleged would constitute a good defence as a 'crisp
law point' against defendant
(cf.
Nkungu
v.
Johannesburg
City Council,
1950
(4)
SA
312
(T))
the
Court should only
grant
summary judgment
where it is satisfied also that it is not depriving [the] defendant
of the right he would have had, in an appropriate
case, had the crisp
law point been decided against him on exception, of amending his
pleadings and trying again.”
[85]
38.
In
Barclays
National Bank Ltd v Brownlee,
[86]
for example, the
court was referred to
Edwards
supra,
and
held that,
“
In the
present case there is no suggestion whatever in defendant's opposing
affidavit that he may have another defence up his sleeve,
or that
there is any other basis upon which he may ‘try again’ if
the defence which he does raise fails. The issue
argued in the
summary judgment application is one which may also be properly raised
on exception, but there are, in my view, no
considerations which
preclude me from resolving it in these proceedings, or even which
render it desirable that it be resolved
on exception.”
[87]
39.
The authorities on
this issue indicate that the material placed before the court will be
futile unless it demonstrates that the
defence is practically
unarguable. The absence of such a defence is demonstrated, not by the
abundance or weight of the material,
but the specific facts which are
unanswered or do not constitute an answer or answered “in a
manner which appears in all
the circumstances to be needlessly bald,
vague or sketchy”.
[88]
This is recognised
in rule 32(2)(b), which specifically requires the the applicant to be
brief. This requirement naturally limits
the material that may be
placed before the court. The complexity of the case is no excuse for
heaping material on the court. The
summary judgment procedure assists
in the administration of justice by removing from the system matters
in which the defence is
not genuinely advanced and thereby improves
the efficiency of the administration. The procedure is intended to be
effective and
efficient. In
Raumix
Aggregates (Pty) Ltd v Richter Sand CC, and Similar Matters 21
,
[89]
the court held
that,
“
The purpose
of a summary judgment application is to allow the court to summarily
dispense with actions that ought not to proceed
to trial because they
do not raise a genuine triable issue, thereby conserving scarce
judicial resources and improving access to
justice.”
[90]
The application of
resources to matters that are not concise, and as a result time
consuming, negates the advantages of the rule.
The inability to be
brief simply
means
that the issue is not suited to summary judgment, even if the
material demonstrates that the defendant does not have a
bona
fide
defence
.
40.
The requirement to
be brief, read with the prohibition in rule 32(4) and in the context
of the approach to be adopted by a court
in summary judgment
applications, indicates that, generally, documents should not be
attached to the supporting affidavit. In
Mashinini
supra,
the
court held that, “[t]he use of the word ‘
briefly
'
in Rule 32(2)(b) however, indicates that the instances and extent
where use can be made of such allegations and annexures should
be
limited.”
[91]
A person who can
swear positively to the facts should be able to identify the facts
and provide the brief explanation without recourse
to documents which
would, in most instances, contribute nothing to the debate concerning
the
bona
fides
of
the defence. However, undue formalism in procedural matters is always
to be eschewed and courts may and do have regard to documents
properly placed before them. In
Maharaj
supra,
the
supreme court of appeal stated that, “[t]he principle is that,
in deciding whether or not to grant summary judgment, the
Court looks
at the matter 'at the end of the day' on all the documents that are
properly before it”.
[92]
And as mentioned
above, in
Rossouw
supra,
[93]
the supreme court
of appeal held that it was useful for the certificate of balance to
be handed up at the hearing of the matter.
A document is properly
before the court if the applicant is within the bounds mentioned
above, which require a pragmatic approach.
41.
The supporting
affidavit in this matter goes well beyond the permissible bounds. The
supporting affidavit has over a hundred pages
of attachments, most of
which are bank statements, correspondence and tracking receipts. In
my view, the applicant could have made
the points it wished to make
in the affidavit without attaching the documents which add nothing to
the debate. The approach
adopted by the applicant had a
cumulative effect on the papers because the trust responded in a
similar manner with a far lengthier
affidavit. Although, as stated in
Breitenbach
v Fiat
supra,
[94]
“
what a
defendant can reasonably be expected to set out in his affidavit,
depends, to some extent, upon the manner in which the plaintiff's
claim, which he is seeking to answer, has been formulated”,
[95]
this is not,
“
an
encouragement to present, lengthy and prolix affidavits in summary
judgment cases. All that is required is that the defendant's
defence
be not set out so baldly, vaguely or laconically that the Court, with
due regard to all the circumstances, receives the
impression that the
defendant has, or may have, dishonestly sought to avoid the dangers
inherent in the presentation of a fuller
or clearer version of the
defence which he claims to have.”
[96]
The applicant has not complained about
this material and the trust has merely asked that I ignore the
impermissible material in
the supporting affidavit. This is
consistent with the approach adopted before and after the amendment
and, in my view, the very
least that should be done.
The defences
42.
As intimated above,
this matter has a prolonged litigation history which dates back to
early 2011. The applicant is undoubtedly
frustrated by the delay and
the respondents, by the repetitive litigation. I suspect that the
applicant was spurred into this summary
judgment application by a
comment in the judgment in the application mentioned above which is
referred to in greater detail below.
The application was dismissed
but, in doing so, this court said that, “[b]ut for the question
of
locus
standi
of
[the applicant], I would have granted [the applicant] the relief it
seeks as there was no real dispute on the papers in respect
of the
Respondents’ indebtedness to the Applicant.” The
applicant submits that, in this action, it has pleaded, “all
the necessary allegations with reference to its
locus
standi
(which
was not done in the 2017 application).” And there are aspects
of the supporting affidavit which intimate an absence
of
bona
fides
in
respect of some of the defences raised in the plea. As a result,
counsel for the applicant implored me to grant summary judgment.
43.
The claim is
founded on two written contracts of loan, allegedly concluded during
August and November 1999 between Saambou Bank
Limited (“Saambou”)
and the Goran Family Trust (“the trust”). The loans are
secured by two mortgage bonds
concluded in September and November
1999. The applicant alleges that, “[d]espite a diligent search,
it has been unsuccessful
in tracing a copy of the first loan
agreement …” but “[t]he relevant material terms of
the first loan agreement
have … been captured on the
plaintiff’s centralised computer system and are also reflected
in the first mortgage bond
…”. The second contract of
loan and the mortgage bonds are attached to the particulars of claim.
In terms of clause
9 of the second loan agreement, “[a]ll
existing and future loans … shall be regarded as one
consolidated loan …”.
The applicant pleads that Saambou
advanced the loan amounts to the trust, the trust breached the loan
agreements, “read with
the mortgage bonds”, by failing to
“make punctual payments of the repayment instalments” and
the trust is in
arrears. The
applicant
alleges that,
“[t]he consolidated loan amount has therefore become due,
owing, and payable by the trust.” In another
section of the
particulars of claim, the
applicant
pleads that, “the
full outstanding balance owing in terms of the loan agreements has at
the plaintiff’s option become
due and payable and the plaintiff
is entitled to claim payment of the full amount …”. The
applicant pleads that despite
demand, the trust has failed to pay.
The applicant claims payment and a declaration that the bonded
property be declared executable.
44.
The contracts of
loan do not contain an express term, and the applicant does not plead
a material term of the contracts of loan,
which founds the claim.
However, the mortgage bonds provide that,
“
Should any
payment not be made punctually on the due date thereof, or should the
Mortgagor fail to comply with any condition of
this mortgage bond …
then the full outstanding capital amount secured under this mortgage
bond, together with any amount
whatsoever due by the Mortgagor to the
Mortgagee in terms of this mortgage bond, shall forthwith, without
any notice and notwithstanding
anything to the contrary set out
herein, become payable. Interest on the capital amount shall then be
capitalised at the end of
the current month during which any of the
aforesaid occurrences take place
…
Interest
shall be payable on the capital amount determined as such from the
end of the said current month …”.
The applicant pleads this clause as
one of the material express terms of the mortgage bonds and I assume
the applicant founds its
claim on this term.
45.
The mortgage bonds
record the indebtedness of the trust to Saambou,
“
its
order, successors or assigns
”
.
The
applicant
’
s
standing is founded on the following allegations: Saambou changed its
name to
“
Saambou
Limited", Saambou was placed under curatorship, Saambou ceded
the loan agreements and the mortgage bonds to Secured
Mortgages Two
(Pty) Ltd (“Secured Mortgages Two”), which sold its
entire business, including the loan agreements and
the mortgage
bonds, to the
applicant
,
the sale was implemented and the applicant received cession of the
mortgage bonds “by way of registration in the office
of the
Registrar of Deeds, Johannesburg”. The
applicant
refers to the
endorsements on the mortgage bonds recording the cessions to the
applicant
.
The
applicant
concludes with the
allegation that, “[a]s a result of the cessions the plaintiff
is now the lawful holder of the rights, title
and interest in the
first and second loan agreements as well as the first and second
bonds …” and, “has the
necessary
locus
standi
to
bring the action.”
46.
The respondents are
the current trustees of the trust. The respondents were appointed
after the loan agreements and mortgage bonds
were concluded and after
the death of the previous trustees. The respondents have elected to
attempt to satisfy the court that
the trust has a
bona
fide
defence
to the action. The respondents claim to have no knowledge of the
loans and the advance but admit the mortgage bonds and
the terms of
the mortgage bonds to the extent that the pleaded terms accord with
the attached
document
s.
The respondents deny the alleged breach, that the trust is in
arrears, the indebtedness and the entitlement to the amount claimed
.
47.
The respondents do
not deny that Saambou was placed under curatorship. The respondents
plead an absence of knowledge to the allegations
concerning the
change of name, the cessions from Saambou to Secured Mortgages Two,
the alleged sale between Secured Mortgages Two
and the
applicant
,
the implementation of the sale, the cession of the mortgage bonds to
the applicant by way of the registration in the office of
the
registrar, and the conclusion that the plaintiff is now the lawful
holder of the rights, title and interest in the first and
second loan
agreements as well as the first and second bonds. The respondents,
accordingly, deny the
applicant
’
s
locus
standi
.
Res judicata
48.
In a special plea,
the respondents contend that the
applicant
’
s
claim was finally determined in application proceedings instituted by
the
applicant
in this court. The
application was between the same parties and, according to the
respondents, based on the same cause of action.
The respondents
attach
inter
alia
the
notice of motion which indicates that the same relief was claimed,
other than the additional prayer in the current action authorising
the registrar to issue a warrant of attachment. The applicant did not
contend that this difference distinguished the relief claimed
in the
application from the relief claimed in the current action.
49.
This court
dismissed the application. In the result, the respondents contend
that the claim is
res
judicata.
The
applicant
maintains in the
affidavit delivered in support of the application for summary
judgment that the cause of action is different. The
applicant
bases that
contention on the explanation that, “[t]he application was in
respect of the period up to 6 July 2017 …”,
and,
“
Subsequently
to the application being brought and dismissed … there have
been subsequent breaches, resulting in new causes
of action arising
with each new breach. The Trust failed to pay the monthly instalments
since the founding affidavit [in the application]
was deposed to …
Thus … the Trust has caused new breaches to the first and
second loan agreements and / or mortgage
bonds to occur.”
50.
The requirements of
res
judicata
are:
(i) there must be a previous judgment by a competent court (ii)
between the same parties (iii) based on the same cause of action,
and
(iv) with respect to the same subject-matter or thing. The applicant
contends that the onus is on the trust to prove the defence
of
res
judicata
.
Although the trust will have the onus of proving the defence of
res
judicata,
if
the matter proceeds to trial, in summary judgment proceedings the
applicant must persuade the court that the defence does not
raise an
issue for trial and the incidence of onus is pragmatically
irrelevant.
51.
In
McKenzie
v Farmers' Co-operative Meat Industries Ltd,
[97]
the appellate
division, considering the meaning of the words, "if the cause of
action arose wholly within the district,"
approved of the
adoption in
Belfort v
Morton
(1920
CPD 589)
of
the definition found
in
the English case of
Cook v Gill
(L.R.,
8 C.P. 107)
.
The definition is,
”
[E]very fact
which it would be necessary for the plaintiff to prove, if traversed,
in order to support his right to the judgment
of the Court. It [does]
not comprise every piece of evidence which is necessary to prove each
fact, but every fact which is necessary
to be proved.”
And proceeded to
consider “[t]he material facts which the plaintiff in the
present case has to prove to support his right
to judgment.”
[98]
52.
In
Abrahamse &
Sons v SA Railways and Harbours,
[99]
a case concerning
the prescription of a claim, the court held that,
“
The proper
legal meaning of the expression 'cause of action' is the entire set
of facts which gives rise to an enforceable claim
and includes every
fact which is material to be proved to entitle a plaintiff to succeed
in his claim. It includes all that a plaintiff
must set out in his
declaration in order to disclose a cause of action.“
53.
In
Evins
v Shield Insurance Co Ltd,
[100]
another case
concerning prescription, Trollip JA held that, “‘[c]ause
of action' is ordinarily used to describe the
factual basis, the set
of material facts, that begets the plaintiff's legal right of action
and, complementarily, the dependant's
(sic) ’debt', the word
used in the Prescription Act.”
[101]
Corbett JA referred
to the authorities mentioned above and proceeded to consider, “the
basic ingredients of the plaintiff's
cause of action” and held
that, “[t]he material facts which must be proved in order to
enable the plaintiff to sue
(or
facta
probanda
)
would relate to these three basic ingredients and upon the
concurrence of these facts the cause of action arises
.”
[102]
Corbett JA
explained that although there may be a measure of overlapping, the
facta
probanda
in
a bodily injury claim differ substantially from the
facta
probanda
in
a claim for loss of support, even though the bodily injury and death
result from the same occurrence. Corbett JA continued,
“
[T]he
principle of
res
judicata
…
establishes
that, where a final judgment has been given in a matter by a
competent court, then subsequent litigation between the
same parties,
or their privies, in regard to the same subject-matter and based upon
the same cause of action is not permissible
and, if attempted by one
of them, can be met by the
exceptio
rei judicatae vel litis finitae
.
The object of this principle is to prevent the repetition of
lawsuits, the harassment of a defendant by a multiplicity of actions
and the possibility of conflicting decisions”.
[103]
54.
In
Ascendis
Animal Health (Pty) Ltd v Merck Sharp Dohme Corporation and
Others,
[104]
Khampepe JA,
delivering the judgment for one half of the court in a split
decision, referred to the judgments mentioned above and
emphasised
that,
“
Of
significance is the fundamental distinction that the court in
McKenzie
drew between the
material facts which the applicant is required to prove in order to
establish his or her case (
facta
probanda
),
and the evidence which the plaintiff must advance in order to
establish those material facts (
facta
probantia
).
What this amounts to is that the 'cause of action' in a particular
case consists of the
facta
probanda
as
opposed to the
facta
probantia
.
In simple terms, the court in
McKenzie
endorses the view
that the central basic facts of the case are not to be confused with
the various items of evidence required to
prove those facts.”
[105]
55.
In
National
Sorghum Breweries Ltd (t/a Vivo African Breweries) v International
Liquor Distributors (Pty) Ltd,
[106]
Olivier JA used
“same issue”, “same ground”, “same
cause” and “cause of action”
interchangeably and
held that,
“
The
fundamental question in the appeal is whether the same issue is
involved in the two actions: in other words, is the same thing
demanded on the same ground, or, which comes to the same, is the same
relief claimed on the same cause, or, to put it more succinctly,
has
the same issue now before the Court been finally disposed of in the
first action?”
"In my view,
the answer must be in the negative. The same thing is not claimed in
the respective suits, nor is reliance placed
on the same ground or
cause of action. …”
“
Nor are the
respective claims based on the same grounds or same cause of action.
…”
[107]
56.
And Cameron J,
delivering the judgment of the other half of the court in
Ascendis
supra,
held
that,
“
The
commissioner rightly discerned that the 'real issue' between the
parties … Throughout, the parties' contest has been
about
nothing other than whether Merck's patent is valid. Why else are they
litigating? That has been the issue and the sole issue
all along. And
it is the issue here. In my view, that question — the patent's
validity — has been conclusively determined
between these
parties. In lawyer-speak, it is res judicata.”
[108]
57.
The doctrine of
res
judicata
is
an implement of justice that seeks to protect litigants, and the
courts, from repetitive litigation. There are, however, other
principles which achieve that objective and, as the doctrine
implicates the rights contained in section
34
of the
Constitution,
[109]
a balance must be
found between the public interest in finality of litigation and
ensuring a just result on the merits
.
58.
The doctrine has
ancient roots founded on good sense and fairness
[110]
and, although the
boundaries of
res
judicata
are
still being developed,
[111]
the bookend is
placed after cause of action and before legal proceedings or the
conclusions in the legal proceedings. In
National
Sorghum Breweries
supra,
[112]
the court held
that, “[t]he mere fact that there are common elements in the
allegations made in the two suits does not justify
the
exceptio
”
.
However, the differences must not be so wide and obvious that the
court is unable to say that the same thing was claimed in both
suits
or that the claims were brought on the same grounds.
[113]
In
Ascendis
surpa,
Khampepe
J warned
that,
“
The court in
Bisonboard
held that it is a
well-established principle of our law that there is a distinction
between causes of action on the one hand and
legal proceedings on the
other. The result of this distinction is that it is not the legal
proceedings that will be terminated
by
res
judicata
,
but the individual causes of action that have been decided.”
[114]
And held that,
“
In light of
the definition of cause of action and the distinction between
facta
probanda
and
facta
probantia
,
I do not think that the grounds of revocation constitute a single
cause of action. The opposite is true. Each of the grounds of
revocation as set out in s 61 of the Act constitutes separate,
distinct and independent causes of action because the
facta
probanda
that
need to be proven for each ground are different. Although the legal
conclusion that results from claims of either novelty,
obviousness or
inutility may be the same (in other words, the finding of a patent's
invalidity), it does not follow that they all
represent a single
cause of action. The facts required to prove a claim of novelty,
inutility and obviousness are markedly different
as the elements
constituting each ground are different.”
[115]
59.
The statements
mentioned above, echo those of Corbett JA in
Evins
v Shield
supra
that
a measure of overlapping is insufficient and the finding that a
bodily injury claim differs substantially from a claim for
loss of
support arising from the same accident. In
Ascendis
supra
the
court was split on whether the alleged invalidity of the patent was
the issue or cause of action, or the result which followed
on the
determination of the alleged grounds of invalidity or causes of
action. The latter view means that the invalidity of the
patent can
be repeatedly challenged in separate legal proceedings on each of the
alleged grounds of invalidity, constrained only
in the event that the
repetitive litigation constitutes an abuse of process. The former
view means that there is only one opportunity
to raise the invalidity
of the patent. Cameron J held that,
“
[T]he
commissioner, in concluding that the Supreme Court of Appeal had
finally determined the patent's validity, relied on
Alcatraz
II.
Rightly
so. There, a first revocation challenge failed. A second challenge
was then launched. To this, the patent-holder excepted
on the ground
that validity had been determined in its favour (res judicata). To
avoid the exception, the challenger contended
that the previous court
did not adjudicate the evidence relating to the prior art; nor was
there a determination on the lack of
inventive step. But these
contentions were fanciful, since the previous court had dismissed the
evidence in question for late filing
and there was indeed a final
judgment on the merits. In coming to this conclusion, the
Alcatraz
II
court,
borrowing from the English courts, remarked that — '(w)hen the
question of the validity of a patent is brought for
trial by reason
of the defendant's contesting that question, he is bound to put his
whole case before the court and if he does
not do so, then it is his
own misfortune’
.
"
[116]
60.
As Cameron J
explained, “it has become well accepted that enforcing the
requirements of
res
judicata
should
yield to the facts in each case.”
[117]
The issue in this
matter is whether the applicant can repeatedly claim standing.
61.
The basic
ingredients or the factual basis - the necessary, material, central
basic facts - of the applicant’s case in this
matter include
inter
alia
the
alleged breach of the terms of the contracts of loan and the mortgage
bonds and the consequences. As stated above, the applicant
alleges
that the trust breached the loan agreements by failing to pay the
monthly instalments. The consequence of such non-compliance
is found
in the mortgage bonds which provide that the full outstanding capital
amount secured under the mortgage bonds was payable.
To the extent
that this term provides the applicant with an option, as suggested in
the applicant
’
s
particulars of claim, the applicant indicates that the option was
exercised.
62.
The applicant does
not plead any particularity in respect of the alleged failure to pay.
The applicant does not do so because the
specific instalments which
the trust failed to pay
are
immaterial to the cause of action. The applicant is not claiming the
outstanding instalments. The applicant is claiming the
full
outstanding capital amount which is allegedly payable either as a
result of the failure to pay or as a result of the exercising
of the
option afforded to the applicant as a result of such non-compliance.
The aforementioned facts are material. The applicant
must prove that
the trust is obliged to pay the claimed amount - the obverse of which
is that the right to claim the full outstanding
capital amount has
accrued. The obligation arose and the right accrued on the occurrence
of the aforementioned
events.
The date when those
events occurred, and accordingly when the obligation arose and the
right accrued, is material to determining
whether the alleged
failures to pay the subsequent monthly instalments constitute “new”
breaches and “new”
causes of action, as contended by the
applicant. The date is material because the obligation and right
cannot repeatedly arise
and
accrue
.
If the obligation arose and the right accrued prior to the
application mentioned above, the alleged subsequent failures to pay
the monthly instalments are irrelevant.
63.
The applicant does
not plead the date when the full outstanding capital amount allegedly
became payable. However, the papers indicate
that this occurred prior
to the application mentioned above. The papers indicate that the full
outstanding capital amount was claimed
in an action instituted in
March 2011. The summons in that action is attached to the affidavit
opposing summary judgment and in
which the claimed amount is
described as “the principal debt together with finance
charges”. The aforesaid “sum
being claimed [is] now due
and payable in terms of the First and Second Mortgage Bonds …,
by reason of the failure of the
Trust to pay the instalments
punctually due …”. And, “due, owing and payable by
the Trust … by reason
of the Trust’s failure to make
prompt and timeous payment … of all amounts punctually due …”.
The summons
refers to a certificate which “will constitute
prima
facie
proof
of all outstanding amounts …”. The application mentioned
above, instituted in July 2017, contains materially
similar
allegations. In the founding affidavit the applicant alleged that,
“[i]n breach of its obligations in terms of the
loan agreement,
the Trust failed to make punctual payments of the instalments due
under the loan agreements …”. And,
“[i]n the
premises the full outstanding balance owing in terms of the loan has
at the Applicant’s option become due
and payable and the
Applicant is entitled to claim: [12.1.1] payment of the full amount
due …”. The applicant attached
a certificate for “the
total amount due by the Trust …”. The certificate
records the “home loans account
balance, standing to the debit
of the trust”. The judgment in the application provides support
for the view that the full
outstanding capital amount became payable
prior to the application mentioned above as the court was seemingly
prepared to grant
judgment for the amount claimed. The particulars of
claim in the current action and the affidavit delivered in support of
summary
judgment contain materially similar allegations. T
he
applicant
appears
to have consistently claimed the full outstanding capital amount on
the basis that the trust failed to punctually pay the
instalments due
in terms of the contracts of loan and / or the exercising of the
option. In the supporting affidavit, the applicant
merely says that
the application was in respect of a prior period and that subsequent
to the founding affidavit, the trust failed
to pay. The deponent does
not state that the applicant does not rely on the alleged failures to
pay or the option purportedly exercised
in that prior period, and
particularly, the deponent does not state that the full outstanding
capital amount did not became payable
as a result in that prior
period.
64.
In the context
mentioned above, the mere assertion in the supporting affidavit that
there were subsequent failures to pay does not
demonstrate that the
causes of action are different and accordingly that the defence of
res
judicata
does
not raise an issue for trial.
65.
Counsel for the
applicant did not enthusiastically pursue this point and instead
pivoted to a point raised in the heads of argument.
The trust did not
contend that this point should have been raised in the supporting
affidavit as part of the explanation that the
defence of
res
judicata
does
not raise an issue for trial. Counsel submitted that there is no
merit in the special plea of
res
judicata
because
the allegations which found the applicant’s standing in the
current action are materially different to those in the
application
mentioned above. Counsel refers to the founding affidavit in the
application and a section in the particulars of claim
addressing the
transfer of the rights from Saambou to the applicant and maintains
that, “[i]n this action, the [applicant]
pleaded the cession
and furthermore made all the necessary allegations with reference to
its
locus
standi
(which
was not done in the 2017 application).” However, in the
affidavit opposing summary judgment, the trust refers to
approximately
eighty paragraphs of the founding affidavit in the
application and maintains that the facts “are exactly similar”
and
“based on the exact same set of facts.” Counsel for
the respondents submits that, “[u]pon a proper interpretation
of the notice of motion …, the founding affidavit, the
answering affidavit, the replying affidavit and the judgment of [this
court], … the facts relied upon by the [applicant] …
are exactly the same facts.” And that, “[a]s the
facts
are the same, the defence of
res
judicata
is
to be upheld and a demonstrable defence, which is genuine, exists.”
66.
In the application,
the applicant stated in the founding affidavit that Saambou changed
its name to FirstRand Finance Company Ltd
which transferred its
assets and liabilities to the applicant. The applicant claimed
standing on the basis of this transfer. In
the replying affidavit,
the applicant confirmed that Saambou had changed its name to
FirstRand Finance Company Ltd and sold the
business as a going
concern to the applicant
…”
.
The sale appears to
have occurred as the applicant attached to the replying affidavit in
the application portions of the written
business sale agreement
between FirstRand Finance Company Ltd and the applicant. The
effective date of that sale is recorded as
1 March 2009. In the
answering affidavit, the trust referred to the action instituted by
Secured Mortgages Two. In the particulars
of claim in that action,
the allegation was made that on 14 February 2002, Saambou “ceded
its’ rights and entitlements
under the mortgage bonds to
[Secured Mortgages Two].” In the replying affidavit in the
application, the applicant confirmed,
“the cession of the
mortgage bonds that took place on 14 February 2002 wherein the rights
under the loan and mortgage bonds
were ceded to … Secured
Mortgages Two …”. The applicant referred to this cession
in the particulars of claim
in the current action. In the particulars
of claim in the current action, the applicant pleads that Saambou
“
ceded
its
’
rights
and entitlements under the mortgage bonds to [Secured Mortgages Two]
”
on 14 February
2002. In other words, prior to the sale between Saambou and the
applicant, the contracts of loan and mortgage bonds
were ceded to
Secured Mortgages Two. This appears to render the sale of business
between Saambou and the applicant irrelevant.
The applicant does not
mention this sale in the particulars of claim in the current action.
The applicant pleads, however, that
on 1 July 2011, Secured Mortgages
Two sold its entire business, “which included the right title,
and interest in the first
and second loan agreements together with
the concomitant cessions of the first and second bonds”, to the
applicant. The applicant
pleads further that the sale of business
between Secured Mortgages Two and the applicant was implemented and
the applicant received
cession of the mortgage bonds
“
by
way of registration
”
on
15 January 2014. The applicant did not mention this sale in the
affidavits in the application. The applicant nevertheless stated
in
the replying affidavit in the application that,
“
on
15 January 2014 the loans and mortgage bonds were ceded to the
applicant
…”
by
Secured Mortgages Two. Accordingly, if these dispersed allegations
are filtered to the material, Saambou ceded the loan agreements
and
mortgage bonds to Secured Mortgages Two and Secured Mortgages Two
ceded them to the applicant. The aforementioned allegations
are found
in the replying affidavit in the application and in the particulars
of claim in the current action, and in both the applicant
relies on
the endorsements on the mortgage bonds recording the cessions to the
applicant.
67.
The basis for the
applicant’s standing in the founding affidavit in the
application was different to that made out in the
replying affidavit.
As indicated above, the applicant initially founded its claim on the
direct transfer of rights from Saambou
to the applicant which was
effectively abandoned in the replying affidavit and reliance placed
on the cessions. The applicant relies
on those cessions in the
particulars of claim in the current action. The only material
difference in the allegations contained
in the application and the
particulars of claim in the current action is the absence of any
reference to the sale of business between
Secured Mortgages Two and
the applicant, which is not mentioned in the application. The issue
is whether this difference is sufficient
to find that the defence of
res
judicata
does
not raise an issue for trial.
68.
In
Hippo
Quarries (Tvl) (Pty) Ltd v Eardley,
[118]
the appellate
division described the cession as “an essential link in the
plaintiff's case”.
[119]
The description is
appropriate in this matter and, on an application of the authorities
mentioned above, the cessions on which the
applicant relies form part
of the cause of action. In
Johnson
v Incorporated General Insurances Ltd,
[120]
the appellate
division held that,
“
Cession, in
our modern law, can be seen as an act of transfer
("oordragshandeling") to enable the transfer of a right
to
claim (
translatio
juris
)
to take place. It is accomplished by means of an agreement of
transfer ("oordragsooreenkoms") between the cedent and
the
cessionary arising out of a
justa
causa
from
which the intention of the cedent to transfer the right to claim to
the cessionary (
animus
transferendi
)
and the intention of the cessionary to become the holder of the right
to claim (
animus
acquirendi
)
appears or can be inferred. The agreement of transfer can coincide
with, or be preceded by, a
justa
causa
which
can be an obligatory agreement ("verbintenisskeppende
ooreenkoms") such as, eg, a contract of sale, a contract of
exchange, a contract of donation, an agreement of settlement or even
a payment (
solutio
).
”
[121]
69.
In
Lief,
NO v Dettmann
,
[122]
which concerned the
cession of rights in terms of loans and mortgage bonds, the
substantial issues included whether the averments
in the claims
evidenced a common intention to effect a cession of rights and,
“
In so far as
an intention to effect a cession of those rights may be inferred from
the facts pleaded in the declaration, was a cession
effected in law,
having regard to the absence of any averment that the cession was
registered in terms of the provisions of the
Deeds Registries Act, 47
of 1937
.”
[123]
70.
In respect of some
of the claims, the intention was inferred from the pleaded facts and
in others, the averments did not disclose
that intention. However,
the matter principally turned on whether registration of the cessions
was necessary. In a judgment delivered
by Wessels JA, the majority of
the court held that registration was necessary to effect the cession
of the real rights in the mortgage
bond, and the transfer of the
principal debt
was
dependent on and must await the registration of the cession of the
real rights. The court held that,
“
On the
registration of a mortgage bond a real right in the property
hypothecated is constituted in favour of the mortgagee. In terms
of
the provisions of Act 47 of 1937 that right can be conveyed from the
mortgagee to another person only by means of a cession
of the
mortgage bond duly registered by the Registrar in terms of the
provisions of sec. 3 (f) read with sec. 16 of the Act.”
[124]
And in relation to the first of the
claims, it was held that,
“
The
declaration contains no averment that the grant of the participations
(which I will, for the moment, assume sufficiently indicate
an
intention on the part of the Board to cede the rights to which they
refer) or the subsequent cession (said to 'confirm' the
participations) were registered in accordance with the provisions of
Act 47 of 1937. It follows that the declaration does not disclose
a
cause of action either in respect of plaintiff's claim for an order
declaring that he had a real right 'in, to and under' the
bond to the
extent of R6,100, or in respect of his claim that he is entitled to
payment of that sum by reason of his having held
such a right prior
to the realisation of the bond.”
[125]
…
“
In so far as
this claim is concerned the Board purported to 'confirm' the grant of
the participations by executing a written cession.
From all the facts
pleaded an intention to effect a cession may, therefore, be inferred.
In my opinion, however, it is not sufficient
to show that the parties
contemplated a cession; it must be shown that they effected a
cession. It must appear that the parties
took legally effective
steps, where such are required, to transfer the subject matter of the
cession from the cedent to the cessionary,
so that the former is
divested of his rights, which thereafter vest exclusively in the
cessionary. (
Voet:
18.4.15;
Fick
v Bierman,
2
S.C. 26
;
Jeffery
v Pollak and Freemantle, supra
).
[126]
71.
The distinction
between the cession of the personal and real rights in a mortgage
bond was emphasised in relation to the alternative
claim. The
majority of the court asked,
“
[W]hether it
might be said that although the Board did not effectively cede a
portion of the secured debt, a cession of portion
of the principal
debt was, nevertheless, effected, so as to vest in the participant an
unsecured right of action against the mortgagor
to claim payment from
him of that amount of the principal debt to which the cession
relates.”
[127]
And held that,
“
A right of
action, such as a right to claim payment of a sum of money, is
transferred to the cessionary immediately upon the conclusion
of the
agreement to cede that right of action to the cessionary. In the case
of a right of action embodied in a registered mortgage
bond, the
parties contemplate the cession not only of the principal obligation
but also of the auxiliary real right in the immovable
property
hypothecated thereby. It follows that the parties must be taken to
have intended that the transfer of the principal obligation
would be
dependent on the conveyance of the real right in the mortgaged
property. Registration is essential to the conveyance of
the real
right to the cessionary. In the result the transfer of the principal
obligation must inevitably await the registration
of the
cession.”
[128]
72.
However, Van Wyk
JA, however, delivering the minority judgment, disagreed and said,
“
In my
opinion there can be no doubt that the parties intended that this
document should have the effect of bringing about a cession;
there
was no intention that the Board should be the plaintiff's debtor. The
words 'Do hereby cede, etc.', 'all our right, title
and interest in
and to the said bond', and 'without recourse to us' speak for
themselves, and leave no room for any doubt in this
regard. They
clearly purported to cede not only the debt, but also the security.
The latter, however, could only be effected by
registration, and the
question is whether the fact that the parties attempted something
which is legally impossible, i.e. the cession
of the security without
registration, vitiates the cession of the debt. In my view this is
not a simple case where a mutual mistake
of law results in no
agreement being entered into. The parties aimed at a dual result: the
cession of the debt and the cession
of the real rights. The cession
of the debt required no more than an agreement, and in my opinion
this result was achieved the
moment the cession was agreed to. I can
see no reason why the plaintiff should not in the circumstances be
able to claim registration
of the cession on the ground that an
effective cession of all the Board's real rights in respect of the
said portion of the bond
was intended, but there is no evidence of
any intention that the cession of the debt should be delayed until
registration.”
[129]
73.
The judgments
adopted contrasting views on the intention to cede the principal debt
and right of action. The intention of the parties
is a question of
fact and transfer of such personal rights does not, in all instances,
require the
registration of the transfer of the real rights in the mortgage bond
by registration of the cession. In this regard,
in
Louw
v WP Ko
ö
peratief
Bpk en Andere
,
[130]
the appellate
division said,
“
There is no
reason why parties to a cession cannot agree that a debt due to the
cedent is to be ceded independently from any bond
that serves to
secure such debt.
Lief
NO v Dettmann
does
not necessarily support the narrow interpretation of the Provincial
Division that a right of action secured by a bond was in
all cases by
operation of law inseparably bound to the real right resulting from
the registration of the bond, irrespective of
the parties' intention.
It could thus not be said that because there had been no registration
of the cession of the covering bonds,
the transfer of the
co-operative's rights of action had necessarily been void.”
[131]
The court did not
decide the issue but in
Standard
General Insurance Co Ltd v SA Brake CC
,
[132]
the appellate
division held that,
“
There could
also have been no doubt that the cession would have constituted both
the obligationary and transfer agreements. Apart
from the fact that
cession is according to our law primarily just that: an act of
transfer (
Johnson
v Incorporated J General Insurances Ltd
1983
(1) SA 318
(A) at 331G-H), the document, is unequivocally framed in
the present tense. In it SA Brake says that it effects transfer
forthwith:
'I/we . . .
do
hereby cede . . . transfer . . . make over all
my/our right'; and
nothing more could have been required of the bank, which immediately
asked Stangen to take cognisance of the
right given to and taken by
it. Compare also
Louw
v WP Ko
ö
peratief
Bpk en B Andere
[1994] ZASCA 54
;
1994
(3) SA 434
(A) at 443F-G.
”
[133]
74.
The authors of
Amler
’
s
Precedents of Pleadings,
[134]
state that,
“
It is
necessary to distinguish between the agreement to cede and the
cession itself (the real agreement whereby rights are bilaterally
transferred). Although the undertaking to cede and the actual cession
will often coincide and be consolidated in a single document,
they
remain discrete juristic acts. They are distinct in function and can
be so in time: by the former a duty to cede is created,
by the latter
it is discharged.”
…
“
A party
relying on a cession must allege and prove the contract of cession
that is, a contract in terms of which a personal (and
not a real)
right against a debtor is transferred from the creditor (cedent) to a
new creditor (cessionary).”
The authors are clear that the
pleading of a contract of cession is required in respect of personal
rights that are transferred
in terms of the contract. The statement
is not intended to apply to the transfer of real rights or personal
rights that must “inevitably
wait” the transfer of the
personal right.
75.
As stated above,
the applicant did not mention the sale between Secured Mortgage Two
and the applicant in the application but nevertheless
stated that on
15 January 2014,
“
the
loans and mortgage bonds were ceded to the applicant
…”
and
“
[t]he
proof of cession appears on the last pages of the respective mortgage
bonds.
”
The
proof on which the applicant relied in the application is the
endorsements on the mortgage bonds recording the cessions to the
applicant, i.e. the registration of the cession in the deeds
registry. The endorsements are dated 15 January 2014.
The sale is pleaded
in the particulars of claim. The sale is alleged to have included the
rights in “the first and second
loan agreements together with
the concomitant cessions of the first and second mortgage bonds …”.
The applicant proceeds
to plead that cession of the mortgage bonds
was taken on 15 January 2014 “by way of registration in the
office of the Registrar
of Deeds, Johannesburg”. In the
application, the applicant appears to have accepted a view that
accords with the view that
the transfer of the personal right had to
await the transfer of the real right and in the particulars, the view
that the personal
right was transferred in terms of the contract of
sale and the real right by registration.
76.
The following
statements are found in the judgment of this court in the
application:
“
In argument,
counsel for [the applicant] brought to my attention that both
mortgage bonds had been endorsed by cessions, which it
was argued was
evidence that a cession had taken place. … This, it was
argued, was sufficient evidence of the cession, though
not
specifically pleaded and should be accepted by the Court.”
“
Counsel for
the [trust] argued that [applicant’s] case, as pleaded, was at
odds with the endorsement of the mortgage bond
and that this did not
evidence a legal basis, properly pleaded, that a cession had
occurred.”
“
The
contentions in the founding affidavit are at odds with that in the
replying affidavit. A cause of action founded on cession
(contended
for in the replying affidavit and in argument) is in stark contrast
to one founded on a transfer of assets and liabilities
in terms of a
sale of business (contended for in the founding affidavit).”
…
“
[The
applicant] has not pertinently pleaded the cession, nor has it
provided proof of the contract of cession. What [the applicant]
relies on, is the consequences of the cession, namely the endorsement
of the mortgage bond, a public document. There is no evidence
apparent in the affidavits filed of record of a regular and valid
cession, as required, to sustain a cause of action reliant on
a
cession.”
“
The
respondents do not dispute the endorsement; they merely dispute that
the endorsement in and of itself is proof of the cession
to clothe
[the applicant] with the necessary
locus
standi.
I
agree.”
77.
As indicated above,
the applicant appears to have adopted the view in the application
that the transfer of the personal rights,
the principal debt and
right of action, depended on the cession of the real rights and the
transfer of both, was effected by the
registration of the cession of
the mortgage bonds. The trust did not dispute the registration of the
cession. The court nevertheless
appears to have found that the
applicant was required, and failed, to plead and prove the obligatory
agreement from which the intention
to cede can be inferred, because
the applicant does appear to have pleaded, and sought to prove, the
transfer agreement effected
by the registration of the cession. The
judgment does not indicate whether the court was asked to infer the
intention to cede from
the fact that the cession was registered or
whether it was argued that the production of an apparently regular
and valid cession
is
prima
facie
proof
which shifts the evidentiary burden.
78.
The issue is not
whether the judgment is correct. The judgment is presumed to be
correct. The applicant sought to rectify this declared
deficiency in
the particulars of claim in the current action. The alleged sale
constitutes the obligatory agreement and evidences
the intention to
cede. The issue is whether this addition is sufficient to sustain the
submission that the cause of action in the
current action is not the
same as the cause of action in the application.
79.
In application
proceedings, the cause of action must be pleaded in the founding
affidavit.
[135]
However, the
defence of
res
judicata
is
not limited to the cause of action set out in the founding affidavit.
In
S v Molaudzi
,
[136]
the constitutional
court referred to
Amtim
Capital Inc v Appliance Recycling Centres of America,
[137]
a judgment of the
court of appeal for Ontario, Canada, in which it was held that the
doctrine of
res
judicata
is
not to be applied mechanically. The constitutional court held that,
“[c]ourts have, over time, expressed the view that
the doctrine
of
res
judicata
should
not be applied rigidly.”
[138]
The constitutional
court was referring to the introduction of issue estoppel but the
statements reflect the general approach to
the doctrine of
res
judicata
.
In
National
Sorghum Breweries
supra,
[139]
which commenced as
an action, Olivier JA, delivering the majority judgment of the
supreme court of appeal, held that, “one
must look at the claim
in its entirety and compare it with the first claim in its entirety.”
There is no reason
to apply a different approach to applications. In applications, the
affidavits serve the function of both pleadings
and evidence,
[140]
t
he
affidavits
define
the disputes and the parties may expand on the allegations, evidence
and issues by the way in which they conduct the proceedings.
The
issues that arise in the course of the proceedings may found the
defence of issue estoppel. In
Ascendis
supra,
for
example,
Khampepe
J
stated
that, “[t]he claim of inutility was neither pleaded nor argued
…”, which suggests that either the pleading
or argument
may have been sufficient to sustain the defence of issue estoppel
.
The
defence of issue estoppel is merely an extension of the principles of
res
judicata
and
there is no justification for a different approach to be adopted in
respect of the requirements for
res
judicata.
In
my view, the cause of action must be determined from an assessment of
the whole of the case in which the final judgment was delivered.
The
basic ingredients or the factual basis - the necessary, material,
central basic facts - that emerge from such an assessment
must be
compared against the facts distilled from the subsequent case in
which the defence of
res
judicata
is
raised. The defence will find application if those facts are the
same, and the other requirements are satisfied
.
80.
The facts of this
matter may found a defence of
res
judicata.
Although
the basis on which the applicant contended for the transfer changed
between the founding affidavit and the replying affidavit,
the issue
remained the same. In the application, the issue between the parties
was whether the applicant had received transfer
of the rights. The
applicant initially claimed standing on a direct transfer of rights
from Saambou. The applicant abandoned that
contention in reply and
claimed standing on an indirect transfer from Saambou to Secured
Mortgages Two and from Secured Mortgages
Two to the applicant. The
applicant sought to prove the indirect
transfer
from Saambou, and
argued its standing on that basis at the hearing of the application.
The applicant was permitted to introduce
and ground its standing on
the indirect
transfer
in
the
replying affidavit and, in doing so, introduced the indirect transfer
into the cause of action. The indirect transfer was a
basic
ingredient or the factual basis - a necessary, material, central
basic fact - in the claim made in the application. The indirect
transfer
is
a central feature
in the particulars of claim in the current action. The allegations
concerning the cession are materially similar
and only differ in
respect of the obligatory agreement. The apparent failure of the
applicant to allege that obligatory agreement
in the application
seems to be insufficient to distinguish the causes of action. The
transfer is a common element in both legal
proceedings
and
,
as indicated by the
split decision in
Ascendis
supra,
its
presence alone may found a defence of
res
judicata.
81.
Counsel for the
applicant argued that the defence of
res
judicata
required
a final judgment on the merits and as standing was decided before the
merits, a determination on standing could not found
the defence of
res
judicata.
The
argument is derived from the requirement for a final judgment on the
merits, spliced with a distinction between standing and
merits. In
MV
Wisdom C United Enterprises Corporation v STX Pan Ocean Co Ltd,
[141]
the supreme court
of appeal held that, “what is required for the defence to
succeed is a decision on the merits.” And,
in
Giant
Concerts CC v Rinaldo Investments (Pty) Ltd,
[142]
the constitutional
court referred to
Hoexter
,
Administrative
Law in South Africa,
[143]
in which the author
states that, “[t]he issue of standing is divorced from the
substance of the case. It is therefore a question
to be decided
in
limine
[at
the outset], before the merits are considered.” The court held
that the applicant did not have standing and accordingly,
it was not
necessary to consider the merits.
[144]
The submission
equates merits and cause of action, and implies that standing is not
part of the cause of action.
82.
As the supreme
court of appeal recognised in
Land
and Agricultural Bank of South Africa v Parker and Others,
[145]
the question of
standing is both a procedural issue and an issue of substance.
[146]
If the issue of
substance is determined, the judgment may found a defence of
res
judicata.
In
the Lesotho case,
Masara
v Tsepong (Pty) Ltd,
[147]
mentioned by
Khampepe J in
Ascendis
supra,
the
court of appeal held that the defence of
res
judicata
requires
the same facts to be finalised on the merits of the same cause of
action,
[148]
and the defence
applies where “a cause of action has been litigated to
finality”.
[149]
This emphasises
that the relevant requirement for
res
judicata
is
the same cause of action or the same issue, ground or cause, and a
decision on the merits of the cause of action may found a
defence of
res
judicata.
In
this matter,
the
alleged transfer of rights to the applicant is an essential link in
the applicant’s case and forms part of the cause of
action. If
the merit of the alleged transfer was determined, the purpose of the
doctrine of
res
judicata
is
not served by permitting the applicant to repeatedly litigate on the
issue in the hope that a different result will be obtained
from the
court. The rationale for the doctrine of
res
judicata
is
to prevent contradictory conclusions, ensure certainty on matters
that have already been decided, promote finality and prevent
the
abuse of court processes.
[150]
The purpose of
res
judicata
is
not served by permitting a litigant who has no legal interest in the
adjudication of the merits of a matter to institute repetitive
litigation in respect of those merits, and
Giant
Concerts supra
is
not authority for a submission to the contrary. Although “the
purpose of
res
judicata
is
to balance the public interest in the finality of litigation with the
public interest of ensuring a just result on the merits”,
[151]
the balance is not
found by partitioning the essential facts into those to which the
principle applies and those to which it does
not.
83.
A judgment on the
merits is required because, as stated in
MV
Wisdom
supra,
[152]
“
in our law a
defendant who has been absolved from the instance cannot raise the
exceptio rei
judicatae
if
sued again on the same cause of action”.
[153]
The issue is
whether the dismissal in the application is a decision on the merits
or the equivalent of absolution from the instances.
In
Purchase
v Purchase,
[154]
Caney J stated
that, “
I
think that dismissal and refusal of an application have the same
effect, namely a decision in favour of the respondent.
”
[155]
In
African
Farms and Townships Ltd v Cape Town Municipality,
[156]
the appellate
division, referred to
Purchase
supra,
and
stated,
“
Counsel for
the appellant further argued that the order in the original
proceedings, which as such is an order dismissing the application,
is
to be equated with absolution from the instance, leaving the issue
undecided. In my view there is no substance in that argument.
…
As pointed out in
Purchase
v Purchase,
1960
(3) SA 383
(N) at p. 385, dismissal and refusal of an application
have the same effect, namely a decision in favour of the respondent.
The
equivalent of absolution from the instance would be that no order
is made, or that leave is granted to apply again on the same papers.
… In the present case, having regard to the judgment, the
import of the order is clearly that on the issues raised the Court
found against the appellant and in favour of the respondent.”
“
In the
result, I agree with the conclusion of the Court below that the
matter is
res
judicata
.
”
84.
However,
MV
Wisdom
supra,
[157]
the supreme court
of appeal referred to
African
Farms supra,
and
held that,
"It was held
in
African
Farms …
that
the dismissal of an application (which ordinarily would be regarded
as the equivalent to granting absolution from the instance:
Municipality
of Christiana v Victor
1908
TS 1117
;
Becker
v Wertheim, J Becker & Leveson
1943
(1) PH F34 (A)) can give rise to the successful raising of the
exceptio rei
judicatae
where,
regard being had to the judgment of the court which dismissed the
application,
‘
the import
of the order [was] clearly that on the issues raised the Court found
against the appellant [which had been the applicant
in the previous
proceedings], and in favour of the respondent.’
“
It is thus
clear that it is not the form of the order granted but the
substantive question (did it decide on the merits or merely
grant
absolution?) that is decisive in our law and that what is required
for the defence to succeed is a decision on the merits."
85.
Counsel for the
applicant referred to a number of decisions which merely served to
indicate that the issue is resolved on the facts.
The background and
context to the application and relevant aspects of the judgment in
the application are set out above. The applicant
has repeatedly
litigated on the issue of transfer. The trust has faced three
separate claims founded on the mortgage bonds and
their transfer and,
in the interim, the trustees of the trust passed away and were
succeeded by the current respondents. The applicant
was involved in
all of those attempts. The applicant was first involved in about
March 2011 as an agent managing the home loan
books and legal action
on behalf of Secured Mortgages Two, which was
“
effectively
run as a division of the applicant
”
.
The applicant is a bank which I assume is not without the resources
to ensure the proper prosecution of its claim and has been
assisted
throughout by legal managers, attorneys and counsel. The applicant
had ample opportunity to consider the facts required
to be alleged
and proved in order to establish its standing, and decided to rely on
the evidence mentioned below. The applicant
was afforded a fair
hearing and the judgment does not contain any reason to permit the
applicant another opportunity to return
to court. The allegations
indicate that the applicant was aware of the fact that success
depended on proof of the transfer of rights
from Saambou to Secured
Mortgages Two and from Secured Mortgages Two to the applicant. The
applicant sought to rely on the evidence
of the deponent to the
replying affidavit, a legal manager, and the endorsement on the
mortgage bonds, a public document, that
the rights had been
transferred from Secured Mortgages Two to the applicant. In the
application, the trust did not dispute the
endorsement but contended
that the endorsement was not proof of the cession. The trust
apparently argued that the pleaded allegations
were inadequate and
the evidence presented by the applicant was contradictory and
insufficient, and “did not evidence a legal
basis … that
a cession of rights had occurred.” The applicant does not
appear to have indicated at the time that any
other evidence was
available and persisted in the application
.
The
applicant sought judgment and the trust sought dismissal. The court
permitted the new matter in the replying affidavit and the
endorsement despite the deficiencies in the manner in which it was
produced. The court agreed with the respondent and dismissed
the
application. There is no indication in the judgment that either the
applicant or the trust submitted that there should be absolution
from
the instances in the event that the evidence produced by the
applicant was insufficient or that the court considered granting
absolution from the instance. The granting of absolution after
argument in an application is similar to doing so in a trial at
the
end of the whole case, which is seldom sought and unusual. The
applicant nevertheless argues that the dismissal is the equivalent
of
absolution from the instance. The trust argues that the dismissal is
judgment in its favour.
86.
In
Bouwer
v City of Johannesburg and Another,
[158]
Zondo JP, as he
then was, delivering the majority judgment of the labour appeal
court, held that,
“
If I were to
extract a principle from my approach to this matter, it would be
this: if in motion proceedings the parties have placed
before the
Court such evidence as they have chosen to place before it and the
matter has been argued and, thereafter, the Court
issues an order
that the application is dismissed and the basis of that decision is
that the applicant failed to prove its case,
the judgment or order of
the Court is a judgment or order on the merits of the case and it is
final and any attempt to institute
proceedings later to effectively
seek the same relief on the same cause of action would properly be
met by the special plea of
res
judicata
.
”
[159]
87.
The basis for the
order on which the defence of
res
judicata
was
founded in
Bouwer
supra,
was
that the learned judge, Landman J, had
“
after
considering the affidavits filed, concluded that there was not enough
evidence placed before him by the appellant to prove”
the case
sought to be made out in the application
.
This should be
compared with the judgment of this court in the application in which
it was held that “[t]here is no evidence
apparent in the
affidavits filed of record of a regular and valid cession, as
required, to sustain a cause of action reliant on
a cession.”
88.
Zondo JP explained
that,
“
[S]ometimes
a court issues an order of absolution from the instance in a case
where both parties have adduced all the evidence that
they chose to
adduce, have presented their oral argument and none of them has
indicated that there is any witness he wishes to
call who was
unavailable earlier on.”
[160]
“
I have
serious doubt that an order of absolution from the instance is
competent in a case such as the one referred to immediately
above.
…”
[161]
“…
Once
the parties have led all the evidence they wish to lead the Court
must decide the case on the merits and not in effect grant
an
absolution from the instance. In my view, when, in motion
proceedings, a Court finds that the applicant has failed to prove
his
case on the merits, the order that it makes to decide the case on the
merits against the applicant is to make an order dismissing
the
application. … The appellant failed to prove his case before
Landman J. He was, in my view, obliged to dismiss the appellant
’
s
application on the merits and, therefore, give judgment in favour of
the first respondent. That is precisely what Landman J did
in the
case before him. …”
[162]
“…
I
have never understood our law to be that, when in motion proceedings,
a Court dismisses an application because the applicant has
failed to
prove his case by necessary and proper evidence, its decision to
dismiss the application is not a decision on the merits
of the
dispute. My understanding has always been that that is a final and
definitive decision on the merits of the dispute and
the applicant
cannot later come back to Court on the same dispute and say: I now
have more or better evidence and institute fresh
proceedings for the
same relief as before on the same cause of action! If my view in this
regard does not reflect the legal position
and a litigant is, indeed,
permitted to have a second or even a third or fourth bite at the
cherry in such circumstances, this
part of our law is bad and needs
to be changed. In my view, any litigant who brings an application to
Court should place before
the Court all relevant and material
evidence in support of his case on the first occasion and should not
institute multiple applications
one after the other until the court
says he has proved his case.”
[163]
89.
However, in
Zietsman
v Electronic Media Network,
[164]
the supreme court
of appeal held that,
“
On an
analysis of the SCA judgment (especially paras 19 and 20), it is
clear that the ratio for the decision was that insufficient
evidence
had been placed before the court and the respondents had not
disclosed a defence. Neither the respondents
’
defence, nor their
prospects of success in the main action were dealt with in the first
application. … The respondents
’
application for
security for costs was thus dismissed.”
[165]
“
In my view
the effect of the SCA judgment is that it only granted absolution
from the instance. It clearly did not deal with the
merits. …”
[166]
90.
The judgment of
this court in the application is terse and not readily susceptible to
an interpretation. The context in which that
interpretation should
take place is set out above and in which, if the court intended to
grant absolution from the instance, I
would expect to find some
indication of the rationale for absolution. The language used does,
however, indicate an exception based
approach. The trust apparently
argued that there was no “evidence of a legal basis, properly
pleaded, that the cession had
occurred” and the court held that
“[t]here is no evidence … of a regular and valid cession
… to sustain
a cause of action reliant on a cession”,
and the endorsement is not sufficient to “clothe [the
applicant] with the
necessary
locus
standi
”
.
And the court did not find that the cession had not occurred. In my
view, these indications are insufficient, particularly considering
the judgments in
African
Farms
and
Bouwer
supra,
to
establish that the trust does not have a
bona
fide
defence.
The prospect of the defence of
res
judicata
succeeding
are irrelevant.
[167]
As stated in
Tumileng
supra,
“
[a]
defendant is not required to show that its defence is likely to
prevail”,
[168]
“
[t]his is
because a court seized of a summary judgment application is not
charged with determining the substantive merit of a defence,
nor with
determining its prospects of success.
”
[169]
Accordingly,
summary judgment must be refused.
91.
A further reason
for granting leave to defend is that the dispute concerning
res
judicata
has
at its core the applicant’s standing. The submission that the
trust “does not aver that the [applicant] does not
have the
necessary
locus
standi
to
sue …”, is incorrect. The trust denies the applicant’s
standing but pleads no knowledge to the material allegations
and puts
the plaintiff to the proof thereof. The applicant contends the denial
is bare. The question is whether the denial raises
a triable issue.
In
Joob
Joob Investments supra,
the
supreme court of appeal held that,
“
The
procedure is not intended to deprive a defendant with a triable issue
or a sustainable defence of her/his day in court. …
Our
courts, both of first instance and at appellate level, have during
that time rightly been trusted to ensure that a defendant
with a
triable issue is not shut out.”
[170]
92.
In my view, the
dispute raises a triable issue. The applicant has failed to prove
standing on two previous occasions, and adds to
the previous occasion
only the bare allegation that there was a sale between Secured
Mortgages Two and the applicant that was implemented.
Secured
Mortgages Two was
“
effectively
run as a division of the applicant
”
,
and there is scant particularity of the sale in the particulars of
claim. The applicant does not plead whether the contract is
written
or oral, where and by whom the contract was concluded, and the
material terms. The applicant does not
present
any evidence of the
sale in the supporting affidavit. The allegations made by the
deponent are typical of those that have been held
to be insufficient
for the purposes of summary judgment. See for example,
Absa Bank Ltd v
Future Indefinite Investments 201 (Pty) Ltd.
[171]
If the contract of
sale is written, the deponent does not indicate that the document was
perused. The deponent states that,
“
I
have perused the combined summons, particulars of claim and
defendants
’
special
plea filed
…”
.
In
comparison in
Stamford
Sales & Distribution (Pty) Limited v Metraclark (Pty)
Limited,
[172]
which concerned a
cession, the deponent specifically stated that, “[t]he
Applicant
’
s
file pertaining to the above-captioned matter which contains,
inter
alia,
a
cession of book debts in favour of the Applicant … is
currently in my possession and under my control and I am fully
conversant
with the content thereof.” There is no such
allegation in the present matter and the inconsistencies in the
applicant
’
s
case mentioned above suggest that the terms have not been considered.
93.
In
Maharaj
supra,
the
appellate division held that, “[t]he grant of the remedy is
based upon the supposition that the plaintiff's claim is
unimpeachable and that the defendant's defence is bogus or bad in
law.”
[173]
In my view, the
applicant’s claim cannot be described as “unimpeachable”.
The trust has successfully impeached
the transfer of rights on two
previous occasions. The alleged transfer of rights requires evidence
which has not materialised in
any of the proceedings to date and
accordingly the denial, albeit founded on an absence of knowledge,
establishes a triable issue.
Instead of demonstrating that the
contract of sale and cession are unimpeachable, the applicant
attempted to rely on the bank statements
attached to the affidavit in
support of the summary judgment application to contend that the
dispute regarding the applicant’s
standing was not
bona
fide.
The
applicant contended that the bank statements revealed that the trust
had paid the applicant after the cession, and an inference
could be
drawn that the trust had knowledge of the transfer and effectively
conceded the transfer. As indicated above, the attachment
of the bank
statements to the supporting affidavit to the extent to which the
applicant did so in this matter, was impermissible.
In any event, the
inference must be the most probable, plausible, readily apparent and
acceptable inference from a number of possible
inferences on the
facts.
[174]
I am not satisfied
that the inference can be drawn and the inference does not
demonstrate that the defence is not
bona
fide
,
particularly in circumstances where the applicant acted as an agent
for another entity prior to the alleged cession.
Costs
94.
In terms of the
rule 32(9), the court may make such order as to costs as to it may
seem just. The usual order is costs in the cause.
However, rule
32(9)(a) specifically provides for a deviation from the normal order,
“where the plaintiff, in the opinion
of the court, knew that
the defendant relied on a contention which would entitle such
defendant to leave to defend”. The
main defence raised by the
trust was
res
judicata.
Although
the plaintiff could have anticipated that it would experience some
difficulty in obtaining summary judgment, I cannot infer
that the
plaintiff knew that the trust would be entitled to leave to defend on
that defence. As stated at the outset, some of the
defences raised in
the papers do not appear to be
bona
fide
and
the trust did not contend that the application was defective. In my
view, there are no reasons which justify a deviation from
the usual
order.
95.
In the result, I
make the following order:
1. The application for summary
judgment is refused.
2. The defendant is granted
leave to defend.
3. The costs
of the summary judgment application
shall
be costs in the action.
Q LEECH
Acting Judge of High Court
Gauteng Local Division, Johannesburg
Applicant:
Counsel: C.
DÈNICHAUD
Attorneys: GLOVER
KANNIEAPPAN INC.
First and second respondents:
Counsel: J.W. KLOEK
Attorneys: J.J. BADENHORST
& ASSOCIATES
Third respondent: No appearance
Heard on: 20 April 2023
Delivered on: 10 July 2023
This judgment was
handed down electronically by circulation to the parties
’
representatives by
email, by being uploaded to
Case
Lines
and
by release to SAFLII.
[1]
(14191/2019)
[2020] ZAWCHC 45
(26 May 2020)
.
[2]
Van
Loggerenberg DE and Bertelsmann E
,
2nd
ed.
[3]
D1-385.
[4]
2020 (6) SA 624
(WCC)
.
[5]
para.
5.
[6]
RS
17, 2021, D1-384A - B.
[7]
McKenzie
v Farmers' Cooperative Meat Industries Ltd
1922
AD 16
,
p.
23
.
[8]
Strydom
v Kruger
1968 (2) SA 226
(GW)
,
headnote and p. 227B.
[9]
1970 (3) SA 560
(D)
.
[10]
p.
563G.
[11]
1976 (1) SA 418
(A), p.
421F.
[12]
1976 (2) SA 297
(T)
,
p. 299G.
[13]
(45323/2019,
42121/2019)
[2020] ZAGPPHC 257 (26 March 2020), para. 19.
[14]
(745/2020)
[2020] ZAECPEHC 33 (7 September 2020)
.
[15]
2021 (2) SA 587
(GP)
.
[16]
Deltamune
(Pty) Ltd and Others v Tiger Brands Ltd and Others
2022 (3) SA 339
(SCA)
,
para. 25.
[17]
para.
10
.
[18]
(32016/2019;32014/2019)
[2019] ZAGPPHC 978 (22 November 2019)
,
p. 12, line 20.
[19]
(11850/20)
[2022] ZAWCHC 132
(4 July 2022)
.
[20]
(9845/2022)
[2023] ZAWCHC 129
(29 May 2023)
.
[21]
SOED
,
note 2
[22]
Oxford
Compact Thesaurus, 2nd ed.
[23]
2023
JDR 1900 (SCA)
.
[24]
para.
15.
[25]
Rule
22(2) and 18(4).
[26]
RS 20, 2022, D1-416
and
416A.
[27]
Breitenbach
supra,
p.
228B.
[28]
Cohen
NO and others v Deans
2023 JDR 1216 (SCA)
,
para. 31.
[29]
Breitenbach
v Fiat
supra,
p.
228C - E.
[30]
Maharaj
supra,
p.
426D.
[31]
2022 (3) SA 339
(SCA)
.
[32]
VG
Hiemstra and HL Gonin, Trilingual Legal Dictionary, 3rd ed.
[33]
SOED,
note 3.
[34]
para.
28.
[35]
1967 (3) SA 632
(D)
.
[36]
p.
641A
.
[37]
para.
29.
[38]
para.
31.
[39]
2009 (5) SA 1
(SCA)
,
para. 32.
[40]
Explain
may mean: make clear or intelligible, state the meaning or
significance of but may also mean: give details of, account
for,
make clear the cause (SOED).
[41]
para.
22.
[42]
para.
5.
[43]
para.
13.
[44]
para.
48.
[45]
2022 (5) SA 639
(KZP)
.
[46]
para.
13 - 15.
[47]
(32016/2019;32014/2019)
[2019] ZAGPPHC 978 (22 November 2019)
.
[48]
para.
3.11.
[49]
p.
10, line 20.
[50]
1976 (2) SA 226
(T)
.
[51]
p.
228H.
[52]
Maharaj
supra,
p.
423G - H.
[53]
para.
32.
[54]
para.
33.
[55]
para.
37.
[56]
(37618/2021)
[2022] ZAGPPHC 278 (29 April 2022)
,
para. 4.6.
[57]
(2019/39986)
[2020] ZAGPJHC 243 (7 October 2020), para. 30 - 31.
[58]
(9845/2022)
[2023] ZAWCHC 129
(29 May 2023)
.
[59]
para.
48.
[60]
para.
49.
[61]
para.
50.
[62]
(2022/9914)
[2023] ZAGPJHC 303 (5 April 2023)
.
[63]
para.
29.
[64]
fn.
26.
[65]
2010 (6) SA 439
(SCA)
.
[66]
para.
36 and 47.
[67]
para.
48.
[68]
para.
22.
[69]
para.
22.
[70]
Cf.
Morgan
Cargo
,
Five Strand, Saglo
and
Nissan
supra,
and
Municipal
Employees Pension Fund v Eliopoulos
[2023]
ZAGPJHC 669 (8 June 2023)
.
[71]
para.
9.
[72]
(038375/2022)
[2023] ZAGPJHC 669 (8 June 2023)
,
para. 48.
[73]
Mphahlele
supra,
para.
12.
[74]
para.
23.
[75]
Conekt
Business Group (Pty) Ltd v Navigator Computer Consultants CC
2015
(4) SA 103
(GJ) at 107I - 108J in the context of an application for
rescission.
[76]
2012
(1)S A 226 (SCA) para 25.
[77]
para.
15.
[78]
para.
21.
[79]
p
ara.
40
.
[80]
Skead
v Swanepoel
1949
(4) SA 763
(T)
,
p. 7685;
Bentley
Maudesley and Company, Ltd v 'Carburol' (Pty), Ltd
and
Another
1949 (4) SA 873
(C), p. 878;
Edwards
v Menezes
1973 (1) SA 299
(NC)
,
p.
304F - G;
Belrex
95 CC v Barday
2021 (3) SA 178
(WCC)
,
para. 2; and
Tumileng
surpa,
para.
21.
[81]
Shingadia
v Shingadia
1966 (3) SA 24
(R)
,
p. 26;
Lovemore
v White
1978 (3) SA 254
(E)
,
p. 260H - 261B;
Hollandia
Reinsurance Co Ltd v Nedbank Ltd
1993
(3) SA 574
(WLD)
,
p.
577G-H
;
Freeman
NO v Eskom Holdings Ltd
2011 JDR 0226 (GSJ)
,
para. 21;
Bafokeng
Rasimone Management Services (Pty) Ltd v Van Wyk
(87403/2014)
[2015] ZAGPPHC 87 (26 February 2015), para. 9. Cf.
One
Nought Three Craighall Park (Pty) Ltd v Jayber (Pty) Ltd
1994
(4) SA 320
(W)
,
p. 322J - 323B;
Nkungu
v Johannesburg City Council
1950 (4) SA 312
(T)
,
p. 314E - H; and In
Collotype
Labels RSA (Pty) Ltd v Prinspark CC
2016
JDR 2155 (WCC)
,
para. 11.
[82]
1949 (4) SA 763
(T)
.
[83]
p.
768
.
[84]
1973 (1) SA 299
(NC)
.
[85]
p.
305
[86]
1981 (3) SA 579
(D)
.
[87]
p.
581
.
[88]
Breitenbach
v Fiat SA (Edms) Bpk
1976 (2) SA 226
(T)
,
p. 228E.
[89]
2020 (1) SA 623
(GJ)
.
[90]
At
627E
–F
.
[91]
p.
10, line 20.
[92]
p.
423H.
[93]
2010 (6) SA 439
(SCA)
,
para
48
.
See too
ABSA
Bank Ltd v Tebeila N.O.
(unreported,
GJ case no 2019/14019 dated 29 November 2022), para.
8
.
[94]
1976 (2) SA 226
(T)
.
[95]
p. 229B
.
[96]
p.
229A.
[97]
1922 AD 16
.
[98]
p.
23.
[99]
1933
CPD 626
.
[100]
1980 (2) SA 814
(A)
.
[101]
p.
825G.
[102]
p.
838H - 839C. See too
Truter
and Another v Deysel
[2006] ZASCA 16
;
2006 (4) SA 168
(SCA)
,
para. 19.
[103]
p.
835F - G.
[104]
2020 (1) SA 327
(CC)
.
[105]
para.
52.
[106]
[2000] ZASCA 159
;
2001 (2) SA 232
(SCA)
.
[107]
para.
3 - 5.
[108]
para.
110.
[109]
Ascendis
supra,
Khampepe
J, para. 32.
[110]
Ascendis
supra,
Cameron
J, para. 111 and 112.
[111]
ibid,
para.
113.
[112]
[2000] ZASCA 159
;
2001 (2) SA 232
(SCA)
.
[113]
para.
3 - 5.
[114]
para.
66.
[115]
para.
54.
[116]
para.
119.
[117]
para.
113.
[118]
[1991] ZASCA 174
;
1992 (1) SA 867
(A)
.
[119]
p. 873D.
[120]
1983 (1) SA 318
(A)
.
[121]
p.
331G - H.
[122]
1964 (2) SA 252
(A)
.
[123]
p.
264A - B.
[124]
p.
273H.
[125]
p.
274F - H.
[126]
p.
275D - F.
[127]
p.
276A.
[128]
p.
276B - D.
[129]
p.
260A - E.
[130]
1994 (3) SA 434 (A).
[131]
Headnote
and p.
442G-443B
.
[132]
[1995] ZASCA 46
;
1995 (3) SA 806
(A)
.
[133]
p.
814I - 815A.
[134]
9th
ed., Cession, p. 70.
[135]
Hart
v Pinetown Drive-In Cinema (Pty) Ltd
1972 (1) SA 464
(D)
,
p. 469C - E;
Nkengana
and another v Schnetler and another
[2011]
1 All SA 272
(SCA), para. 10;
Quartermark
Investments (Pty) Ltd v Mkhwanazi and Another
2014
(3) SA 96
(SCA)
,
para. 13; and
National
Council of Societies for the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals v
Openshaw
[2008] ZASCA 78
;
2008 (5) SA 339
(SCA),
para. 29.
[136]
2015 (2) SACR 341
(CC)
.
[137]
2014 ONCA 62
.
[138]
para.
22.
[139]
para.
3 - 5.
[140]
Fischer
and Another v Ramahlele and Others
2014 (4) SA 614
(SCA)
,
para. 13;
Minister
of Land Affairs and Agriculture and Others v D & F Wevell Trust
and Others
2008 (2) SA 184
(SCA)
,
para. 43; and
Absa
Bank Ltd v Kernsig 17 (Pty) Ltd
2011 (4) SA 492
(SCA)
,
para. 23.
[141]
[2008] ZASCA 21
;
2008 (3) SA 585
(SCA)
,
p. 589B.
[142]
2012
JDR 2298 (CC)
.
[143]
2
ed (Juta & Co, Cape Town 2012)
,
p. 488.
[144]
para.
58.
[145]
2005 (2) SA 77
(SCA)
.
[146]
para.
44.
[147]
[2015]
LSLC 59
.
[148]
para.
71.
[149]
para.
70.
[150]
para.
40 and 70.
[151]
para.
72.
[152]
2008 (3) SA 585 (SCA)
[153]
para.
9.
[154]
[1960]
3 All SA 363 (D).
[155]
p.
365.
[156]
1963 (2) SA 555
(A)
.
[157]
[2008] ZASCA 21
;
2008 (3) SA 585
(SCA)
,
p. 589B.
[158]
(JA64/06)
[2008] ZALAC 15
(23 December 2008)
.
[159]
para.
44.
[160]
para.
20.
[161]
para.
21.
[162]
para.
27.
[163]
para.
42.
[164]
(771/2010)
[2011] ZASCA 169
(29 September 2011)
.
[165]
para.
15.
[166]
para.
16.
[167]
Cohen
NO and others v Deans
2023 JDR 1216 (SCA)
,
para. 25.
[168]
para.
13.
[169]
para.
23
.
[170]
para
.
32 and 33.
[171]
Unreported,
WCC case no 20266/2015 dated 12 September 2016.
[172]
(676/2013)
[2014] ZASCA 79
(29 May 2014)
.
[173]
1976 (1) SA 418
(A)
,
p. 423A - H.
[174]
Cooper
and Another NNO v Merchant Trade Finance Ltd
200
(3) SA 1009
(SCA),
p.
1027, para. 7; Meyers v MEC, Department of Health, EC
2020
(3) SA 337
(SCA), para. 82.
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