Case Law[2023] ZAGPJHC 841South Africa
TBS Management Consultant and Projects CC and Another v Spar Group Ltd (2019/9612) [2023] ZAGPJHC 841 (27 July 2023)
High Court of South Africa (Gauteng Division, Johannesburg)
1 April 2020
Headnotes
Summary
Judgment
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# South Africa: South Gauteng High Court, Johannesburg
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## TBS Management Consultant and Projects CC and Another v Spar Group Ltd (2019/9612) [2023] ZAGPJHC 841 (27 July 2023)
TBS Management Consultant and Projects CC and Another v Spar Group Ltd (2019/9612) [2023] ZAGPJHC 841 (27 July 2023)
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sino date 27 July 2023
IN THE HIGH COURT OF
SOUTH AFRICA,
GAUTENG DIVISION,
JOHANNESBURG
CASE NO: 2019/9612
NOT REPORTABLE
NOT OF INTEREST TO OTHER
JUDGES
In the application by
TBS
MANAGEMENT CONSULTANT AND PROJECTS CC
FIRST
APPLICANT
SIBEKO,
THEMBA MUZI
SECOND
APPLICANT
And
THE
SPAR GROUP LTD
RESPONDENT
In
re
the matter between
THE
SPAR GROUP LTD
PLAINTIFF
and
TBS
MANAGEMENT CONSULTANT AND PROJECTS CC
FIRST
DEFENDANT
SIBEKO,
THEMBA MUZI
SECOND
DEFENDANT
JUDGMENT
MOORCROFT AJ:
Summary
Rescission of judgment
– Rule 42(1)(a) – order to which a party was procedurally
entitled cannot be said to have been
granted erroneously
Rescission -
Rule 32(2)(b) – common law – Good cause –
reasonable explanation and a bona fide defence
In a modern State it
is expected of people who involves themselves in a particular sphere,
that they should keep themselves informed
of applicable legal
provisions
Order
[1] In this matter
I make the following order:
1.
The
application for rescission is dismissed;
2.
The
applicants (defendants in the action) are ordered to pay the costs of
the application on the scale as between attorney and client,
jointly
and severally the one paying the other to be absolved.
[2] The reasons for
the order follow below.
Introduction
[3] This is an
application for the rescission of a default judgment granted on
9 June 2022. The application is based
on Rule 42, alternatively
Rule 31(2)(b), and further alternatively the common law.
[4] The respondent
entered into a credit agreement with the first applicant, represented
by the second applicant, on 27 November
2014. The second applicant is
the sole member of the first applicant and represented the first
applicant in its dealings with the
respondent.
[5] The second
applicant signed a suretyship in favour of the respondent in 2016.
The application in
terms of Rule 42(1)(a)
[6]
The
applicant must show that the order sought to be rescinded was granted
in his absence
and
that it was sought or granted erroneously. Once these requirements
are met, the Court has a discretion to rescind the order and
this
discretion must be exercised judicially.
[1]
In the
Zuma
matter,
Khampepe J, writing for the majority, said
[2]
in this context that:
“…
these
sorts of proceedings have little to do with an applicant's right to
seek a rescission and everything to do with whether that
applicant
can discharge the onus of proving that the requirements for
rescission are met. Litigants are to appreciate that proving
this is
no straightforward task. It is trite that an applicant who invokes
this rule must show that the order sought to be rescinded
was granted
in his or her absence and that it was erroneously granted or sought.
Both grounds must be shown to exist.”
and
“…
the
words "granted in the absence of any party affected thereby",
as they exist in rule 42(1)(a), exist to protect litigants
whose
presence was precluded, not those whose absence was elected. Those
words do not create a ground of rescission for litigants
who,
afforded procedurally regular judicial process, opt to be absent.”
[7] The summons was
served at the chosen
domicilium citandi et executandi
whereupon
the applicants instructed attorneys to represent them. Notice of
intention to defend was given and was received by the
respondent’s
attorneys of record on 1 April 2019. A summary judgment application
was heard and was dismissed on 14 February
2020.
[8] The applicants
brought an application to compel discovery in terms of Rule 35(12)
and (14) and the application was dismissed
on 16 April 2021.
[9]
The
applicants did not file a plea. A notice of bar was delivered on 1
April 2020 and the applicants did not file a plea within
five days as
required, and were
ipso
facto
barred
[3]
by 9 April 2020. The
applicants however knew of the bar and they delivered an abortive
notice in terms of Rule 30(2)(b) on 13 May
2020, alleging that the
notice of bar constituted an irregular step.
[10] It is common
cause that the first applicant was furnished with a copy of the set
down in the default judgment application
by his attorneys of record
on 26 May 2022. The applicants say that they assumed that the
action have been resolved or finalised
by their attorneys and for
this reason they did not react to the notice of set down. The
attorneys had however advised the applicants
that the attorneys
required a further deposit from the applicants in order to proceed to
oppose the application for default judgment.
The first applicant then
advised the attorneys that he was not able to make payment of a
further deposit on such short notice.
The assumption that the
attorneys would proceed to defend the matter without being placed in
funds therefore had no basis in fact.
[11] The applicants
therefore knew that the application for default judgment was on the
Court roll and would proceed, and
that nothing had been done to
resolve or finalise the action as alleged. There is therefore no
reasonable explanation for their
inaction.
[12]
There is
also no basis for finding that the order was granted in error. An
order is not granted erroneously or sought erroneously
when the
plaintiff or applicant was entitled procedurally to the order.
[4]
Rule 31(2)(b) and the
common law
[13] Turning to
Rule 31(2)(b) and the common law, an applicant for rescission is
required to show good cause.
[14]
Good cause
encompasses a reasonable explanation for the default as well as a
bona
fide
defence.
[5]
I
n
Grant
v Plumbers (Pty) Ltd
[6]
Brink
J was dealing with an older Rule of Court
[7]
that also required good or sufficient cause in the Free State
Division of the High Court. He said:
“
Having
regard to the decisions above referred to,
[8]
I am of opinion that an applicant who claims relief under Rule 43
should comply with the following requirements:
(a)
He must give a
reasonable explanation of his default
. If it
appears that his default was wilful or that it was due to gross
negligence the Court should not come to his assistance.
(b)
His application must be
bona fide
and not made with
the intention of merely delaying plaintiff's claim.
(c)
He must show that he has
a bona
fide defence
to
plaintiff's claim. It is sufficient if he makes out a
prima
facie defence
in the
sense of setting out averments which, if established at the trial,
would entitle him to the relief asked for. He need not
deal fully
with the merits of the case and produce evidence that the
probabilities are actually in his favour. (Brown v Chapman
(1938
TPD 320
at p. 325).”
[emphasis
added]
[15]
One
of the cases referred to by Brink J is
Cairns'
Executors v Gaarn
[9]
where Innes JA (as he then was) said:
“
It
would be quite impossible to frame an exhaustive definition of what
would constitute sufficient cause to justify the grant of
indulgence.
Any attempt to do so would merely hamper the exercise of a discretion
which the Rules have purposely made very extensive
and which it is
highly desirable not to abridge. All that can be said is that the
applicant must show, in the words of COTTON,
L.J. (In re Manchester
Economic Building Society (24 Ch. D. at p. 491))
'something
which entitles him to ask for the indulgence of the Court'.
What that something is must be decided upon the circumstances of each
particular application.”
[emphasis
added]
[16]
Good cause
therefore includes, but is not limited to the existence of a
substantial defence.
[10]
It is
therefore necessary to determine whether there is a satisfactory
explanation of the default, and whether the appellant raised
a
bona
fide
and substantial defence.
[17]
The
applicants contend that they paid an amount of R1 million
towards the indebtedness and that this amount must be subtracted
from
the judgment debt. A litigant who raises a defence of payment is
required to prove payment
[11]
and the applicants do not go beyond bald averments. One would
expect a party who made a payment to be able to produce a receipt
in
respect of a cash payment, especially for a large amount, and to be
able to state the date of the payment and to furnish a cheque,
an
electronic fund transfer (eft) document, a bank statement or other
document in support of the allegation. The applicants instead
rely on
a letter emanating from the respondent and written in September
2016 that refers to a deposit but does not state
whether or not the
amount had actually been received by the respondent.
[18] The allegation
that R1 million was paid in or about September 2016 is also at odds
with an acknowledgement by the applicants
on 13 July 2017 where they
declared that they were indebted to the respondent in the amount of
R1 980 000.
[19] Faced with the
denial in the answering affidavit, the applicants take the matter no
further in the replying affidavit,
save to say that they were
‘
struggling to obtain proof of payment from’
a
‘
financial institution.’
The suretyship
[20] The suretyship
document is a five-page document. It is headed in large print “DEED
OF SURETYSHIP INCORPORATING
CESSION AND PLEDGE”
.
The
document cannot be mistaken for anything else and it was signed twice
on the last page by the second applicant as surety and
also as the
representative of the first applicant, then trading as Themba Brick
and Steel Structure CC. He also initialled every
page of the
document.
[21] The document
is in plain and simple language that can be understood by the
ordinary person and particularly the ordinary
person who ventures
into business.
[22]
It is
presumed that a party entering into a contract has the necessary will
or
animus
to do so. The second applicant has the onus
[12]
to prove that the suretyship is not binding as he was unaware and
could be excused for not knowing of the suretyship..
[23] The second
applicant alleges that the suretyship relied upon by the respondent
was presented to him for signature and
that he was not given the
opportunity of reading the document nor was he advised of the legal
consequences of the document. He
admits that he signed the suretyship
document.
[24] The second
applicant is a member of close corporation carrying on business. No
person is expected to know all of the
law but as a businessman he is
expected to acquaint himself with areas of the law into which he
ventures in the course of his business
activities. He is therefore
expected to know or to find out what a suretyship is.
[25] His bald
averment that he did not know what he was signing stands to be
rejected.
[26]
In
S
v De Blom
[13]
Rumpff
CJ dealt with the maxim
ignorantia
iuris non excusat.
[14]
I quote from the headnote, summarising the text of the judgment:
“
At this stage
of our legal development it must be accepted that the cliché
that "every person is presumed to know the
law" has no
ground for its existence and that the view that "ignorance of
the law is no excuse" is not legally applicable
in the light of
the present day concept of mens rea in our law. But the
approach that it can be expected of a person
who, in a modern State,
wherein many facets of the acts and omissions of the legal subject
are controlled by legal provisions,
involves himself in a particular
sphere, that he should keep himself informed of the legal provisions
which are applicable to that
particular sphere, can be approved.”
[27]
In
George
v Fairmead (Pty) Ltd
,
[15]
Fagan JA said:
“
When can
an error be said to be justus for the purpose of
entitling a man to repudiate his apparent assent to
a contractual
term? As I read the decisions, our Courts, in applying the test,
have taken into account the fact that there
is another party involved
and have considered his position. They have, in effect, said: Has the
first party - the one who is trying
to resile - been to blame in the
sense that by his conduct he has led the other party, as a reasonable
man, to believe that he
was binding himself? (vide Logan v Beit,
7
S.C. 197
; I. C Pieters & Company v
Salomon,
1911
AD 121
esp.
at pp. 130, 137; van Ryn Wine and Spirit Company
v
Chandos Bar.
1928 T.P.D. 417
, esp. at pp. 422, 423, 424; Hodgson
Bros v South African Railways,
1928 CPD 257
at p. 261). If his
mistake is due to a misrepresentation, whether innocent or
fraudulent, by the other party, then, of course,
it is the second
party who is to blame and the first party is not bound.”
[28]
A mistake
is not justifiable merely because it was induced by the other party
to the contract. The Court must also ask whether the
reasonable man
would have been misled.
[16]
[29]
A defence
of
iustus
error
succeeded
in
Brink
v Humphries & Jewell (Pty) Ltd
.
[17]
In that case a majority of the Supreme Court of Appeal held on the
facts that the surety document itself constituted a misrepresentation
that induced a mistake by the defendant. The document itself was
[18]
a “
trap
for the unwary.”
In
the present matter the suretyship boldly proclaims itself to be a
suretyship. The surety was not trapped.
[30]
By entering
into a contract parties signal their intention to exercise the rights
granted by and to undertake the obligations imposed
by the contract.
Other parties are entitled to rely on the external manifestation of
will and then arrange their affairs on the
understanding that the
undertakings are seriously given. In
Ridon
v Van der Spuy and Partners (Wes-Kaap) Inc
,
[19]
Van Heerden J said:
“
South African
law, as a general rule, concerns itself with the external
manifestations, and not the workings of the minds of parties
to a
contract
(see South
African Railways & Harbours v National Bank of South Africa
Ltd
1924
AD 704
at
715 - 16, per Wessels JA).
[20]
In a case such as this one, where there is no
subjective consensus (meeting of the minds) between the
plaintiff and
the defendant, resort must be had to the so-called
'reliance theory' in order to determine whether a binding contract
has come
into being between the parties (see further below). However,
in order to apply the reliance theory, it is necessary to
determine
what the defendant's 'expressed intention' ('declared
intention') was by reference to and interpretation of 'the words
which
he has used or to which he appears to have assented' (see Irvin
& Johnson (SA) Ltd v Kaplan
1940 CPD 647
at 651).”
[31]
The so-
called reliance theory was considered by the Appeal Court in
Steyn
v LSA Motors Ltd
.
[21]
Applying the test formulated by Scott JA in that case to the present
matter, and accepting for the sake of the argument that the
second
applicant’s true intention (not to be bound by a suretyship)
differed from what was expressed in the document signed
by him
(namely that he was so bound), the question is whether the reasonable
man in the position of the respondent would have entered
into the
contract of suretyship in the belief that it represented the second
applicant’s true intention. The answer to this
question must be
“yes.”
[32] The applicants
applied for condonation for the late filing of the rescission
application insofar as it was necessary
to do so and the application
was not opposed. Condonation is therefore granted insofar as it may
have been necessary.
[33] The agreement
provides for cost on the attorney and client scale and the order I
make above therefore provides for costs
on the attorney and client
scale.
[34] For the
reasons set out above I make the order in paragraph 1.
J MOORCROFT
ACTING JUDGE OF THE
HIGH COURT OF SOUTH AFRICA
GAUTENG DIVISION
JOHANNESBURG
Electronically
submitted
Delivered: This judgement
was prepared and authored by the Acting Judge whose name is reflected
and is handed down electronically
by circulation to the Parties /
their legal representatives by email and by uploading it to the
electronic file of this matter
on CaseLines. The date of the judgment
is deemed to be
27 JULY 2023
.
COUNSEL
FOR THE APPLICANTS:
M
RODRIGUES
INSTRUCTED
BY:
PAUL
T LEISHER & ASSOCIATES
COUNSEL
FOR THE RESPONDENT:
D
VAN NIEKERK
INSTRUCTED
BY:
CLIFFE
DEKKER HOFMEYR
DATE
OF ARGUMENT:
24
JULY 2023
DATE
OF JUDGMENT:
27
JULY 2023
[1]
Zuma v
Secretary of the Judicial Commission of Inquiry into Allegations of
State Capture, Corruption and Fraud in the Public Sector
including
Organs of State (Council for the Advancement of the South African
Constitution and Democracy in Action Amicus Curiae)
2021 JDR 2069 (CC),
[2021]
JOL 51107
(CC)
paras [53] to [56]
[2]
Ibid
paras [54] and [56].
[3]
Rule 26.
[4]
Freedom
Stationary (Pty) Ltd & Others v Hassam & Others
2019
(4) SA 459
(SCA) para [18].
[5]
See the cases referred to by Van Loggerenberg and Bertelsmann
Erasmus:
Superior Court Practice
2022, Vol 2, D1-564 to 565, footnotes 33 and 49.
[6]
Grant
v Plumbers (Pty) Ltd
1949
(2) SA 470
(O) 476–7.
[7]
Rule 43 (O.F.S.).
[8]
The Judge referred to
Joosub
v Natal Bank
1908
TS 375
,
Cairns'
Executors v Gaarn
1912
AD 181
,
Abdool
Latieb & Co v Jones
1918
TPD 215
,
Thlobelo
v Kehiloe
(2)
1932 OPD 24
,
Scott
v Trustee, Insolvent Estate Comerma
1938
WLD 129
, and
Schabort
v Pocock
1946
CPD 363.
[9]
Cairns'
Executors v Gaarn
1912
AD 181
at 186.
[10]
Silber
v Ozen Wholesalers (Pty) Ltd
1954
(2) SA 345
(A) 352G.
[11]
Pillay
v Krishna
1946
AD 946
at 958,
Standard
Bank of SA Ltd v Oneanate Investments (Pty) Ltd (in liquidation)
1998
(1) SA 811 (SCA).
[12]
Langeveld
v
Union Finance Holdings (Pty) Ltd
2007 (4) SA 572 (W) paras [12] – [13]. See
also
HNR
Properties CC and Another v Standard Bank of SA Ltd
2004 (4) SA 471
(SCA) paras [22] – [23].
[13]
S
v De Blom
1977
(3) SA 513 (A).
[14]
Ignorance of the law is no excuse.
[15]
George
v Fairmead (Pty) Ltd
1958 (2) SA 465
(A) 471B. See also
Absa
Bank Ltd v Trzebiatowsky and Others
2012 (5) SA 134
(ECP) and
Burger
v Central South African Railways
1903 T.S. 571.
[16]
Brink
v Humphries & Jewell (Pty) Ltd
2005 (2) SA 419
(SCA) para [8].
[17]
Ibid.
[18]
Ibid
para
[11].
[19]
Ridon
v Van der Spuy and Partners (Wes-Kaap) Inc
2002 (2) SA 121
(C) 135C.
[20]
See the discussion of the
SAR&H
case by Kerr
The
Principles of the Law of Contract
5
th
ed. 1998, p 20 – 25.
[21]
Steyn
v LSA Motors Ltd
1994
(1) SA 49
(A) 61C – E. See also
Kgopana
v Matlala
2019 JDR 2365 (SCA) para [10] and
SONAP
Petroleum (SA) (Pty) Ltd (formerly known as SONAREP (SA) (Pty) Ltd)
v Pappadogianis
[1992] ZASCA 56
;
1992
(3) SA 234
(AD) 238G – 240B.
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